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Exam Code: HP2-B109
Exam Name: Selling HP Printing and Personal Systems Hardware
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Exam Code: HP2-B113
Exam Name: Selling HP Designjet Large Format Printing - Exam
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NO.1 Which HP capability allows IT administration staff to prevent the use of unwanted USB keys?
A. HP Device Manager
B. HP Universal Print Driver
C. HP WebJetadmin
D. HP Embedded Web Server
Answer: A

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Explanation:
HP Device Manager protects against unwanted USB keys

NO.2 Your customer will be installing 30 Z620 workstations in a large room.
Their current installation is so noisy that the users are complaining they cannot work effectively.
How would you describe the approximate noise level these 30 workstations will make if they are all
operating their SATA drives?
A. About the noise level of a calm room, like a library, 20-30 db
B. About the noise level of normal conversation, 40-60 db
C. About the noise level of traffic on a busy road. 80-90 db
D. About the noise level of a jackhammer, more than 100db
Answer: B

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NO.3 According to IDC research regarding IT staff productivity, user productivity, and IT cost
reductions, which product enables annual savings of $32,000 per 100 users?
A. Microsoft System Center
B. HP Client Automation
C. Intel vPro
D. LANDesk
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the primary target customer market for the HP OfficeJet Pro and OfficeJet Pro X?
A. Small and medium business
B. Large enterprise
C. Home office
D. Mid-market
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is a benefit of business value selling?
A. It allows customers to compare the features and advantages of a particular product and assess
the potential benefits for their organization.
B. It enables customers to review quotations from different organizations and determine the
optimum solution based on product needs.
C. It ensures customers are able to realistically compare product features and advantages and
determine the best solution for their organization.
D. It moves the conversation from price and product features and enables the customer to recognize
the tangible value of the solution in the context of their business needs.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Your education customer needs to provide personal computing facilities in several dedicated
computer rooms to support a large number of students at very low cost
Which product line should you offer?
A. HP ElitePad
B. HP Business Desktops
C. HP Zero Clients
D. HP ProDesk
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which mobile product should you recommend for the task worker type of user?
A. HP Spectre Pro
B. HP Z1 Workstation
C. HP EliteBook Folio
D. HP ProBook 400 or 600
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which HP capability replaces the BIOS boot block if a virus corrupts the notebook?
A. HP Device Manager
B. HP Sure Start
C. HP ProtectTools
D. HP Page Lift
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HH0-300
Exam Name: HITACHI DATA SYSTEMS CERTIFIED EXPERT -REPLICATION SOLUTIONS ARCHITECT
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Exam Code: HH0-350
Exam Name: HITACHI DATA SYSTEMS CERTIFIED SPECIALIST -NAS ARCHITECT
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NO.1 A customer is using Hitachi Universal Replicator (HUR) and does not have sufficient network
bandwidth. During a peak write workload, the customer overflows their HUR journals and
replication suspends in error.
What happens when the customer issues a resychronization?
A. HUR performs an initial copy.
B. HUR performs a differential copy.
C. HUR performs a no copy.
D. HUR performs an at-time split.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which tool is used to capture workload data in a VMware environment?
A. RIAT
B. SAR
C. glance+
D. RMF magic
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are two ways to improve initial copy time for ShadowImageon a VSP? (Choose two.)
A. Use SATA disks.
B. Distribute S-Vols across additional parity groups
C. Increase the copy pace.
D. Decrease the copy pace.
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 A customer is implementing TrueCopy between their primary and secondary data centers. Due
to budget constraints the RCU has larger, slower disk drives than the MCU.
What is the risk associated with the design?
A. Primary volumes may suspend
B. Journal utilization may increase
C. Host response time may increase
D. Back-end director utilization may increase
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer notices poor performance with the ShadowImageS-Vols that reside on an
externalized HUS 150. They have not noticed any problems with internal ShadowImageS-Vols.
Which system option mode (SOM) and setting should you verify?
A. Verily that SOM 459 is off.
B. VerilythatSOM459ison.
C. VeritythatSOM489ison.
D. Verily that SOM 489 is off.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A large bank requires a no data loss copy of data over 250 km away, however they have
budget restrictions which prevent them from placing hosts at the in-region intermediate site and
therefore will always recover at the out-of-region remote location.
Which solution meets the requirement?
A. a three data center multi-target
B. a three data center cascade solution
C. a TrueCopy cascade off of a ShadowImagecopy
D. a Hitachi Universal Replicator cascade off of a ShadowImagecopy
Answer: B

