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Exam Code: C-HANAIMP131
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate (Edition 2013) - SAP HANA
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Exam Code: C-A1FIN-10
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Financials with SAP Business All-in-One Solution Exam
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NO.1 Which currency types are available for budgeting on internal orders? (Choose three)
A. Controlling area currency
B. Object currency
C. Company code currency
D. Freely-definable currency
E. Transaction currency
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.2 When a document is posted, a number is assigned to that document.
Where does this number come from?
A. Document source
B. Document area
C. Document type
D. Posting key
Answer: C

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NO.3 SAP Best Practices are preconfigured packages that can be used for different purposes in
various phases of an implementation project.
Why would you set up a system by activating an SAP Best Practices package? (Choose two)
A. To introduce new functions that are not offered in the Business Suite
B. To accelerate the implementation of SAP applications
C. To quickly set up a prototype system for specification workshops, trainings, and demos
D. To correct settings in a productive system
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 When you make a change to an asset, at what point does the planned depreciation change in
Asset Accounting?
A. After a posting to a fixed asset
B. After depreciation is run and posted to the general ledger
C. After depreciation is run without being posted
D. After depreciation is run and posted to the fixed assets ledger
Answer: A

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NO.5 During the preparation phase, you create a project charter and define project standards and
procedures. These elements give the project manager the authority to conduct a project within
scope, quality, time, and cost and resource constraints.
Which approach would you recommend for scope change requests?
A. Since the project is a fixed scope project, reject all scope change requests.
B. Only accept scope change requests after integration and acceptance tests.
C. Collect scope change requests and hand them over to development immediately.
D. Document scope change requests according to the change requests plan and decide on
realization.
Answer: D

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6. Which components are part of the SAP Business All-in-One solutions? (Choose three)
A. Preconfigured business processes
B. Help portal
C. NetWeaver Business Client
D. Documentation and training material
E. GuiXT
Answer: A,C,D

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7. How do you use the Solution Builder to package your own solution? (Choose two)
A. Add a Customizing step to your building blocks using a report.
B. Use solution builder to automatically transfer a solution into a new scenario map.
C. Export the structure of your solution into an xml file.
D. Create building blocks that contain your delta settings.
Answer: C,D

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8. The ASAP Focus Methodology defines a proposal framework as an accelerator to help you
produce the proposal document during the evaluation phase.
Which document is part of the proposal framework?
A. Sales presentations
B. Marketing collateral
C. Customer qualification questionnaire
D. Solution scope document
Answer: D

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9. Which "additional" planning method is available for internal orders if you have information
about sources of supply and vendors' prices based on quantities?
A. Unit cost planning
B. Activity input planning
C. Overall planning
D. Primary cost planning
Answer: A

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10. Along with SAP NetWeaver Business Client (NWBC), SAP provides a NWBC demo kit for
partners. This contains the welcome page and workbenches to enhance the user interface.
What are the required steps to install and run the NWBC demo kit? (Choose three)
A. Configure the user interface according to your specific needs.
B. Import the transport request from the NWBC demo kit into your system.
C. Download the NWBC demo kit from the SAP Help Portal under alias /bestpractices.
D. Download the NWBC demo kit from the SAP Service Portal under alias /bestpractices.
E. Order the NWBC demo kit per OSS message with reference to SAP Note 1040010.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.1 The Recruiter is searching for candidates using TREX search, but the system does not return
any results.
How do you test the TREX search function?(Choose two)
A. Check the free text search and the Boolean search in the E-Recruiting frontend.
B. Execute transaction KRPO IMS: Monitoring (SKPR07).
C. Execute transaction Retrieval: Search Server Relation Monitor (SRMO).
D. Check the free text search and the Boolean search in the E-Recruiting backend.
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 HR wants to monitor the maintenance of Personal Development (PD) master data.
Which methods are available to audit this?(Choose two)
A. Program RPUAUD00 for logged changes to standard infotypes 0001-0999.
B. Log of report starts accessing logical database PCH.
C. Log of report starts accessing logical database PNP .
D. Transaction PPOME for organization structure changes.
E. Program RHDOC_DISPLAY for logged changes to standard infotypes 1000-1999.
Answer: D,E

