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Exam Code: C2020-703
Exam Name: IBM Cognos TM1 10.1 Administrator
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
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Last Update: 2014-10-27

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Exam Code: C2180-607
Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Process Server V7.0, Integration Development
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Exam Code: C2180-526
Exam Name: IBM Application Integration Middleware L1 Support Application Development
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NO.1 Your organization has security restrictions that prohibits the installation of software on
end-user
workstations.
Which two TM1 user interfaces would be acceptable? (Choose two.)
A. Cognos Insight
B. TM1 Web
C. TM1 Performance Modeler
D. TM1 Application Web
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 In TurboIntegrator, what is used to pull data from a relational database (e.g., Oracle)?
A. Text
B. ODBC
C. ODBO
D. IBM Cognos TM1 View
Answer: B

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NO.3 Support has requested that the customer increase the logging in their tm1s-
log.properties file.
Where is this file found.?
A. In the same directory as the tm1 install
B. In the same directory as the web.config file
C. In the same directory as thetm1s.cfg file
D. In the same directoryasthetm1p.ini file
Answer: C

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NO.4 You want to deploy a new application using dimension calculations in Performance
Modeler. The
application will be deployed in distributed mode.
Which two configuration parameters should be applied? (Choose two.)
A. PersistentFeeders=T
B. AllowSeparateNandCRules=T
C. DistributedPlanningOutputDir=.\tunit
D. LoggingDirectory=. . \log
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 Which two TM1 Objects are potential data sources for a TurboIntegrator process?
(Choose two.)
A. Rule File
B. Dimension Subset
C. Cube View
D. Application Folder
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 You run a T1 process that imports data into a TM1 cube from a .csv file. The process
completes with a
message "Process completed successfully", however when you check the Target Cube, the
cube shows
all zeros.
Which log file would you review?
A. tm1s.log
B. tm1server.log
C. tm1web.log
D. tm1-log.properties
Answer: A

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NO.7 A customer will be using TM1 Applications and wants to integrate with their current BI
server for
authentication.
Which security mode setting should they set in their tm1s.cfg file for the
IntegratedSecuirtyMode
parameter?
A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
Answer: A

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NO.8 You want to load data into a TM1 cube.
Which three data sources would you use? (Choose three.)
A. Comma-delimited files
B. ODBO connector
C. JDBC connector
D. JSON connector
E. TM1 Cube Views
Answer: A,B,E

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Exam Code: A2070-583
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM Content Analytics and Search V2.2
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Exam Code: P2020-014
Exam Name: IBM SPSS Collaboration and Deployment Services Technical Support Mastery Test v1
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NO.1 How does the IBM Classification Module annotater documents?
A. with tokens extracted from the documents
B. with entities identified and extracted from the documents
C. with relationships identified and extracted from the documents
D. with one or more known categories derived from the documents
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which statement is NOT true?
A. The 'esadmin' command can stop a crawler.
B. The 'esadmin' command can start a crawler.
C. The 'esadmin' command can create a crawler.
D. The 'esadmin' command can monitor a crawler.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which statement is NOT true about synonym dictionaries?
A. Words are specific to a language with the synonym dictionary.
B. Only one synonym dictionary can be associated to a collection.
C. Synonym dictionary can be used to improve search of acronyms.
D. Add a synonym dictionary to the system, then associate it to a collection.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which cannot be configured in the search server administration?
A. The ability for users to issue wildcard queries.
B. The character which is used to indicate a wildcard query.
C. The ability for users to issue a wildcard query that returns all documents.
D. The number of potential matches the system will search for a wildcard query.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Why would you create a text analytics collection instead of a search collection?
A. when you want to use a custom annotator
B. when only search applications are required
C. when discovery and data mining are required
D. when searching for documents in more than one collection is required
Answer: C

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NO.6 What does the acronym UIMA stand for?
A. Uniform IBM Marketechture Asset
B. Unstructured Industry Matrix Alliance
C. Unified Information Machine Architecture
D. Unstructured Information Management Architecture
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which documents from the collection are used to create the clustering proposal?
A. All of the documents in the index are used.
B. A random sample of the number that you specify
C. The first 1000 documents that were added to the index.
D. A round-robin alphabetically ordered sampling from each different crawler
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the method used to check the status of indexing on a collection?
A. Open the text miner and click on the 'dashboard' tab.
B. Using the administrative console, stop the indexer component and then click on the log
tab.
C. In the administrative console, click on the 'general' tab, on the 'edit' icon and then on 'view
collection
settings'.
D. In the administrative console, click on the 'parse and index' tab, on the 'monitor' icon and
then click on
'details'.
Answer: D