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NO.7 A customer is using Hitachi Universal Replicator to continuously replicate a database's data
and log volumes.
Which two statements describe what will happen? (Choose two.)
A. A database checkpoint will be created upon failover.
B. At recovery time, the database will reconcile logs and transactions.
C. In the case of a planned outage, log volumes may not include all transactions.
D. In the case of an unplanned outage, log volumes may not include all transactions.
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 Which two workload metrics are used to calculate replication bandwidth requirements?
(Choose two.)
A. disk latency
B. read/write ratio
C. host response time
D. total MB/sec throughput
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: CLOUDF
Exam Name: EXIN Cloud Computing Foundation
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Exam Code: P3OF
Exam Name: Portfolio, Programme and Project Offices® Foundation
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NO.1 What is defined as a temporary, flexible organization created to coordinate the
implementation of a set of related projects and activities?
A. Programme
B. Business as usual
C. Project
D. Portfolio
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following are recommended for the implementation of a P3O model?
1.Follow a recognized programme or project methodology
2.Define a budget and associated timescales to deliver
3.Appoint a P3O Sponsor
4.Use a programme approach to implement a single office P3O staffed by one individual
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 3, 4
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which functional area considers risk against the ability to achieve planned outcomes for a
specific business change?
A. Strategic planning/portfolio support
B. Delivery support
C. Project
D. COE
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which is delivered by the Blueprint's information flows?
A. P3O implementation plan
B. Management of risk
C. Principle of management by exception
D. Realization of benefits
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which technique ensures resources with the right expertise are allocated to PPM roles?
A. P3O information portal
B. Skills development and maintenance
C. Management dashboards
D. Facilitation - workshop techniques
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following are governance responsibilities of a P3O model?
1.Ensure the right level of decision is taken by the right person or group based on the right level of
supporting information
2.Provide approval at a stage gate without other sign-off if all issues are resolved
3.Equip management boards with exception reports and associated options
4.Provide appropriate rules for summarizing progress information
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 3, 4
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which is a likely source of a threat to achieving the Blueprint?
A. Programme team fails to use a common language
B. Stakeholders are identified and analysed
C. Programme approach is used to implement a P3O
D. External consultants advise the programme team
Answer: A

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NO.8 What technique provides the benefit of checking the quality of the decision-support
information being provided to the P3O?
A. Gated reviews
B. Business process svvimlanes
C. Capacity planning for resource management
D. Management dashboards
Answer: A

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Exam Code: PR2F
Exam Name: PRINCE2 Foundation Exam (PR2F)
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Exam Code: EX0-004
Exam Name: Management of Risk Foundation
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NO.1 Why is a Project Brief produced?
A. To act as a trigger for the Starting up a Project process
B. To record the strategies and management controls to be used by a project
C. To provide a full and firm foundation for the initiation of a project
D. To be used by the Project Board as a basis for reviewing the progress of a project
Answer: C

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NO.2 In what product should the quality criteria for a specialist product be recorded?
A. Quality Management Strategy
B. Quality Register
C. Product Description
D. Project Product Description
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following is NOT part of quality planning?
A. Define quality responsibilities
B. Gain acceptance of the project product
C. Agree acceptance criteria
D. Set quality tolerances
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which is assumed to be a supplier's responsibility in the PRINCE2 customer/supplier
environment?
A. Specify the desired result
B. Provide the resources and skills to deliver the desired result
C. Pay for the project
D. Specify the benefits of the project
Answer: B

