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Exam Code: A2010-569
Exam Name: Assess: IBM Tivoli Workload Scheduler V8.6 Implementation
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A2010-569 Exam Prep Total Q&A: 134 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-09-30

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Exam Code: A2040-988
Exam Name: Assessment: Administering IBM Lotus Sametime 8.5
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NO.1 To retrieve the build number of the Sametime Community server, Karen performs
which of the
following?
A. She types 'Show Build' from the Domino server console
B. From a browser, she navigates to http://servername/sametime/buildinfo.txt
C. She opens the STCONFIG.NSF database from a browser and clicks the server
information link
D. She opens theSametime Administration Tool from a browser and uses the Server
Information-Server
Build
Answer: B

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NO.2 If you are configuring the Lotus Sametime Media Manager to use SSL (Secure Socket
Layer), you
must do the following:
A. Cross certify youSametime System Console with Sametime Community server
B. Make sure the server's certificate has been added to theSametime System Console's trust
store.
C. Select that the server uses TLS in theSametime Media Manager connection properties in
the
Sametime System console.
D. Complete the Guided Activity for setting up SSL on theSametime Media Manager and
restart the
Sametime System Console.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Will is installing the new Sametime 8.5 Meeting Server. Which of the following is NOT
an option when
selecting the type of deployment for WebSphere in the Guided Activity for Sametime Meeting
Server?
A. Cell
B. Node Agent
C. DeploymentManager ?Primary Node
D. DeploymentManager ?Secondary Node
Answer: B

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NO.4 Due to the number of external users utilizing your Sametime environment, you have
had to enable
tunneling on your external Sametime server. With tunneling enabled, which of the following
ports does
Domino HTTP listen to by default?
A. 80
B. 443
C. 8088
D. 9081
Answer: C

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NO.5 You installed the IBM Lotus Sametime System console on Windows and want to
administer your
Sametime 8.5 servers. What the web address would you use to get to your Sametime
System Console?
A. http://serverhostname.domain:8700/ibm/console
B. http://serverhostname.domain:8500/ibm/webadmin
C. http://serverhostname.domain:8700/sametime/console
D. http://serverhostname.domain:8000/ibm/adminconsole
Answer: A

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NO.6 You upgraded your Sametime Community server to 8.5 without using the System
Console. Now you
want to be able to administer it through the system console. What is the best option to
accomplish this?
A. Reinstall theSametime System Console
B. Reinstall theSametime Community Server
C. Register the upgraded server with the System Console
D. Login to the System Console and rerun the install guided activity
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following components CANNOT be clustered using the Sametime
Guided Activities?
A. Sametime Gateway
B. Sametime Proxy Server
C. Sametime Media Manager
D. Sametime Meeting Server
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following is true regarding Horizontal vs. Vertical clustering?
A. Vertical clusters require more machines.
B. Vertical clusters do not require a Deployment manager.
C. Horizontal clusters do not require a Deployment Manager.
D. Vertical clusters provide software level failover; Horizontal clusters provide software and
hardware
failover and load balancing.
Answer: D

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NO.1 What is Guardium's primary storage mechanism for logs and audit information?
A. Data can only be stored in flat files on the collector (one file per S-TAP).
B. Data storage can only be managed individually by each S-TAP, with audit data stored
locally on the
data server in flat files.
C. Data is stored on the collector in a normalized relational database.
D. Data is stored locally on each server with an S-TAP but is managed centrally through the
collector.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following components collects and parses the live database traffic used to
trigger a
real-time alert when a security policy rule is broken?
A. The Real Time Communications Framework
B. The Change Audit System
C. The Policy Engine
D. The Live Report Builder
Answer: C

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NO.3 How is authentication and encryption implemented between collectors, aggregators
and the Central
Policy Manager in a multi-tier Guardium environment?
A. Using an encrypted file containing the system password that must be copied to the Central
Policy
Manager and collectors.
B. A System Shared Secret is specified through the GUI for each collector and the Central
Policy
Manager.
C. The Central Policy Manager scans the network for Guardium collectors and performs a
security
handshake with each appliance.
D. The communication between collectors and the Central Policy Manager is based on
unsecured
network packets.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following best describes the role of the aggregator in a Guardium
environment?
A. The aggregator is a Guardium appliance that collects and consolidates information from
multiple
collectors to a single Aggregation Server, allowing for reporting across the enterprise.
B. The aggregator is the Guardium appliance that communicates with mainframes.
C. The aggregator is a Guardium appliance that allows a collector and a Central Policy
Manager to
communicate and is required in multi-collector environments.
D. The aggregator is another name for the Central Policy Manager.
Answer: A