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NO.3 Your customer needs to manage their employees' performance by developing Key
Performance Indicators (KPIs) that support the Cascading Goals functionality in SAP ECC 6.0 EhP4.
How can you do this?(Choose two)
A. Install the application available in the portal for Business Package 1.40, configure the setting
Organizational Goals using the wizard and assign the 'Talent Management Specialist' role to
appropriate users.
B. Implement a BAdI to add Cascading Goals for all types of goals and three fixed enhancements for
adding Corporate Goals, Team Goals and Core Values.
C. Assign the Performance Management Specialist role to appropriate users to establish the
Corporate goals and Core Values, and cascade them through all levels of the company.
D. Configure the goal details and the KPI measurement on the appraisal template in the predefined
Performance Management Process User Interface.
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 After having set up structural authorizations, your customer is experiencing slow system
response times.
How can you improve system response times?
A. Delete all entries of structural authorization indexes and recreate each structural authorization
profile.
B. Generate indexes for users assigned to these structural authorizations using RHBAUS00.
C. Increase database storage capacity to better process the complex indexing associated with
building and maintaining structural authorizations.
D. Reduce the number of structural authorization profiles to allow fewer users access to the
structural authorization objects.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Your customer needs a 'Special Exempt' indicator on 'Job Attributes' (Infotype 1610).
What do you recommend?
A. Change the data dictionary definition of a standard text field.
B. Change the field attribute on Dialog Database Assignment Table (T777D).
C. Configure the Screen Modification Table (T588M) and set the field as a radio button.
D. Customize the Infotype to add a radio button for the additional field.
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer would like to have a batch process to automate the update of the Appraiser (new
manager) on the review form based on employees' transfer. Therefore, a custom program must be
developed.
Which functionality should be implemented in a custom program to meet this requirement?
A. Update Organizational Unit assignment on the incomplete appraisal form of the transferred
employees.
B. Update Appraiser assignment on the incomplete appraisal form of the transferred employees.
C. Release new appraisal form for the transferred employees with the new Organizational Unit
assignment.
D. Release new appraisal form for the transferred employees with the new manager assigned as
Appraiser.
Answer: B

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NO.7 An organization has the need to reduce their headcount. Therefore they need to identify jobs
and positions that have to be retained based on critical business processes.
How can you determine what jobs and positions are critical?
A. Execute Complete Job Description (S_AHR_61016501) from Organizational Management Info
System.
B. Execute Infotype Reporting (S_AHR_61016532) from Organizational Management Info System
using Spec. Position Characteristics (infotype 1958).
C. Execute Profile Matchup (PEPM) from Personnel Development Info System.
D. Execute Complete Position Description (S_AHR_61016511) from Organizational
Management Info System.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Your customer has implemented SAP Learning Solution (LSO) with Enhancement Pack 4,
Organizational Management (OM) and Performance Management (PM) and requires that the
managers are able to assign courses to their team member's performance appraisal document.
How do you provide this functionality?
A. Configure the integration of the performance appraisal template with the course catalogue.
B. Install the business package HCM_LSO_VLR and set up the parameter for the Add Course from
LSO BAdI.
C. Configure the performance appraisal template using the ORG_PM_APPR and add course to PM
Template BAdI.
D. Set up custom evaluation path and mandatory relationships to assign trainings to employees via
selected organizational units.
Answer: B

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Exam Name: RSA SecurID Certified Administrator 8.0 Exam
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NO.1 When adding a new Authentication Agent record to the RSA Authentication Manager database,
an attempt is made to resolve the hostname of the Agent Host with its IP Address. If the attempt
fails,
A. the administrator can override the hostname/IP Address by using the Auto-Registration option.
B. the Agent is added to the database with a 'Pending' status until it is first used for a successful
authentication.
C. a warning is given that the hostname/IP Address cannot be resolved but the database will allow
the Agent to be added.
D. the administrator must correct the address resolution through DNS or editing the /etc/hosts file
before the Agent can be added to the database.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A user who is enabled for Risk-Based Authentication will likely be associated with what other
authentication method?
A. PIN-less SecurID token.
B. On-Demand Authentication.
C. Emergency Access Passcode.
D. Digital Certificate Authentication.
Answer: B