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P2040-060 Exam Dumps, A2180-605 VCE Dumps, M2010-719 Practice Exam

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Exam Code: P2040-060
Exam Name: IBM Lotus Symphony Technical Sales Mastery Test v1
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Exam Code: A2180-605
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM WebSphere Enterprise Service Bus V7.0, Integration Development
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Exam Code: M2010-719
Exam Name: Cloud and Smarter Infrastructure Storage Sales Mastery Test v5
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NO.1 Can EMC and HP provide the same function as a storage hypervisor?
A. Regardless type of disks
B. Regardless of the vendor of disks
C. Only on their own brand of disks
D. Only on IBM disk
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following does Server Hypervisors NOT provide?
A. Better utilization across many different types of disk
B. Pooled physical resources are consumed by virtual machines resulting in high asset utilization
C. Virtual machines are mobile giving CIO's their choice of physical server device
D. A common set of value capabilities and centralized management are provided for virtual
machines regardless of what physical server they are sitting on
Answer: A

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NO.3 Your Prospect is NOT interested in changing their competitive backup/recovery product. What
should you do?
A. Ask how long they've owned their software(s) and if they can confidently recover their data as
quickly as needed and are ready to handle their growth for next 3 years
B. Ask about their deduplication ratios and their encryption needs to comply with PCI and HIPAA
regulations that require change
C. Offer a Butterfly analysis to help them see their environment including current and future total
costs of running backup/recovery.
D. A and C
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of these is NOT a Competitor to IBM Tivoli Storage Manager?
A. CommVault
B. NetBackup
C. EMC Avamar
D. SpectraLogic
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which is NOT true about using the Butterfly Analysis?
A. It opens the door to conversations with competitively installed accounts
B. Installs agents on the backup clients to collect business information and run analytics
C. Shortens sales cycles by exposing problems and creating a sense of urgency
D. Quantifies the financial benefits of migrating from a competing solution to IBM
E. All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following types of De-Duplication does TSM NOT support?
A. Client Side
B. Server Side
C. Switch based
Answer: C

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NO.7 What Common capabilities does a Storage Hypervisor provide?
A. Encryption
B. Increase performance by using the EMC pass through driver
C. Better Storage Management
D. Scheduling
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which product is NOT included in the TSM Suite for Unified Recovery?
A. TSM for VE
B. TSM for DB's
C. TSM for SharePoint
D. TSM Fastback
Answer: C

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Exam Name: IBM Big Data Sales Mastery Test v1
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Exam Code: A2150-038
Exam Name: Assess: IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 Fundamentals
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NO.1 What is available to define the User ID for account provisioning in IBM Tivoli Identity
Manager V5.1
(ITIM)?
A. HR Feed
B. ITIM Adapter
C. Identity Policy
D. Adoption Policy
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which task can be done using the IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 (ITIM) Self-Service
User Interface
application?
A. manage service profiles
B. manage password changes
C. export text files through the FTP transport
D. send e-mail notifications to the ITIM administrator
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is one purpose of IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 adapters?
A. to send SMTP alerts
B. to provision VMware images
C. to send text files by FTP action
D. to provision and de-provision accounts
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which operation is valid when a user's identity is suspended given properly configured
automatic
provisioning policies and roles in IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1?
A. The user's accounts are suspended on managed targets.
B. The user's identity is suspended and the accounts are deleted on the managed target.
C. The user's accounts will be modified in order to grant access rights to managed targets.
D. The user's accounts are added to the suspended group on the Enterprise Directory
Server.
Answer: A

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NO.5 JavaScript is used in which IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 task?
A. ACIs
B. Reports
C. Data Synchronization
D. Provisioning Policy Entitlements
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is an IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 (ITIM) service?
A. It represents a custom tool used to create an adapter using IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator.
B. It represents an instance of a resource such as an operating system or mail server that
ITIM can
manage.
C. It represents an instance of a manage resource in order to provision identity policy to the
federated
identity server.
D. It represents a user repository which a user can be provisioned and have access to modify
XML; it also
represents SOAP 2.0
Answer: B