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relationship
between the S-TAP and the collector appliance?
A. There exists no relationship since the S-TAP and the collector are incompatible Guardium
entities.
B. The S-TAP reports database activity to the collector for policy management and auditing.
C. A collector can only interact with one S-TAP for policy management and auditing.
D. The collector sends the S-TAP information about its policies so it knows what traffic to
intercept.
Answer: B

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Exam Name: IBM TRIRIGA Application Platform V3.2.1 Application Development
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Exam Name: DB2 9 System Administrator for z/OS Exam
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Exam Code: A2040-440
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM WebSphere Portal & Portal Products Fundamentals
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NO.1 When a transition occurs to move a record into a tri Active state, the expected behavior is that
the form is in a read-only state. This is not happening. What is the issue with the Read-Only
property?
A. It is not configured in the Sub Action properties.
B. It is not configured in the Form Section properties.
C. It is not configured in the Business Object properties.
D. It is not configured in the State Transition properties for at least one transition.
Answer: D

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NO.2 How can a list be sorted to display more frequent values first?
A. In the Data Modeler, set the sequence order in the properties of the List field.
B. Values can only be sorted in ascending and descending order and cannot be ordered individually.
C. In the Form layout, use the Manual Sort option to arrange the entries in the desired order
sequence.
D. In the List Manager, use arrows from the Order column to move entries to the desired order
sequence.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Several organization records appear in reports but do not appear in the Organization hierarchy.
What should be the first item to validate during the troubleshooting process for the records in
question?
A. verify that the records have the required Primary Organization association to the organization's
root node in the hierarchy
B. verify that the records have forward and reverse association strings of Included In and Includes to
other records in the hierarchy
C. verify that the records have forward and reverse association strings of Is Parent Of and Is Child Of
to other records in the hierarchy
D. verify that the records have forward and reverse association strings of Primary Location and
Primary Location Of to other records in the hierarchy
Answer: C

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NO.4 Where are the classifications' hierarchical parents to child associations created?
A. In the Form Builder
B. In the Data Modeler
C. In the Association Manager
D. In the State Family Manager
Answer: B

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NO.5 A navigation collection is a hierarchical structure that contains what?
A. portal sections
B. navigation items
C. only menu items
D. only related navigation items
Answer: B

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NO.6 In the Data Modeler's Association List what does a red star next to the association indicate?
A. The association is used in a smart section.
B. The association is a dependent association.
C. The association is referenced by a locator field.
D. The association is referenced by a required field.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which statement is true when defining an Include association?
A. The association from the child to the parent must be defined with the child in an editable state.
B. The association from the parent to the child must be defined with the parent in an editable state.
C. The association from the parent to the child must be defined with both the parent and the child
in an editable state.
D. The association from the child to the parent must be defined with both the parent and the child
in an editable state.
Answer: B

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NO.8 An existing portal must be modified so that a new navigation collection will display in the
portal. Assuming that a navigation collection of type Quick Links exists and is populated with
navigation items, what additional new element must be created to display this collection in the
existing portal?
A. Portal
B. Portal Section
C. Navigation Item
D. Navigation Collection
Answer: B

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Exam Name: IBM Storwize V7000 Implementation V1
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NO.1 Operating the system with missing drive assemblies will cause what in the Storwize V7000?
A. Power distribution problems
B. Inability to connect additional enclosures
C. Disrupt airflow and cause heat issues
D. Fault errors on the controllers
Answer: C

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NO.2 An implementer provisioned storage from the Storwize V7000 to all hosts per the
implementation plan an audit determined that host volumes utilized less than 50% of their allocated
storage.
What steps can be taken to reclaim the underutilized space?
A. Remove MDisks from the pools
B. Shrink all volumes and then remap to hosts
C. Use Real-time Compression to compress all volumes
D. Create a thin provisioned volume and use host mirroring to migrate the data
Answer: C