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NO.3 If a user is seeking help after receiving an 'Access Denied' message, which Security Console
function would help locate the activity?
A. Reporting
B. Token record
C. User activation record
D. Administrative Activity Monitor
Answer: A

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NO.4 If all users are denied access when they attempt to authenticate to an RSA Authentication
Manager instance, the problem might be that
A. the licensed number of users has been exceeded.
B. the Authentication Manager services are not running.
C. all Agent node secrets have been cleared by the users.
D. the Super Admin administrator has left the instance in debug mode.
Answer: B

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NO.5 If an administrator creates a new administrative user,
A. by default, the new administrator must use a SecurID token to log in.
B. the administrator creating the new user must have at least a Super Admin role.
C. by default, the new user has permissions identical to the administrator creating the new user.
D. permissions granted to the new user can not exceed those of the administrator creating the new
user.
Answer: D

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6. If a user is NOT a member of an Authentication Manager user group, which of the following
statements is true?
A. The user can not be restricted to certain login times.
B. The user can not be forced to adhere to password polices.
C. The user can not take advantage of Risk-Based authentication.
D. The user can not log on to an unrestricted Authentication Agent.
Answer: A

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7. Of the following RSA Authentication Manager components, which one is most likely to be
located in a network DMZ?
A. Web Tier
B. Risk Engine
C. Replica Server
D. Authentication Agent
Answer: A

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8. Token expiration dates;
A. Appear on the token display thirty days prior to expiration.
B. Are programmed into a token record at the time of manufacture.
C. Vary according to the date set by the administrator when assigning the token.
D. Depend on the clock in the Authentication Agent to determine if the token is active.
Answer: B

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9. Which of the following services is NOT an option to users through the Self-Service Console?
A. Changing a password or PIN
B. Creating an individual PIN policy
C. Requesting a replacement token
D. Resynchronizing an RSA SecurID token
Answer: B

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10. Can multiple Identity Sources be established from the same LDAP directory?
A. Yes, if the mapped Organizational Units (OUs) do not overlap.
B. Yes, if duplicate attribute values do not exist in the LDAP directory.
C. No - only one LDAP directory can be mapped to one Identity Source.
D. Yes, if no duplicate passwords exist in the LDAP directory (unique password for each user).
Answer: A

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NO.1 What is the output of the following code?
$first = "second";
$second = "first";
echo $$$first;
A. "first"
B. "second"
C. an empty string
D. an error
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following are valid identifiers? (Choose 3)
A. function 4You() { }
B. function _4You() { }
C. function object() { }
D. $1 = "Hello";
E. $_1 = "Hello World";
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.3 What is the output of the following code?
echo "1" + 2 * "0x02";
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 20
E. 7
Answer: C

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6. What is the output of the following code?
$a = 'a'; $b = 'b';
echo isset($c) ? $a.$b.$c : ($c = 'c').'d';
A. abc
B. cd
C. 0d
Answer: B

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7. What super-global should be used to access information about uploaded files via a POST
request?
A. $_SERVER
B. $_ENV
C. $_POST
D. $_FILES
E. $_GET
Answer: D

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8. What is the output of the following code?
$a = 3;
switch ($a) { case 1: echo 'one'; break; case 2: echo 'two'; break; default: echo 'four'; break; case 3:
echo 'three'; break;
}
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
Answer: C

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9. What is the output of the following code?
echo "22" + "0.2", 23 . 1;
A. 220.2231
B. 22.2231
C. 22.2,231
D. 56.2
Answer: B

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10. Which of the following may be used in conjunction with CASE inside a SWITCH statement?
A. A scalar
B. An expression
C. A boolean
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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11. What is the result of the following bitwise operation in PHP?
1