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NO.7 What configuration option is provided by the Middleware Configuration Utility?
A. create and configure the directory server
B. create and configure the application server
C. create and configure the HTTP Server plug-in
D. create and configure the directory integrator server
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which attribute is required for an IBM Tivoli Identity Manager custom person entity?
A. cn
B. uid
C. mail
D. eraliases
Answer: A

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Exam Name: Assessment: Power Systems Virtualization Technical Support for AIX and Linux -v2
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Exam Name: Information Management Solution Sales Mastery Test v4
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NO.1 An administrator is attempting to configure a new deployment of 56 POWER7 Blades across 4 IBM
BladeCenter H chassis. Each blade will be installed with an IVM and 2 LPARs.IVM is installed and the
administrator checks that both LHEA ports are reporting a Link State of "Up." 2 LPARs are created and the
network traffic balanced by allocating one LHEA port to the first LPAR, the second port to the other. After
successfully installing the first LPAR via NIM, the administrator finds the second LPAR fails to netboot.
What should the administrator verify on the BladeCenter Chassis?
A. That 4 power supplies (PSU) have been installed.
B. That both the external LHEA ports have been cabled.
C. That a secondary I/O module has been installed and cabled.
D. That the Multi-Core Scaling (MCS) attribute is correctly set on both LHEA ports.
Answer: C

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NO.2 An administrator must remove any installed efixes before attempting to install a new VIO Fix Pack.
Which VIO command will advise if any VIO efixes are actually present?
A. lslpp
B. emgr
C. lssw
D. oem_platform_level
Answer: C

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NO.3 A Power 720 is being used to build 2 environments: Test and Production, with 2 LPARs in each
environment. Processor resources must be separated between the Test and Production environments to
reduce possible contention, while still being able to share processor resources inside each own
environment.
What are the two features required, as a minimum, to accomplish this? (Select 2)
A. IVM
B. HMC
C. PowerVM Express
D. PowerVM Standard
E. IVE
F. IBM Systems Director
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Which of the following is required to support AME?
A. AIX LPARs
B. Virtual I/O Server
C. A maximum of 4GB of RAM per LPAR
D. On-demand memory feature enabled
Answer: A

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NO.5 An administrator has a requirement to back up a VIO server (VIOS) so that it can be rebuilt in the
event of a disaster.
Which set of actions will achieve this requirement.?
A. Backup all non rootvg volume groups using savevg. Backup all Storage Pool Information. Run a
mksysb of the system.
B. Save "Upgrade Data" on the HMC. Backup all non rootvg volume groups using savevg. Run a mksysb
of the VIOS with the -U flag.
C. Backup non rootvg structures using savevgstruct. Capture virtual mappings to a file using viosbr. Run a
backupios
D. Capture the virtual network tuning to a file using the optimizenet command. Capture all virtual device
attributes to a file using the lsattr command. Run a backupios.
Answer: C

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NO.6 When attempting to install a VIO client using NIM, an adminstrator finds that no disks are available
for installation. The disks are provided by NPIV through the virtual Fibre Channel adapter as described
here:
Which of the following explains why is the administrator unable to see the disks?
A. The virtual fibre channel device has not been assigned to the client.
B. The HBA on the VIO server is not connected to the SAN.
C. The fibre device drivers are missing from the SPOT.
D. The LUNs have been incorrectly zoned.
Answer: D

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NO.7 What tool can an architect use to determine which is the smallest POWER7 server that will provide
equal or better overall performance than a POWER5 570?
A. Facts and Features Guide
B. LPAR Validation Tool
C. Configurator for eBusiness
D. Server Magic
Answer: A

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NO.8 Requirements for a disaster recovery site are being collected. When considering restoring a VIO
Server mksysb to disaster recovery hardware,
what is required to ensure automatic virtual device recreation?
A. LPAR profiles must be accurately recreated on the foreign machine
B. Backups of both mksysb and user-defined structures are required from the VIO Server
C. The foreign machine must be of the same model and type
D. Configuration of the existing HMC needs to be preserved
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which of the following is correct regarding report execution requests?
A.A low affinity request is directed to the same process that served up the originating low
affinity request if
the process is available and there is an available high affinity connection.
B.A low affinity request can be processed using a high affinity connection when a low affinity
connection is
not available.
C.An absolute affinity request does not require a connection because it has priority.
D.A high affinity request can be processed using a low affinity connection if there are no high
affinity
connections available.
Answer:D

