2014年5月29日星期四

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NO.1 By default, which condition would cause a session to be removed from the session table?
A. Route entry for the session changed.
B. Security policy for the session changed.
C. The ARP table entry for the source IP address timed out.
D. No traffic matched the session during the timeout period.
Answer: D

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NO.2 In JUNOS Software, which three packet elements can be inspected to determine if a session already
exists? (Choose three.)
A. IP protocol
B. IP time-to-live
C. source and destination IP address
D. source and destination MAC address
E. source and destination TCP/UDP port
Answer: ACE

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NO.3 Which two statements describe the difference between JUNOS Software for security platforms and a
traditional router? (Choose two.)
A. JUNOS Software for security platforms supports NAT and PAT; a traditional router does not support
NAT or PAT.
B. JUNOS Software for security platforms does not forward traffic by default; a traditional router forwards
traffic by default.
C. JUNOS Software for security platforms uses session-based forwarding; a traditional router uses
packet-based forwarding.
D. JUNOS Software for security platforms performs route lookup for every packet; a traditional router
performs route lookup only for the first packet.
Answer: BC

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
[edit groups]
user@host# show
node0 {
system {
host-name NODE0;
}
interfaces {
fxp0 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 1.1.1.1/24;
}
}
}
}
}
node1 {
system {
host-name NODE1;
}
interfaces {
fxp0 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 1.1.1.2/24;
}
}
}
}
}
In the exhibit, what is the function of the configuration statements?
A. This section is where you define all chassis clustering configuration.
B. This configuration is required for members of a chassis cluster to talk to each other.
C. You can apply this configuration in the chassis cluster to make configuration easier.
D. This section is where unique node configuration is applied.
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the purpose of a zone in JUNOS Software?
A. A zone defines a group of security devices with a common management.
B. A zone defines the geographic region in which the security device is deployed.
C. A zone defines a group of network segments with similar security requirements.
D. A zone defines a group of network segments with similar class-of-service requirements.
Answer: C

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NO.6 For IKE phase 1 negotiations, when is aggressive mode typically used?
A. when one of the tunnel peers has a dynamic IP address
B. when one of the tunnel peers wants to force main mode to be used
C. when fragmentation of the IKE packet is required between the two peers
D. when one of the tunnel peers wants to specify a different phase 1 proposal
Answer: A

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
[edit schedulers]
user@host# show
scheduler now {
monday all-day;
tuesday exclude;
wednesday {
start-time 07:00:00 stop-time 18:00:00;
}
thursday {
start-time 07:00:00 stop-time 18:00:00;
}
}
[edit security policies from-zone Private to-zone External]
user@host# show
policy allowTransit {
match {
source-address PrivateHosts;
destination-address ExtServers;
application ExtApps;
}
then {
permit {
tunnel {
ipsec-vpn myTunnel;
}
}
}
scheduler-name now;
Based on the configuration shown in the exhibit, what are the actions of the security policy?
A. The policy will always permit transit packets and use the IPsec VPN myTunnel.
B. The policy will permit transit packets only on Monday, and use the IPsec VPN Mytunnel.
C. The policy will permit transit packets and use the IPsec VPN myTunnel all day Monday and
Wednesday 7am to 6pm, and Thursday 7am to 6pm.
D. The policy will always permit transit packets, but will only use the IPsec VPN myTunnel all day Monday
and Wednesday 7am to 6pm, and Thursday 7am to 6pm.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Regarding zone types, which statement is true?
A. You cannot assign an interface to a functional zone.
B. You can specifiy a functional zone in a security policy.
C. Security zones must have a scheduler applied.
D. You can use a security zone for traffic destined for the device itself.
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which two statements regarding asymmetric key encryption are true? (Choose two.)
A. The same key is used for encryption and decryption.
B. It is commonly used to create digital certificate signatures.
C. It uses two keys: one for encryption and a different key for decryption.
D. An attacker can decrypt data if the attacker captures the key used for encryption.
Answer: BC

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NO.2 Host A opens a Telnet connection to Host B. Host A then opens another Telnet connection to Host B.
These connections are the only communication between Host A and Host B. The security policy
configuration permits both connections. How many flows exist between Host A and Host B?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which three security concerns can be addressed by a tunnel mode IPSec VPN secured by AH?
(Choose three.)
A. data integrity
B. data confidentiality
C. data authentication
D. outer IP header confidentiality
E. outer IP header authentication
Answer:ACE

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NO.4 Which three parameters are configured in the IKE policy? (Choose three.)
A. mode
B. preshared key
C. external interface
D. security proposals
E. dead peer detection settings
Answer: ABD

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NO.5 In a JSRP cluster with two J6350 routers, the interface ge-7/0/0 belongs to which device?
A. This interface is a system-created interface.
B. This interface belongs to NODE0 of the cluster.
C. This interface belongs to NODE1 of the cluster.
D. This interface will not exist because J6350 routers have only six slots.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which parameters must you select when configuring operating system probes SCREEN options?
A. syn-fin, syn-flood, and tcp-no-frag
B. syn-fin, port-scan, and tcp-no-flag
C. syn-fin, fin-no-ack, and tcp-no-frag
D. syn-fin, syn-ack-ack-proxy, and tcp-no-frag
Answer: C