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NO.1 An administrator is unable to login to vCenter Server when using the vSphere Web Client. The
administrator successfully accessed vCenter Server using the client earlier the same day.
What is the most appropriate first step the administrator should take to resolve this issue?
A. Verify the web browser being used has Adobe Flash plugin version 11.5 or later
B. Verify the vCenter Single Sign-On service is running on the vCenter Server
C. Verify the vSphere Web Server service is running on the vCenter Server
D. Verify the administrator has permissions configured in vCenter Server
Answer: B

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NO.2 An administrator attempts to install vCenter Single Sign-On Server. The installer returns an
error message indicating that the installation failed. Prior to the installation, all setup prerequisites
were met. The administrator has generated a vCenter Server Single Sign-On support bundle.
Which two files should the administrator analyze to determine the cause of the failure? (Choose
two.)
A. <SSO_Server_Directory>\utils\logs\imsTrace.log
B. <SSO_Server_Directory>\utils\logs\install.txt
C. %TEMP%\utils\logs\vminst.log
D. %TEMP%\vminst.log
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 What are two features provided by VMFS5? (Choose two.)
A. Support for greater than 2TB storage devices for only VMFS and Physical RDMs
B. Support for up to 32 extents
C. Support for greater than 2TB storage devices for VMFS, Physical and Virtual RDMs
D. Support for up to 64 extents
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 During the installation of ESXi, a vmkernel interface can be configured with what capabilities?
A. Management traffic
B. Management traffic and vMotion
C. Management traffic, vMotion, and Fault Tolerance logging
D. Management traffic, vMotion, Fault Tolerance logging, and IP storage
Answer: A

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NO.5 During an upgrade, the ESXi 5.x installer finds an existing version of ESXi and a VMFS3 volume.
No virtual machines exist on the host or VMFS3 volume. The requirement is to upgrade to VMFS5.
Which option should be chosen to meet this requirement?
A. Upgrade ESXi and preserve the VMFS datastore
B. Install ESXi and preserve the VMFS datastore
C. Install ESXi and overwrite the VMFS datastore
D. Upgrade ESXi and overwrite the VMFS datastore
Answer: C

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NO.6 A vSphere administrator needs to upgrade a single extent VMFS3 datastore to VMFS5 and
expand it to 4TB in size. The storage administrator has already expanded the underlying LUN to 4TB.
Which steps should the vSphere administrator take?
A. Expand the VMFS3 datastore to 4TB and then upgrade to VMFS5
B. Upgrade the datastore to VMFS5, manually change the partition scheme to GPT, and then expand
the datastore to 4TB
C. Upgrade the datastore to VMFS5 and then expand it to 4TB
D. Change the block size of the VMFS3 datastore to 1MB, upgrade the datastore to VMFS5, and
expand it to 4TB
Answer: C

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NO.7 During a physical network reconfiguration, an ESXi host briefly lost connection to the
management network. High Availability (HA) began powering off the virtual machines residing on
the affected host to be restarted on an unaffected host in the cluster.
Which setting should the administrator configure to prevent this type of HA failover during planned
maintenance?
A. Host isolation response
B. Host monitoring
C. VM monitoring
D. Admission control
Answer: B

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NO.8 What should an administrator do to configure multi-pathing using software iSCSI?
A. Bind the VMkernel ports to the software iSCSI initiator
B. Configure Zoning between the hosts and SAN switches
C. Configure NIC teaming on the associated uplinks
D. Ensure jumbo frames are enabled end-to-end
Answer: A

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Exam Name: Administration of Symantec Management Platform 7.5
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NO.1 Which Symantec Management Platform component initiates policy-based communication?
A. Notification Server
B. Symantec Management Agent
C. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
D. Symantec Management Console
Answer: B

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NO.2 What can the administrator use to have resources assigned to specific sites without
administrative intervention and as they register with the Notification Server?
A. Automation policy
B. Active Directory import policy
C. Inventory policy
D. Custom Inventory policy
Answer: A

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NO.3 If installation of the Package Service on the Site Server is forgotten, what is the impact on a
new hierarchy implementation?
A. Replication performance is degraded.
B. Data replication stops.
C. Hierarchy installation is denied.
D. Hierarchy replication switches to HTTP .
Answer: C