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NO.2 Which of the following is correct regarding the processing of a PageDown high affinity
request?
A.The request is routed to the same process that served up the originating low affinity
request if the
process is available and if there is an available high affinity connection.
B.The request is given priority and is always processed by the same process that served up
the
originating low affinity request.
C.The request is load-balanced and is sent to any available dispatcher in the system.
D.The request is automatically queued and is processed by the first available low affinity
connection in the
system.
Answer:A

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NO.3 Which of the following describes the major steps in the deployment process for a
Cognos 8 BI
application and their proper order?
A.Plan, verify, and customize
B.Move, customize, and verify
C.Plan, move, and secure
D.Plan, move, and verify
Answer:D

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of the following describes how developers would validate their tests in the design step of the
V-model?
A.Check the design by conducting an assembly test.
B.Check the design by conducting a component test.
C.Check the design against the business requirements.
D.Check the design against the developed components.
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A.Users often have difficulty understanding new technology.
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NO.1 Which tool does IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager use to discover assets on a network(s)?
A. Nmap
B. Wireshark
C. IBM Tivoli Network Node Manager
D. IBM Tivoli Asset Discovery for Distributed
Answer: A

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NO.2 How is the BES Gather Service configured to use a service account?
A. Edit the properties for the BES Gather Service and set the service to Log on as: to use the
service
account service account ID and password
B. Make a custom copy of BES Support task 125 and in the custom copy edit the action
script with the
account information, save the custom copy to the Master Action Site, and deploy to the main
TEM server
C. During the deployment planning phase the IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM) sales
person should
have provided a custom BESGatherService.vbs file; run the vbs file on the TEM server to
configure
gathering
D. Open the Windows Registry on the TEM server, go to
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\BigFix\Enterprise Server/GatherService, and set the
String
Value Logon Info to use the service account name and password
Answer: A

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NO.3 Internet access must be configured through a proxy server in order for the IBM Tivoli
Endpoint
Manager (TEM) server to download Windows patches from the Internet. How is this
accomplished?
A. The TEM server does not need Internet access. Content can only be added manually.
B. Configure the BES Gather Service to use a service account that has open access to the
Internet.
C. Configure specific proxy server rules only permitting the TEM clients to go to specific
domains such as
Microsoft.com or Adobe.com.
D. In the Window's registry set the BES Gather Service to bypass proxy server for local
address. Restart
the BES Gather Service when finished so changes will take effect.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is a supported database platform for IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager V8.2?
A. Oracle 9i
B. IBMDB2 9.2
C. MySQL 5.5.20
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2008
Answer: D

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NO.5 This action script is run:
regset "[HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Test]" "testString" = "testValue"
In the fixlet debugger, the key gets correctly created under the HKEY_CURRENTJJSER
branch.
However, when running the same action by targeting the IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM)
client in the
TEM Console, the agent states that the action ran to completion but the same key is not
there. What is the
reason for this discrepancy?
A. The TEM client reported action completion in error.
B. Some action script commands, like regset, work only in the fixlet debugger.
C. The fixlet debugger is more forgiving when it comes to proper action script form.
D. The fixlet debugger runs under the users' context; the TEM client runs as LocalSystem.
Answer: D

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NO.6 In the IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM) Console under the Debug menu, which
option allows the
testing of a session relevance statement?
A. Fixlet Debugger
B. TEM Diagnostics
C. Domain Debugger
D. Presentation Debugger
Answer: D

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NO.7 For a scheduled activity in the IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM) Web Reports that
has Archive
selected as the activity action, where does the archive information get stored by default?
A. It gets e-mailed to TEM Web Reports admin
B. In the main TEM server database (BFEnterprise)
C. In the TEM Web Reports database (BFReporting)
D. On the file system of the TEM Web Reports server
Answer: D