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NO.3 While creating a volume a user selects the "Advanced" button on a Storwize V7000.
What advanced options become available upon selection of the wizard?
A. Characteristics, pool and host mapping
B. Mirroring, characteristics and capacity management
C. Capacity management, FlashCopy host mapping
D. Host mapping, mirroring and I/O group
Answer: B

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NO.4 What action must be taken to receive timely updates automatically on firmware and flash
updates/releases?
A. Register to receive IBM My Notifications
B. Sign up for Fix Central notifications
C. Use the Storwi2e V7000 Call Home feature
D. Utilize the Storwize V7000 GUI for alert notifications
Answer: D

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NO.5 An implementer is looking to verify supported HBAs, firmware, and driver levels for the
Storwize V7000.
What two places should be checked?
A. SSIC and Interoperability Matrix
B. Announcement Letters and Techline
C. IBM Support Portal and Interoperability Matrix
D. SSIC and IBM Support Portal
Answer: A

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NO.6 An implementer has started the Storwize V7000 management GUI for the first time. What
item is displayed automatically in the GUI?
A. Serial number
B. IBM's email address for Gall Home support
C. Date and time
D. Licenses
Answer: D

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NO.7 An implementer has purchased a clustered Storwize V7000 with external virtualization licenses.
Originally, an EMC subsystem was to be virtualized and it was to host one of the Storwize V7000
cluster's quorum disks However, during the implementation, the customer decided to replace the
EMC subsystem with an HP subsystem.
What information about the HP subsystem should be checked by the implemented?
A. The HP subsystem is listed in the SSIC website in the "Storwize V7000 Host Attachment" category
B. The HP subsystem is listed in the Storwize V7000 supported hardware list, and it supports
quorum disks
C. The HP subsystem is listed in the Storwize V7000 supported hardware list, and it supports
extended quorum
D. The HP subsystem is listed in the SSIC website in the "Storwize V7000 Storage Controller Support"
category
Answer: B

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NO.8 What does the multipathing driver on the host accomplish?
A. Corrects any network error
B. Creates a logical volume to the LUN
C. Consolidates the instances of the same LUN
D. Increases the number of ports the LUN reports to
Answer: C

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Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Process Automation Engine V7.5 Implementation
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Exam Code: C2010-515
Exam Name: IBM SmartCloud Application Performance Management V7.7 Fundamentals
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NO.1 What happens when the Rolling Appender reaches the file size limit?
A. The current file is deleted and a new file is created
B. The current file is renamed and a new file is created.
C. The new log statements overwrite the older log on the same file.
D. The current file is moved into the /maximo/logfile/archive directory and a new file is
created
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which statement explains the relationship of an E-audit fitter to the Database
Configuration application?
A. Using the Database Configuration application allows the creation of E-audit filters for main
objects only.
B. The type of information that requires these E-audit filters can be refined by using the E-
audit filter on
the Audit section of the Object tab within the Database Configuration application.
C. Included in the Database Configuration application is an action item called Enable E-audit
Filter which
allows the selection of the appropriate auditing requirements for a given database object
D. E-Audit filters are created for database objects in the Audit application and enabled using
the E-audit
filter selection dialog on each database object within the Database Configuration application.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Where are attached document folders associated?
A. Documents application
B. any Single-Page application
C. System Configuration application
D. the application that allows attached documents
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which two modifications can be made to the user interface of a selected application
using the
Application Designer? (Choose two.)
A. add values to a domain
B. add a tab to an application
C. add an attribute to an object
D. move a field within an application
E. change the data type of an attribute
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 How is the Condition Expression Builder accessed?
A. select Condition Expression Builder from the Administration module menu
B. select Condition Expression Builder icon in the Conditional Expression application toolbar
C. select Condition Expression Builder icon in the Conditional Expression application details
view
D. select Condition Expression Builder from the Conditional Expression application Select
Action menu
Answer: C

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NO.6 The Conditional Expression Manager is accessed through which system module?
A. Security
B. Integration
C. Administration
D. System Configuration
Answer: C

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NO.7 A PDF needs to be added to Tivoli process automation engine. Where can this be
done.?
A. Manage Files Select Action from the application that allows attached documents
B. Manage Library Select Action from the application that allows attached documents
C. Manage Folders Select Action from the application that allows attached documents
D. Manage Documents Select Action from the application that allows attached documents
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which statement is true related to applications and the Application Designer?
A. All modifications to applications must be performed with the Application Designer
B. The files necessary to display an application are stored In the MAXAPPFILES table in the
database.
C. The code of a control can be modified with the Application Designer when used in code
configuration
mode.
D. Every application has a presentation XML that contains the information required to build
the
application's user interface
Answer: D