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13. Which statement describes the relationship between Site Server and Notification Server?
A. Site Server assists Notification Server by providing packages and tasks to the Altiris Agent.
B. Site Server sends information, events, and data from the Inventory Rule Agent to Notification
Server.
C. Site Server assists Notification Server by running reports.
D. Site Server takes over all functions for Notification Server.
Answer: A

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14. Which two methods can an administrator use to create tasks? (Select two.)
A. clone an existing task
B. clone a task report
C. right-click a reports folder and select New -> Task
D. right-click a Jobs and Tasks Portal folder and select New -> Task
E. clone an existing patch
Answer: A,D

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15. Two administrators run the same report that displays Windows XP SP1 workstations
imported from Active Directory. The North America Symantec Administrator returns 2,500
workstations. The Marketing Manager returns 500 workstations. When they compare the results,
they find that there is an overlap of 100 workstations. Why is there an overlap in the reports?
A. Because the workstations belong to multiple organizational groups in same organizational view.
B. Because the workstations belong to organizational groups in separate organizational views
C. Because of workstation security privilege intersection
D. Because of workstation security role filters
Answer: B

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NO.4 Refer to the Exhibit.
A target has been created with two rules: 1) 'exclude computers not in' filter Windows XP
Computers, and 2) 'include computers in' filter All Computers. There are 150 computers in the
Windows XP Computers filter. There are 200 computers in the All Computers filter. How many
computers will be in the target?
A. 50
B. 150
C. 200
D. 350
Answer: C

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NO.5 What must an administrator do to edit a sample task?
A. Clone the sample task and edit the original task
B. Right-click and select the task's properties
C. Clone the source folder of the sample
D. Clone the sample task and edit the clone
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which Symantec Management Platform component processes data sent by the Altiris Agent
and stores it in the Configuration Management Database?
A. Symantec Management Console
B. Software Management Framework
C. Notification Server
D. Site Services
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which statement is true about the Default Shared Schedules shipping with Notification Server?
A. They cannot be deleted.
B. They cannot be modified.
C. They can override maintenance windows.
D. They cannot be disabled.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A Symantec Management Platform 7.5 administrator attempts to discover all network
resources using the ping function, and none are found. After conferring with the network
administrator, it is determined that ping is blocked on all network devices for security purposes.
Which other protocol can the administrator use to discover network devices using Network
Discovery?
A. CDP
B. HIP
C. ARP
D. RIP
Answer: C

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NO.1 An administrator creates a page and denies access to anonymous users. The friendly URL for
this page
is /wps/myportal/page1. J2EE authentication is enabled. Which default authentication level could
be
associated with this page such that users who selected "Remember me on this computer" when
logging in
previously will not be prompted for credentials when requesting /wps/myportal/page1?
A.Identified
B.Standard
C.Authorized
D.Authenticated
Answer: A

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5. What is one thing to check when troubleshooting friendly URLs?
A.If a web content viewer is not configured to broadcast links, links rendered by the viewer will
affect the
friendly URL for web content.
B.Support for friendly URLs for web content is only enabled when either of the configuration
properties
friendly.enabled or
friendly.pathinfo.enabled has a value of true in the portal Configuration Service.
C.It does not matter if the target page does not contain a web content viewer that is configured to
receive
links. The content item specified in the
friendly URL for web content will be displayed either way.
D.The portal page specified in the friendly URL for web content must contain a content mapping to
an
existing web content site area.If there is no
content mapping on the page, any web content viewers on the page display a warning message
about the
missing page context.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Virtual Member Manager (VMM) is configured to leverage an LDAP server's membership
attribute.The
LDAP server's membership attribute includes direct groups only. Access to IBM WebSphere Portal
resources has been assigned based on nested group membership. What configuration options
should be
changed or verified?
A.Change VMM membership attribute to scope "all".
B.Change VMM membership attribute to scope "nested".
C.Leave VMM membership attribute as scope "direct". Enable WebSphere Portal nested groups.
D.Leave VMM membership attribute as scope "direct". Disable WebSphere Portal nested groups.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What special considerations exist for logging out users authenticated by an external security
manager
(ESM)?
A.whether and how to expire the ESM's cookies
B.what role mappings to assign the default login portlet
C.how to clear the authorization context in the ESM's session
D.how to bypass the trust association interceptor during the logout
Answer: A