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NO.8 By default, when will Automatic Relay Selection on the client occur?
A. Upon every reboot
B. Once every 6 hours
C. Once every 24 hours
D. Once every 12 hours
Answer: B

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NO.1 What is a benefit of the XIV system's grid-based architecture?
A. differentcapacitydrives can be mixed within the system but not in the same module
B. any module can act as an interface module
C. SSDs must be installed in the interface modules only
D. each module contains processing, caching and storage
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which two of the following IBM products assure online data migration? (Select two)
A. DS8870
B. XIV Storage System
C. SAN Volume Controller
D. DS5000series
E. FlashSystems
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 What is the fastest way to see which volume is receiving the most IOPS on the XIV?
A. openXIVTopinthedefaultview
B. opentheXIV GUI and checkthe volume view
C. run XCLI command xcii volume_max_iops_list
D. open XIV GUI and select the first 12 volumes, and then next 12 and so on
Answer: A

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NO.4 Based on best practice, what is the optimal number of SVC Fibre Channel connections to a full
15 module XIV?
A. connect the SVC to 6 XIV ports
B. connect the SVC to 9 XIV ports
C. connect the SVCto 12 XIV ports
D. connecttheSVCtol6XlVports
Answer: C

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NO.5 On an XIV system, what factor must be considered when using snapshots?
A. snapshots must be unlocked before restore
B. restoring a snapshot invalidates all earlier snapshots
C. snapshots cannot be moved independently to another storage pool
D. 17 GB of hard capacity is immediately consumed at creation per snapshot
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NO.6 A customer has purchased a six module XIV Gen3 for a new project, which is located in a new
data center. A new requirement states that a portion of the project data must be replicated to an
existing six module XIV (Gen2) at the customer's primary data center, 500 km away. The target XIV
has sufficient capacity but no Fibre Channel connectivity exists between sites. The customer
therefore decides to use iSCSI replication.
Which upgrade is required to meet the requirements?
A. add modules to both XIV systems
B. add modules to the new (primary) XIV Gen3
C. add modules to the existing (secondary) XIV
D. replace the new (primary) XIV Gen3 InfiniBand switches with Ethernet switches
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which statement is true when comparing an XIV Model 214 to Model 114?
A. Model 214 supports more HDDs in a fully configured system.
B. Model 214 supports ECoFconnectivityover dedicated ports.
C. Model 214 adds aniSCSI 10Gb/s configuration option.
D. Model 214 adds SSD caching functionality.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which tool can natively manage an XIV system?
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B. IBM Systems Director
C. Tivoli Storage Manager
D. Tivoli Storage Productivity Center
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which one of the following features is NOT new in IBM Notes and Domino 9.0 Social Edition?
A. A Click on URLs in edit mode
B. Paste As Plain Text
C. New shortcut keys like Ctrl+Shift+R for "Reply to All"
D. Ability to import spreadsheet data into a view
Answer: C

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Reference:ftp://ftp.software.ibm.com/software/au/pdf/CCTY_2013_Whats_New_in_IBM_Domino_
Notes_and_iNotes_9_Social_Edition.pdf

NO.2 An active license of Notes and Domino provides instant messaging and presence awareness via
IBM Sametime. Which of the following is NOT a known benefit of this powerful capability?
A. Faster decision-making by getting the answer instantly from a colleague via chat
B. Increased costs from deploying high network bandwidth chat capability
C. Improved customer engagement by improved responsiveness
D. Reduced travel costs from online e-meetings instead of face-to-face meetings
Answer: B

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NO.3 When speaking of the current state of IBM Notes and Domino momentum, which of the
following statement is NOT true?
A. IBM Notes and Domino still maintains a large percentage of email market share
B. Notes is dead
C. IBM Notes and Domino have delivered new features each and every year since 2007
D. IBM Notes and Domino have over 50,000 customers
Answer: A

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NO.4 Embedded experiences is best defined in the Notes client as:
A. A The capability to attach large files to your emails
B. The ability to import spreadsheet data into a view
C. The ability to deploy the Notes client via a hybrid configuration
D. The ability to view content, as well as respond socially, all in the context of your inbox
Answer: A

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NO.5 With regards to Notes and Domino licensing, the term CAL refers to:
A. Code Application Language
B. Core Activity Linkage
C. Client Access License
D. Client Anchor Logic
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www-01.ibm.com/software/lotus/notesanddomino/licensing.html