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NO.1 The business owner of a purchasing process has requested a report that displays the total time
of three activities. What should the BPM application developer use to send the data to the
Performance Data Warehouse to create this report?
A. A Timing Interval
B. A Service Level Agreement
C. Exposed Process Variables
D. Shared Business Objects
Answer: A

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NO.2 A BPM application developer is developing assets at a company with the following BPM
infrastructure:
A) One Process Center environment -The BPM application developer has all security privileges
required to access this environment
B) Three runtime environments- Test, Staging, and Production -Each runtime environment is a two
node, clustered environment -They are all configured as "online" environments -The BPM
application developer has all security privileges required to access those environments
The BPM application developer has all security privileges required to access those environments
The BPM application developer has all security privileges required to access those environments
The BPM application developer has been asked to create a Saved Search in each environment using
the Process Admin Console. How many times must the BPM application developer open a Process
Admin Console to make this change?
A. 1 time, since the Process Center environment's Process Admin console manages all online
environments
B. 2 times, once for the Process Center environment and once for the runtime environments
C. 4 times, since each environment has it's own Process Admin console
D. 7 times, since each node in each environment has its own Process Admin console
Answer: C

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NO.3 A BPM application developer is developing a BPM solution in a process application called
'Auto Loan Review Process' (ALREV). ALREV has an existing dependency on a toolkit called 'Financial
Calculation Services' (FCSERV). The developer is asked to update an integration service in FCSERV
and use that new service in ALREV.
What steps must the developer take to ensure that ALREV will utilize the new service created in
FCSERV?
A. 1. Update the integration service in FCSERV
2.Take a snapshot of FCSERV
3.Update the dependency of ALREV from the FCSERV toolkit
B. 1. Update the integration service in FCSERV
2.Take a snapshot of FCSERV
3.Update dependency on FCSERV from the ALREV process application
C. 1. Create a new integration service in ALREV
2.Move the new integration service from ALREV to FCSERV
3.Take a snapshot of FCSERV
D. 1. Take a snapshot of FCSERV
2.Update the integration service in FCSERV
3.Update dependency on FCSERV in the ALREV process application
Answer: B

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NO.4 A BPM application developer has completed the development of a process application. The
team lead has now directed the application developer to install the snapshot onto a staging server
for additional testing before it is moved into production. Assuming the default Process Server
settings are in place, what minimum level of access must the developer have in order to install the
snapshot onto the staging server? The application developer must have, at a minimum:
A. write access to the process application with no additional group membership.
B. write access to the process application and must be a member of the process-center-installgroup
as defined in the 100Custom.xml file.
C. administrative access to the process application with no additional group membership.
D. administrative access to the process application and must be a member of the
process-centerinstall-group as defined in the 100Custom.xml file.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A process owner of an insurance company requests to receive an email if the amount of a loan
is higher than $50,000. After creating the custom Key Performance Indicator (KPI) Amount (currency)
and associating it to the activity, how should the BPM application developer configure the
Assignment Setting to set the value of the KPI to the amount of the loan object? Uncheck "use KPI
defaults", and apply the following settings.
A. Assignment Type: Select Absolute Value Value: tw.local.loan.amount
B. Assignment Type: Select Absolute Value Value: tw.perf.value = tw.local.loan.amount
C. Assignment Type: Select custom JavaScript Value: tw.perf.value = tw.local.loan.amount
D. Assignment Type: Select custom JavaScript Value: tw.local.loan.amount
Answer: D