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NO.4 IBM WebSphere Portal supports which three of the following portlet specifications? (Choose
three.)
A.IBM Portlet API
B.Generic Portlet 1.0
C.Portlet 2.0 (JSR 286)
D.Portlet 1.0 (JSR 168)
E.IBM Web Content Manager Portlet 1.0
F.IBM Web Experience Factory specification 1.5
Answer: A,C,D

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Exam Name: Assessment: IBM Business Process Manager Advanced V7.5.1, Deployment
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NO.1 How is the "Seasonal Usage" ratio calculated?
A. Summer Usage / Winter Usage
B. Winter Usage / Summer Usage
C. Summer Usage / Overall Usage
D. Winter Usage / Overall Usage
Answer: B

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NO.2 How many points of variability are called on in the WIH (Water Information Hub)
programming model?
A. 7
B. 5
C. 6
D. 1
Answer: A

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NO.3 What asset is NOT used to support IW v1?
A. Water Information Hub
B. Leak Management Hub
C. Non Revenue Water
D. Meter Usage Anomaly
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT a way in which the Work Optimization component
provides value.?
A. Optimizing work crew schedules
B. Detecting water usage patterns
C. Using crews more efficiently
D. Decreasing transport costs
Answer: B

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NO.5 What are the kinds of external systems that WIH (Water Information Hub) can ingest
data from?
A. SCADA systems only
B. Meter systems only
C. SCADA systems, Meter systems, EAM systems
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.1 Name a competitor to IBM zSecure.
A. Oracle
B. Vanguard
C. Hewlett Packard
D. Serena Software
Answer: B

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NO.2 The common architecture across the QRadar products offers advantages over the competition.
What are the main 2 advantages that were covered?
A. Opens areas of visibility into your network and scales easily.
B. QRadar is a well architected toolkit that can 1) satisfy even very obscure and complex
requirements and 2) outperform other competitors no matter what the use case.
C. QRadar works on most available platforms and is integrated with more products than other
competitive products are.
D. QRadar itself is highly secure, and because its architecture is open, it has been approved by NIST
and OASIS
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 What is the primary customer requirement that Access Manager for Web (formerly Access
Manager for e-business) addresses?
A. Web single sign-on.
B. Service oriented architecture application access management.
C. Hardening servers involved in e-business transactions.
D. Enterprise e-business audit log management and reporting.
Answer: A

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NO.4 In considering the overall SIEM competitive landscape, what are the 2 top points that favor
QRadar over all of its competitors?
A. Broadest set of integrated capabilities and ease of deployment.
B. Deepest packet inspection, and it is frequently the lowest priced offering.
C. Runs on any platform and offers a toolkit with the greatest modularity - a real plus with technical
teams.
D. Easiest to learn customization language and search performance.
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 There were 3 themes used to describe QRadar"s value. Which of those 3 themes is one that
best relates to the unified view that the QRadar Console offers its customers?
A. Analysis
B. Automation
C. Intelligence
D. Integration
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is a value/feature of zSecure Compliance and Auditing?
A. Real time monitoring of database activities
B. Centralized view of enterprise security incidents
C. Unified management of keys across disparate platforms
D. Addresses real time audit control points, especially network audit control points
Answer: A

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NO.7 In the RSA breach case study, how was the attack enabled?
A. A Spear-Phishing email containing a weaponized attachment
B. A SQL injection attack on the RSA partner portal
C. A DDOS attack on the company's web servers
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www.computerweekly.com/news/1280095593 /RSA-discloses-phishingattack-data-
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NO.8 The IBM Security Network Protection (XGS) platform provides which of the following features
on top of what is provided by the IBM Security Network IPS platform?
A. Advanced Threat Protection
B. Visibility and Control
C. Application Scanning capabilities
D. Security Intelligence
Answer: B