NO.6 Which of the following common phrases that you should be prepared to address are NOT
likely to be heard when calling on existing Notes and Domino customers?
A. I'd like to pay more for software licenses, please.
B. Didn't IBM just kill Lotus?
C. I have an old version of Notes and it's working fine.
D. Notes is too expensive and I don't see the value of it.
Answer: D

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NO.7 A Processor Value Unit is linked to:
A. How much capacity a server can handle due to the number of its processor cores
B. How much capacity a server can handle due to the amount of RAM the server has installed
C. The value of a server due to the operating system cost
D. The value of a server due to the net price of the server hardware
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which one of the following best describes hybrid deployment for our software customers?
A. Software deployed both as an on premise solution as well as in the cloud
B. Utilizing highly energy efficient servers to save customers' electricity costs
C. Being able to run on a wide variety of operating systems
D. Backwards compatible databases that run on past versions of our software releases
Answer: A

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NO.1 What PowerSCfeature provides a mechanism to prevent an attacker, who has gained
unauthorized access to an LPARI from deleting evidence records of the source of intrusion?
A. Trusted Audit
B. Trusted Firewall
C. Trusted Logging
D. Trusted Surveyor
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer wants to mix different applications in one LPAR to reduce administration costs.
The applications must be prioritized with high and low workload.
What is the most simple way to support these requirements?
A. WPAR
B. Versioned LPAR
C. WPAR Manager
D. AIX Profile Manager
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following products can move an application between servers while the
application is running?
A. Application Manager
B. AIX Standard Edition
C. PowerVM Standard Edition
D. Workload Partition Manager
Answer: D

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NO.4 What capability does Role Based Access Control (RBAC) provide to users?
A. Assume a default role at login
B. Control access to system logs
C. Perform system operations associated with roles
D. Assume the role of root under certain circumstances
Answer: C

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NO.5 How is AIX licensing and upgrade entitlement packaged?
A. AIX SWMA
B. AIX Warranty
C. AIX Service Pack
D. AIX Basic License
Answer: A

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NO.6 A prospective client is interested in running SAP on Linux. Which of the following would make
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A. ISV support
B. Memory Chipkill
C. Threads per core
D. Kernel optimization
Answer: C

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NO.7 How is SuSe Linux Enterprise Server 11 licensed on Power Systems servers?
A. Per core
B. Per server
C. Per socket
D. Per instance
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NO.1 Jeffrey is reviewing the following section of a debugTracing.txt log.
What can he infer from this part of the log?
A. The main method took no time to execute.
B. The appMainPage took 46 seconds to load.
C. The varSampleApp variable changed during or after the appMainPage loaded.
D. The varSampleApp variable was set to Chicago prior to the loading of the appMainPage.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Pat wants to know how many web service calls are being made in a given time frame, how long on
average each web service call is taking, and how many web service calls are failing. How can Pat obtain
such performance information?
A. That information is not yet available from the WebSphere Portlet Factory web service support, but the
application can be built to log this information itself, if desired.
B. WebSphere Portlet Factory logs all requests, average latency and faults, in the deployed applications
WEB-INF/logs/event.log file.
C. WebSphere Portlet Factory logs web service requests, average latency and faults, in the deployed
applications WEB-INF/logs/serverStats.txt log file.
D. Enable this logging using the Performance field in the Web Service Call builder, and the
information comes back with the web service call results to the consumer model.
Answer: C

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NO.3 The primary use for the WebSphere Portlet Factory server configuration is?
A. To deliver your application to a production server.
B. To deploy, run, and test your application on a development server.
C. To create a WAR file for manual deployment to a production or development server.
D. To give your application access to APIs that are specific to the target server.
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NO.4 Tim has a web application that accesses a database through a provider model containing SQL Call
builders. He thinks there might be a performance problem with one or more of the database calls. How
can he get WebSphere Portlet Factory to log detailed performance information about all aspects of the
database access.?
A. He needs to use a SQL Override builder; this builder provides several fields that enable
detailed logging of performance information for database access.
B. He must enable DEBUG-level database performance tracing in the Log4J properties file and redeploy
the WAR file.
C. He must enable the Log Server Stats field in each SQL Call builder.
D. No changes are required; WebSphere Portlet Factory automatically logs performance statistics for all
executed actions, such as database access calls.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Anna has been testing a model and is concerned about the time certain actions seem to be taking. Her
development environment is a high-end system, and other portlets she has developed have not exhibited
the kind of response time lag that she and her testers perceive. She suspects one of the data services
builders is experiencing network latency, but is unsure where the real problem lies. What actions can she
take to help isolate the performance issue?
A. Add counters to the builder calls that are suspect.
B. Consult the performance log, which is created by default with each model run.
C. Enable system tracing in the run configuration tab to log the execution time for each action (page or
method).
D. Dedicate a larger Java HEAP_SIZE to the main method associated with the model that is suspect.
Answer: C