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NO.6 A BPM application developer needs to create custom SQL queries targeting the Business
Performance Data Warehouse to satisfy a customer's reporting requirements. While browsing the
system catalog of the database management system, the developer notices tables and views
corresponding to the tracking groups defined in the process application. Which database artifacts
should the developer query to obtain only the actively tracked data? The BPM application developer
should query the:
A. views, because the views contains more recent data than the tables.
B. views, because the views contain only the data resulting from the updated tracking definitions.
C. tables, because the tables contains more recent data than the views.
D. tables, because the tables contain only the data resulting from the updated tracking definitions.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A BPM application developer has completed the development of a high profile process
application and is now ready to deploy the solution into the test environment. The application
developer has been told to allow one peer developer and the technical team lead to review and
approve the work before it can be installed onto the test server. The application developer's
manager has requested that the process of gathering these approvals be automated for auditing
purposes. What steps must the BPM application developer take in order to fulfill this requirement?
The BPM application developer must:
A. enable governance on the high profile process and use wsadmin to install the process.
B. create a business process definition, inside of the high profile process application, to implement
the approvals governance process.
C. ask a user with the administrative authority to create a System Governance toolkit dependency to
create a process application that will be used for governance.
D. ensure that there is a task in the governance process that will allow a designated person to install
the process, using Process Center, after all approvals have been received.
Answer: C

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NO.8 After deploying a snapshot onto the production server, the BPM application developer wants
to have two development versions of the process application, one for the resolution of issues that
needs to get fixed immediately in production and one for the development of new features. How
can the BPM application developer obtain the necessary development versions without creating a
new process application?
A. Create a new snapshot for the process application.
B. Create a clone of the snapshot installed in production.
C. Create a new track from the snapshot installed in production.
D. Import the snapshot installed in production into the Process Center.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: C2090-556
Exam Name: Informix 11.50 Application Developer
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Exam Code: C2010-595
Exam Name: IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.5 Fundamentals
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NO.1 Which statement is true when working with condition codes?
A. Only one condition code can be used per item set.
B. Condition codes are not considered when an item is issued.
C. A condition rate of 100% must exist for at least one condition code.
D. Condition codes can only be associated with an item in the Item Master application.
Answer: C

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NO.2 When is a flow control action executed?
A. when a work order is saved through flow control
B. when the work order is started through a workflow
C. when the work order is started through a flow control
D. when the work order is completed through a workflow
Answer: B

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NO.3 How should a user create an association between items and an asset?
A. Go to the Assets application and from the Items tab, add the items.
B. Go to the Assets application and from the Spare Parts tab. add the items.
C. Go to the Assets application and from the Select Action menu, choose Associate Items.
D. Go to the Assets application and from the Select Action menu, choose Add/Modify Asset.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What does it mean when a purchase contract has a status of WSTART?
A. The contract has been revised to start.
B. The contract is waiting for approval to start.
C. The start date of this contract is in the future.
D. WSTART is not a valid status for a purchase contract.
Answer: C

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NO.5 When would an approved purchase order (PO) need to be revised?
A. change of status
B. change to an internal PO
C. changes to quantity of items ordered
D. cancellation of a PO after goods are received
Answer: A

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NO.6 What are the two file formats in which scheduled reports can be e-mailed to a recipient?
A. TXT
B. GIF
C. XLS
D. PDF
E. DOC
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 Which tab in the Query-based Reporting dialog allows fields to be added to the report?
A. Style
B. Select
C. Format
D. Submit
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which statement is true about rotating items?
A. Rotating items are consumable parts.
B. Rotating items cannot be returned for repair.
C. Rotating items can only be installed at a location.
D. Rotating items can have an inventory value and balance.
Answer: D

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NO.1 What are two effective ways to increase the throughput of replication between the
solidDB in-
memory cache and a back-end database? (Choose two.)
A. Add a summarization column to the source.
B. Use multiple subscriptions instead of just one.
C. Update the mirror_commit_after_max_transactions parameter to a higher value.
D. Ensure that the conflict resolution mechanism is set to "source".
E. Use only the Mirror (Continuous) form of replication.
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 To execute the HotStandby administrative commands, which type of access privilege
would be
needed?
A. SYS_ADMIN_SYNC_ROLE
B. SYNC_ADMIN_ROLE
C. ADMIN_CONSOLE_ROLE
D. SYS_CONSOLE_ROLE
Answer: D

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NO.3 To execute the admin command "status", what is the correct syntax?
A. solsql -e "COMMAND 'status' " "tcp 1313" dba dba
B. solsql -f "ADMIN STATUS 'status' " "tcp 1313" dba dba
C. solcon "status" "tcp 1313" dba dba
D. solcon -e "status" "tcp 1313" dba dba
Answer: D