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NO.1 A new IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) Backup-Archive client must be set up on a TSM Server. This
client requires a new policy with three generations of backups for existing files, two generations of deleted
files, and the older generations to be kept for two months. This new client, called NEWCLT, will be part of
policy domain POLDOM. Which sequence of commands will accomplish this?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer created a schedule and is checking the results. What is the correct sequence of a
successful incremental scheduled backup?
A. Future, pending, started, completed
B. Future, waiting, started, running, completed
C. Future, started, pending, running, completed
D. Future, pending, started, running, completed
Answer: D

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NO.3 When running a backup of a client which has journaling enabled, which option for a manual backup
using the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager GUI performs a normal incremental backup without using the
journal?
A. Nojournal
B. Incremental
C. Incremental (complete)
D. Incremental (without journal)
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which command grants access to another node from the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Server
administrative command line?
A. grant proxy node
B. set node access
C. grant node proxy
D. grant node access
Answer: A

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NO.5 All client data has been backed up to the primary pools. What is the recommended flow of data within
the storage hierarchy?
A. The storage pool data is backed up.
B. The storage pool data is backed up and then migrated and reclaimed.
C. The storage pool data is migrated to the next pool and then backed up.
D. The data stays in the pool, and the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager database is backed up
Answer: B

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NO.6 IBM Tivoli Storage Manager deduplication is supported on which two resources? (Choose two.)
A. Client
B. LTO tape
C. Backup tape pool
D. Random access disk pool
E. Sequential access disk pool
Answer: A,E

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NO.7 What are two benefits of an adaptive subfile backup? (Choose two.)
A. Large backup window
B. Limited connection time
C. Incremental forever backup
D. Longer Windows file retention
E. Reduced bandwidth requirements
Answer: B,E

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NO.8 The customer tells the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) administrator that a Windows file server has
to be upgraded and therefore is put into maintenance. The manager wants to have the data immediately
available for restore in the event of problems. What is one of the actions of the TSM administrator?
A. move data
B. export node
C. copy activedata
D. prepare backupset
Answer: C

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NO.1 What are the two primary benefits for companies using Tealeaf?
A. Marketing placement and IT performance
B. IT performance and data analytics
C. Conversion and retention
D. Data analytics and retention
Answer: C

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NO.2 The most persuading method to sell Tealeaf to prospects is:
A. Differentiate Tealeaf from competitors
B. Tell Tealeaf customer stories
C. Tell prospects about the benefits of Tealeaf
D. Sell products at a discounted price
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is IBM Multichannel Analytics designed to help marketers achieve?
A. Push messaging across multiple marketing channels
B. Segmentation of marketing activities across web, mobile and social
C. One-to-one customer interaction across multiple channels
D. Improved insight via incorporation of offline data
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which marketing channel does IBM Impression Attribution primarily influence?
A. Email marketing
B. Display advertising
C. Social media
D. Mobile channels
Answer: B

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Reference:http://www-03.ibm.com/software/products/us/en/impression-attribution/

NO.5 What is one benefit listed in the value proposition for the DMO solution's customer profiles
(LIVE Profiles)?
A. Instant insight into opt-in permissions
B. Provide a complete picture of customer interactions
C. Detailed history of a customer's word-of-mouth activity
D. Ability to analyze customer sentiment and opinions
Answer: B

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NO.6 When it comes to DMO's digital marketing execution, what are some of the key capabilities?
A. Strategic planning and budgeting
B. Product recommendations and email targeting
C. Measuring customer interaction across their lifecycle
D. Generating a pipeline of qualified leads
Answer: B

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NO.7 Name the 3 factors that determine the price of Tealeaf software:
A. Page count, #Tealeaf Users, and Products
B. Products. #Tealeaf Users, and #Units
C. #Units, Page Count and #Tealeaf Users
D. Products. Page Count and #Units
Answer: B

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NO.8 The products in CBA Suite consists of all the following except:
A. cxReveal
B. cxView
C. cxResults
D. cxOverstat
E. cxImpact
Answer: A,C

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Reference:http://www-03.ibm.com/software/products/us/en/customer-behavior-analysis/