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
host_a is in subnet_a and host_b is in subnet_b.
Given the configuration shown in the exhibit, which statement is true about traffic from host_a to host_b?
A. DNS traffic is denied.
B. Telnet traffic is denied.
C. SMTP traffic is denied.
D. Ping traffic is permitted.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
Which type of source NAT is configured in the exhibit?
A. static source pool
B. interface source pool
C. source pool with PAT
D. souce pool without PAT
Answer:A

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NO.1 Which of the following can BEST enhance a measurement and control system for
evaluating buyer performance?
A. Including the buyer in the design of the system.
B. Including human resources in the design of the system.
C. Making a composite measurement of efficiency and effectiveness.
D. Being sufficiently broad in scope to allow the measurement of all contingencies.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Under which of the following circumstances is negative feedback appropriate?
A. Soon after the occurrence of the faulty behavior.
B. In the presence of other managerial personnel.
C. In the presence of other team members.
D. It is never appropriate.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following statements regarding the orientation of a buyer trainee are
FALSE?
A. The trainee should be informed of personal growth opportunities.
B. Orientation and training should be conducted separately during the trainee's initial
months on the job.
C. The trainee should be informed that his/her performance will be evaluated during
orientation and later on.
D. The trainee should be advised of purchasing's major staff and line activities.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the training method that facilitates the development of organization-wide
skills and requires good interpersonal skills called?
A. Functional rotation.
B. On-the-job training.
C. The "buddy" system.
D. Continuing education.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following methods should a purchasing manager use when evaluating
individual employee performance?
A. Performance standards set by the U.S. Department of Labor.
B. The requirements of the job, including position descriptions.
C. Management By Objectives, whether or not the employee helped set the objectives.
D. Uniform company-wide standards of performance developed by the human resources
department.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following is NOT a good indicator of purchasing department
performance?
A. Quality rejection rates for major items.
B. Number of purchase orders issued.
C. Percentage of on-time deliveries.
D. Number of stockout situations.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following would NOT be included in a typical audit of the purchasing
department in a manufacturing operation?
A. Inspection.
B. Organization policy.
C. Purchasing operations.
D. Inventory management.
Answer: A

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NO.8 You work as a purchasing manager at Certkiller .com. An employee that has been at
Certkiller .com for 20-years has become accustomed to coming to work 30-45
minutes late. Initially, this was due to child-rearing responsibilities, but now is a
simply habit. The supervisor has asked the employee several times if there was a
problem and the answer has always been "no." The problem is beginning to have a
negative impact on the morale of the rest of the department. Which of the following
would be your BEST course of action in this situation?
A. Dismiss the employee.
B. Have the employee attend counseling sessions.
C. Ask the human resources department to intervene and find a solution to the problem.
D. Set goals with the employee to improve on arrival time, and include a written report in
the employee's file.
Answer: D

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NO.1 What type of person is likely to benefit most from being set measurable targets within a Green IT
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A. Someone who constantly belittles the team and its achievements.
B. Someone who believes it is too late for the project to make a difference.
C. Someone who is committed but wants to do everything at once.
D. Someone who only participates if it helps their career opportunities.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the best definition of a Carbon Footprint?
A. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted within a defined geographical area.
B. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted by an organisation.
C. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted by one person in one year.
D. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted minus the amount of carbon offsetting.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are monitoring energy usage in the Data Centre. What is the role of thermal profiling.
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B. To identify which servers are performing efficiently.
C. To identify the timing of energy consumption peaks.
D. To identify which applications require the most energy.
Answer: A

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A. a, c, and e
B. a, b and c.
C. a, b c, and e.
D. a, b, c and d.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following uses Greenhouse Gas conversion factors to work out CO2 emissions?
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C. The Carbon Footprint Calculator.
D. The Electronic Product Environmental Assessment Tool.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which statement best describes the purpose of a Green IT policy?
A. To ensure an organisation IT meets green legal requirements.To ensure an organisation? IT meets
green legal requirements.
B. To inform stakeholders of an organisation Green IT approach.To inform stakeholders of an organisation?
Green IT approach.
C. To allow an organisation to measure its Green IT performance.
D. To ensure Green IT is as important as other organisational initiatives.
Answer: B

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NO.7 How can IP Video Conferencing reduce your carbon footprint?
A. It reduces the power consumed during meetings.
B. It reduces the paperwork needed for meetings.
C. It reduces the number of rooms needed for meetings.
D. It reduces the travel needed to attend meetings.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following are risks to the success of a Green IT Programme? a.Alienation of key staff.
b.Additional unplanned costs. c.Perceived lack of benefits. d.Early delivery of benefits.
A. a, b, c and d.
B. a, b and c.
C. b and d.
D. c and d.
Answer: B

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BH0-004Exam Code: BH0-004
Exam Name: ISEB ISTQB Certificate in Software Testing
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Last Update: 2014-05-29