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NO.4 After completing the upgrade of the Primary server while performing a cold HSB-
incompatible
upgrade, what is the correct sequence of steps to upgrade to the Secondary server?
A. Upgrade both servers; start and verify that the upgraded Primary server is in a PRIMARY
ALONE state; start the Secondary server and verify that it is in a SECONDARY ACTIVE
state;
perform a 'hsb connect' command to resynchronize the servers and restore to normal
operation.
B. Upgrade both servers; start and verify that the upgrade Primary server is in a PRIMARY
ALONE state; start the Secondary server and verify that it is in a SECONDARY ACTIVE
state;
perform a 'hsb netcopy' command followed by 'hsb connect' to resynchronize the servers and
restore to normal operation.
C. Upgrade both servers; start and verify that the upgraded Primary server is in a PRIMARY
ACTIVE state; start the Secondary server and verify that it is in a SECONDARY ALONE
state;
perform a 'hsb connect' command to resynchronize the servers and restore to normal
operation.
D. Upgrade both servers; start and verify that the upgraded Primary server is in a PRIMARY
ALONE state; start the Secondary server and verify that it is in a SECONDARY ALONE
state;
perform a 'hsb netcopy' command followed by 'hsb connect' to resynchronize the servers and
restore to normal operation.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, what does the attached replication diagram show?
A. All subscriptions are Mirroring Continuous.
B. The subscription FERO_BERW is Inactive.
C. The subscription FERO_BERW is Mirroring Continuous.
D. All subscriptions are using bidirectional Mirroring Continuous.
Answer: C

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NO.6 What are two possible reasons for high latency between a solidDB in-memory cache
and a back-end
database? (Choose two.)
A. Insufficient network bandwidth for the volume of transactions that are being processed.
B. The network connection between the solidDB in-memory cache and the back-end
database is
down.
C. There is database lock contention on the target database.
D. The CDC instances are stopped.
E. Table mappings are not configured properly.
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 To set the transaction log retention space size for solidDB Universal Cache in the
solidDB
configuration file (solid.ini), which parameter is used?
A. [LogReader]
MaxLogSize
B. [Com]
ReadBufSize
C. [Hotstandby]
MaxMemLogSize
D. [indexFile]
CacheSize
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which statement regarding IBM solidDB Netbackup is true?
A. One IBM solidDB Netbackup Server can only serve one backup source server.
B. The command ADMIN COMMAND 'netbackup' is supported within the [Srv]At
configuration
parameter.
C. NetBackup copies logical database consisting of multiple files to one flat file to the
NetBackupDirectory by default.
D. If the specified remote directory does not exist, it is not created automatically by the
solidDB
Netbackup Server.
Answer: C

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NO.1 Where is the password information stored for LDAP-enabled users?
A. the LDAP directory
B. RequisitePro
C. the LDAP Config.ini file
D. the Project.RQL file
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which RequisitePro system attribute is constant for each requirement?
A. unique ID
B. root value
C. requirement tag
D. location
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the purpose of renumbering requirements?
A. to allow users to identify a desired numbering scheme
B. to eliminate holes in a numbering scheme where requirements have been deleted
C. to aid in the removal of undesired requirements
D. to allow users to change the numbering scheme
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which statement is true about cutting and pasting a requirement in a requirements
document?
A. A user cannot cut and paste a requirement in a requirements document.
B. A user can use the Cut and Paste commands in the Microsoft Word Edit menu to cut and
paste a
requirement in a requirements document.
C. A user should not use the Cut and Paste commands in the Microsoft Word Edit menu to
cut and paste
a requirement in a requirements document.
D. A user can use either the Cut and Paste commands in the Microsoft Word Edit menu or
the Cut and
Paste commands in the Microsoft Word RequisitePro Requirements menu to cut and paste
requirements
in a requirements document.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which two methods can be used to deploy RequisitePro for geographically distributed
teams?(Choose
two.)
A. install RequisitePro on a supported host environment
B. save requirements documents as Word documents to mail them to distributed team
members for
editing
C. use RequisiteWeb for requirements management
D. replicate RequisitePro database at multiple sites
Answer: AC

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NO.1 A change control plan is concerned with all of the following EXCEPT:
A. responding to the factors that create scope change.
B. determining that a scope change has occurred.
C. documenting baseline project plan assumptions.
D. managing the actual modifications when and if any occur.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Scope creep can often occur when:
A. there is project buy-in.
B. there is a concise project plan.
C. project deliverables are poorly defined.
D. outsourcing is an option.
Answer: C