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NO.1 Heinrich has 35 builder calls in a model. If he wants to see the XML relevant to one specific
builder call in the model, how should he find it?
A. Right-click the builder call and select View XML.
B. Open the Model XML model view, then search for the builder call by its ID name.
C. Open the Builder Call Editor model view, and click Generate XML at the bottom.
D. Open the Model XML model view, then click the builder call in the builder call list.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Jonathan would like to document all his service provider models at once. How can he
approach this task?
A. Add a Comment builder before each SQL call.
B. Use the Service Definition builders in each one, generating comments for each.
C. Use the WebApp Documentation builder, specifying Services as the report parameter.
D. Use the Service Documentation Builder, specifying all service models and the report type.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Paul has been working on a project that is being deployed in two different versions of IBM
WebSphere Portal at his company. As a result, he needs to be able to test his code with both
runtimes. How does he switch from one runtime to another?
A. Right-click on the module in the Project Explorer view and click Properties > Project Facets.
The Project Facets page opens. Select the Runtimes tab. Under the Runtimes table, select the target
servers for the module.
B. Open the .bowstreet file for the project and modify the runtimes element to include the new
WebSphere Portal version.
C. Open web.xml and add a new runtime element under server runtime for the new WebSphere
Portal version.
D. Create a new server configuration for the project and assign it as the default for the project.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Page automation is a set of builders that facilitate the automatic display of data based on
metadata. What are the basic steps of page automation?
A. Receive data in a Data Page builder, examine the data, enrich the data.
B. Receive data in a Data page builder, modify the schema, apply modifiers.
C. Set up a data provider model, create a consumer model, select the highest level page automation
builder that fits the requirement, customize the generated UI to the requirements.
D. Examine received data in the context of a View and Form builder, build a presentation for the
data, document the schema.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Ming has created a form using a Input Form builder that has 16 fields to complete, but all are
very small. He wants to organize the fields in two columns on the page. How can he easily
accomplish this task?
A. Use a News Columns builder and enter 2 in the number of columns.
B. Edit the HTML template to form two columns with the DataEntryField element.
C. Modify the default Input Form base page to organize the fields into two columns..
D. Drop a Layout Column from the palette onto the group element in the Design view. Drag to
arrange the fields as desired.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Bob is wiring two portlets and intends to implement partial page refresh. Each of the following
is a correct approach except which one?
A. Do nothing because Smart Refresh is the default.
B. Use JavaScript.
C. Use the property broker and check the AJAX call option on the property broker for the IBM
WebSphere Portal.
D. Use the Event Declaration builder with client-side delivery and the Client Event Handler builder.
Answer: C

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NO.7 John is trying to wire two IBM Web Experience Factory portlets that reside on different IBM
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A. Wiring of two Web Experience Factory portlets on two different pages is technically not feasible.
B. Wire the two portlets together using the shared variable builder so they can share data via
session.
C. Use the Web Experience Factory Event Declaration and Event Handler builder with page wiring
option available within the builder.
D. Use the Cooperative Portlet Source and Cooperative Portlet Target builders with WebSphere
Portal's wiring tool.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Christine needs to make an AJAX call to a method named "getAddress" in her model. How
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A. <%=webAppAccess.getBackchannelURL("getAddress", false)%>
B. <%=webAppAccess.getBackchannelActionURL("getAddress", false)%>
C. <%=webAppAccess.getActionURL("getAddress", false)%>
D. <%=webAppAccess.getAjaxURL("getAddress", false)%>
Answer: B

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