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NO.5 Who carries out audits that are independent of the project?
A. Quality assurance
B. Project Assurance
C. Project Support
D. Project Manager
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which statement defines a risk?
A. A certain event occurring in the future that will have a negative impact on the project's objectives
B. An event that has already occurred that the Project Manager must deal with immediately
C. An uncertain event, or set of events that, should it or they occur, will have an effect on the
achievement of objectives
D. An uncertain event, or set of events that, should it or they occur, will be automatically escalated
to the Project Board for a response
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the first task of product-based planning?
A. Produce the Initiation Stage Plan
B. Write the Project Product Description
C. Identify dependencies
D. Create the product breakdown structure
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is defined as a temporary organization that is created for the purpose of delivering one
or more business products?
A. Corporate or programme management
B. A project
C. A product breakdown structure
D. A user group
Answer: B

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Exam Code: MORF
Exam Name: Management of Risk Foundation
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Exam Code: MOPF
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NO.1 Which is NOT a recommended risk response option for an 'opportunity'?
A. Enhance
B. Transfer
C. Share
D. Reduce
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which describes the cause of a risk?
A. Likelihood of the risk occurring
B. Potential trigger point for a risk
C. Impact of the risk on an activity
D. Risk remaining after implementing a risk response
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which effect on the organization's objectives could the PESTLE analysis technique help to
identify
A. Risk exposure trends
B. Current external factors
C. Long-term developments
D. Internal strengths
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which is a use of a risk management maturity model?
A. Enabling organizations to benchmark their current risk management capability
B. Checking the state of current risk management
C. Identifying areas where application of risk management can be improved
D. Carrying out an enterprise wide assessment
Answer: A

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NO.5 What document describes how risk management activities relate to the achievement of
strategic objectives?
A. Risk progress report
B. Risk management process guide
C. Risk management policy
D. Risk register
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which is a responsibility of the senior team role?
A. Approve assessments of risk probability, impact and proximity
B. Specify the required budget to fund risks
C. Document the importance of risk management towards achieving organizational objectives
D. Agree the timing of risk progress reports for an activity
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which describes the threat response option 'accept the risk'?
A. Perform an action to minimize the impact of the risk should it occur
B. Carry out an action to make the uncertain situation certain
C. Take no action except monitor the risk to ensure it remains tolerable
D. Partake in a pain/gain contract with another party for the specified risk
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which specialism has been developed to offer business as usual in the quickest possible time
in the event of an emergency?
A. Incident and crisis management
B. Business continuity management
C. Health and safety management
D. Reputational risk management
Answer: B

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ECP-541 Exam Questions, ECP-541 Real Dumps

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Exam Code: ECP-541
Exam Name: Ericsson Certified GGSN-MPG and GPG Professional
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ECP-541 Exam Cost Total Q&A: 96 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-07-29

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NO.1 What does TCP use to set up a connection?
A. Two-way handshake
B. Sliding window
C. Three-way handshake
D. Four-way handshake
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which three techniques allow for the co-existence of IPv4 and IPv6 networks?
A. tunneling
B. anycasting
C. translation
D. encoding
E. dual-stacking
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two statements are correct about link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
A. Packets are routed based upon the shortest path to the destination.
B. Paths are chosen based upon the number of hops to the destination.
C. The exchange of advertisement is triggered by a change in the network.
D. In a multipoint network, all routers exchange routing tables directly with all the routers.
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 An edge router forwards a mixture of VoIP and IPTV traffic over the same port.
Which two QoS scheduling algorithms would you use to assure good VoIP call quality when the port
is congested? (Choose two.)
A. PQ
B. WFQ
C. PWFQ
D. WRED
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 IPv6 addresses can be classified into which three categories? (Choose three.)
A. anycast
B. broadcast
C. multicast
D. hexcast
E. unicast
Answer: A,C,E