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NO.3 The is implementing a document imaging system and making the images available via the
Internet.
Which of the following issues is the most important security consideration?
A. User profiling
B. Firewall configuration
C. Disaster recover and data restoration
D. Disaster recover and data restoration
Answer: B

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NO.4 The needs to send scanned forms to various remote offices. They receive and scan 100 forms
a day.
Approximately how long would it take to transmit 100 50KB images using a 56Kbps modem
assuming a 10% throughput reduction for overhead?
A. 8 minutes
B. 13 minutes
C. 18 minutes
D. 26 minutes
Answer: B

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NO.5 A component of designing the input environment would include:
A. document quality.
B. printing volume.
C. storage media.
D. print media.
Answer: A

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NO.6 An end-user wants a user interface that is easy to personalize, will allow for new applications
to be added, and will allow for inter-application communication. Which of the following interfaces
will meet these requirements?
A. A portal
B. A browser
C. A customer Windows client
D. A Java client written with JavaServer Pages (JSP)
Answer: A

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NO.7 After analyzing a department's business process, the consultant notices several redundant
steps in data
entry that impede efficiency. He recommends significant changes. Which of the following should the
consultant provide to communicate these changes?
A. User manuals
B. A white paper
C. Proof of concept
D. Technical manuals
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 The is implementing a document imaging system and making the images available via the
Internet.
Which of the following issues is the most important security consideration?
A. User profiling
B. Virus protection
C. Firewall configuration
D. Disaster recover and data restoration
Answer: C

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NO.1 When you are using stock images in your Web site, a royalty-free license allows you to:
A. Use the images without paying a fee for each use.
B. Resell or transfer the images without paying a fee.
C. Use the images without purchasing a license.
D. Assumecopyrightof the images.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Katie developed her corporation's intra net site using proprietary HTML language extensions
based on the company's current browser. The company has recently updated its systems toinclude
the use of a new browser. Now the intra net site that Katie developed no longer renders its content
consistently. What should Katie do to ensure that this site's content renders consistently regardless
of the browser used?
A. Revise the site to include workarounds and hacks for the new browser.
B. Revise the site's markup language in only those areas that are not rendering properly.
C. Update the site using a single language standard consistently, such as HTML5 or XHTML.
D. Update the site using the proprietary language extensions required by the new browser's
rendering engine.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Consider the following HTML5 code:
The code does not validate as HTML5. Why?
A. The <article> tag is missing.
B. The <meta> tag and its attributes are missing.
C. The <blockquote> tag should be used outside the <p> tags.
D. The !DOCTYPEdeclaration is missing a reference to the Document Type Definition (DTD).
Answer: C

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NO.4 A user is submitting data from a form on your Web page to a database using a CCI script.
Which attribute of the form field elements organizes the user's information into name=value
pairs?
A. Name
B. Form
C. Value
D. Method
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which <1mg> tag attribute is required in order for HTML5 documents to validate without
error?
A. id
B. alt
C. name
D. title
Answer: B

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NO.6 Marion is formatting a simple Web page. She has been asked to create headings before the
first and third paragraphs.
To accomplish this most efficiently, which type of HTML
elements should Marion use?
A. Text-level elements
B. Block quote elements
C. Fixed-width font elements
D. Paragraph-level elements
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which HTML validator is best for a final check before a new Web site is published?
A. GUI HTML editor's validator
B. Your browser's add-on validator
C. W3C validator at http://validator.w3.org
D. W3C validator at http://jigsaw.w3.org/css-validator/
Answer: C

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NO.8 You are modifying an existing Web page that needs to validate as HTML5 code. To create a
rectangular hot-spot in an image map that links to www.xyz.com, which code would you nest inside
the <map> </map> container tags?
A. <area shape="rectangle" coords="78, 0, 156, 75" href="http://www.xyz.com" alt="xyz"
B. <area shape="rectangle" coords="78, 0, 156, 75" href="www.xyz.com" alt="xyz" />
C. <area shape="rect" coords="78, 0, 156, 75" href="http://www.xyz.com" alt="xyz" />
D. <area shape="rect" coords="78, 0, 156, 75" href=http://www.xyz.com />
Answer: C

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