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10. Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, what is the next hop (A, B, C, or D) for traffic arriving at R2 and destination
network 192.168.3.0?
A. Next Hop A
B. Next Hop B
C. Next Hop C
D. Next Hop D
Answer: C

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NO.6 Why must the distance between two IP networks be less than 16 routers when using RIP as a
routing protocol?
A. RIP is a classful routing protocol.
B. RIP converges too slowly.
C. RIP uses a metric of 16 as infinite.
D. RIP uses 16 seconds as a hold timer.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which action is performed by router R4?
A. pop
B. swap
C. PHP
D. push
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which two statements are correct regarding QoS in an IP network using DiffServ?(Choose two.)
A. High priority traffic can be dropped by any router in the network.
B. Packets belonging to the same QoS class always traverse the same path regardless of IGP
topology change.
C. Routers reserve required bandwidth before they start forwarding packets for a given class.
D. QoS procedures applied to a given traffic class are the same for all routers within the DiffServ
domain.
Answer: A,D

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C2040-403 Real Dumps, A2040-410 Bootcamp

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Exam Code: C2040-403
Exam Name: IBM Forms 8.0 - Form Design and Development
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C2040-403 Real Exams Total Q&A: 105 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-07-28

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Exam Name: IBM Notes and Domino 9.0 Social Edition Application Development B
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NO.1 When creating a field that can change its height based on the amount of data it contains,
which of
the following should occur?
A. The field should also be able to change width dynamically.
B. Items that appear below the field on the page should come after it in the build order.
C. Items that appear below the field should be relatively positioned so that they move up or down
as the field changes size.
D. Items that appear below the field on the page should come after it in the build order, and should
be relativelypositioned so that they move upor down as the field changes size.
Answer: D

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NO.2 How is an XForms submission handled by the Translator Server?
A. The Client's Browser sends the XForms submission as XML directly to the submission URL.
B. The Client's Browser sends the XForms submission as HTML directly to the submission URL.
C. The Translator Server sends the XForms submission as XML directly to the submission URL.
D. The Translator Server sends the XForms submission as HTML directly to the submission URL.
Answer: C

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NO.3 When calling one of the functions contained within the Viewer IFX, all of the following
statements
are true EXCEPT which one?
A. You must add the 'viewer' prefix to the function call.
B. Viewer functions only work when using the Viewer.
C. There is a function within the Viewer IFX to display a message box.
D. Viewer functions can be called from XForms actions.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following is the best practice to set a IBM Forms data element as read only?
A. <xforms:bind nodeset="birthdate" readonly="true()"/>
B. <field sid="birthdate"><readonly>on</readonly></field>
C. <xforms:bind nodeset="birthdate" readonly="true"/>
D. <xforms:bind nodeset="birthdate" properties="readonly"/>
Answer: A

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NO.5 Jane is designing a form with three pages. Pages one and two are built with a wizard style
interface, and page three is meant only for printing. How can Jane setup her form so that when
the form is printed, only page three prints?
A. Jane should only put a print button on page three, then it will be the only one that shows up
when the form is printed.
B. Jane must break up her form into two separate forms: one for the wizard and one for printing.
C. Jane can set theprint settingsproperty of page three to 'on', andprint settingsproperty for pages
one and two to 'off'.
D. Jane would create a "keep" filter, specifying page three as the only page to print.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which statement below best describes XFDL functions?
A. XFDL functions provide a way to perform complex calculations.
B. XFDL functions can be extended via User-Defined functions.
C. XFDL functions provide out-of-the-box functionality via two packages: viewer and system.
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.7 Where can spell checking for the Designer be enabled or disabled?
A. In the Spell Check section of the Forms Designer heading in the Preferences.
B. On the file system, by removing or replacing the dictionary files in the Designer's install folder.
C. In the global form properties dialog.
D. From the Preferences dialog opened from the Viewer's toolbar.
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is the default namespace prefix for an IBM Form?
A. xmlns:xforms
B. xmlns:default
C. xmlns:custom
D. xmlns:xfdl
Answer: D

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