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ISEB-SWT2Exam Code: ISEB-SWT2
Exam Name: ISTQB-ISEB Certified Tester Foundation Level
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ISEB-SWTINT1Exam Code: ISEB-SWTINT1
Exam Name: ISEB Intermediate Certificate in Software Testing
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NO.1 A system under development contains complex calculations and decision logic, and it is assessed as
high risk because of the relative inexperience of the development team in the application domain. Which
of the following would be the MOST appropriate choice of test design technique for component testing?
A. Decision testing.
B. Statement testing
C. State transition testing
D. Equivalence partitioning
Answer: A

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NO.2 During which activity of the Fundamental Test Process test process do you review the test basis?
A. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
B. Test implementation and execution
C. Test analysis and design
D. Test planning and control
Answer: C

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NO.3 A system requires 100% decision coverage at component testing for all modules. The following module
has been tested with a single test case.
The test case follows the path A, B, D, E, F, G. What level of decision coverage has been achieved?
A. 100%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 90%
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following BEST describes a datadriven approach to the use of test execution tools?
A. Monitoring response times when the system contains a specified amount of data
B. Manipulation of databases and files to create test data
C. Using a generic script that reads test input data from a file
D. Recording test scripts and playing them back
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following is a MAJOR task of evaluating exit criteria and reporting?
A. Writing a test summary report for stakeholders
B. Logging the outcome of test execution
C. Repeating test activities as a result of action taken for each discrepancy.
D. Evaluating testability of the requirements and system
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which ADDITIONAL test level could be introduced into a standard Vmodel after system testing?
A. System Integration Testing
B. Acceptance Testing
C. Regression Testing
D. Component Integration Testing
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which tasks would USUALLY be performed by a test leader and which by the tester?
a. Adapt planning based on test results.
b. Create test specifications.
c. Plan tests.
d. Write or review a test strategy
A. c and d by the test leader. a and b by the tester
B. a and b by the test leader. c and d by the tester.
C. a and d by the test leader. b and c by the tester
D. a, c and d by the test leader. b by the tester.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which one of the following statements about approaches to test estimation is true?
A. A metricsbased approach is based on data gathered from previous projects. an expertbased approach
uses the knowledge of the owner of the tasks or experts
B. A metricsbased approach is based on creating a workbreakdown structure first. an expertbased
approach is based on input from estimation experts
C. A metricsbased approach is based on data gathered from previous projects. an expertbased approach
is based on a workbreakdown structure
D. A metricsbased approach is based on an analysis of the specification documents. an expertbased
approach is based on the opinion of the most experienced tester in the organisation
Answer: A

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ISEB-ITILFExam Code: ISEB-ITILF
Exam Name: The Foundation Examination - ITIL®
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BH0-007Exam Code: BH0-007
Exam Name: ISEB Intermediate Certificate in Software Testing
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NO.1 The group that reviews Changes that must be installed faster than the normal Change process is
called the:
A. Technical Management (TM)
B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
C. Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)
D. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
Answer: C

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NO.2 Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?
A. Services and Infrastructure
B. Applications and Infrastructure
C. Resources and Capabilities
D. Utility and Warranty
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
1) How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
2) What services to offer and to whom?
3) What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
A. 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 are all true
Answer: D

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NO.4 The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
C. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
D. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
Answer: C

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NO.5 In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability
Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?
A. Service Transition
B. Service Design
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Operation
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts?
A. Service Catalogue Manager
B. IT Designer/Architect
C. Process Manager
D. Supplier Manager
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases
(CMDB)
B. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
C. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?
A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
B. Menu-driven range of self help and service requests
C. Web front-end
D. A direct interface into the back end process handling software
Answer: A

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2014年5月28日星期三

A2040-403 Exam Cost, LOT-983 Test Answers

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A2040-403Exam Code: A2040-403
Exam Name: IBM Forms 8.0 - Form Design and Development
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LOT-983Exam Code: LOT-983
Exam Name: IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8.5 Managing Servers and Users
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NO.1 When creating a field that can change its height based on the amount of data it contains,
which of
the following should occur?
A. The field should also be able to change width dynamically.
B. Items that appear below the field on the page should come after it in the build order.
C. Items that appear below the field should be relatively positioned so that they move up or down
as the field changes size.
D. Items that appear below the field on the page should come after it in the build order, and should
be relativelypositioned so that they move upor down as the field changes size.
Answer: D

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NO.2 When calling one of the functions contained within the Viewer IFX, all of the following
statements
are true EXCEPT which one?
A. You must add the 'viewer' prefix to the function call.
B. Viewer functions only work when using the Viewer.
C. There is a function within the Viewer IFX to display a message box.
D. Viewer functions can be called from XForms actions.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Jane is designing a form with three pages. Pages one and two are built with a wizard style
interface, and page three is meant only for printing. How can Jane setup her form so that when
the form is printed, only page three prints?
A. Jane should only put a print button on page three, then it will be the only one that shows up
when the form is printed.
B. Jane must break up her form into two separate forms: one for the wizard and one for printing.
C. Jane can set theprint settingsproperty of page three to 'on', andprint settingsproperty for pages
one and two to 'off'.
D. Jane would create a "keep" filter, specifying page three as the only page to print.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Where can spell checking for the Designer be enabled or disabled?
A. In the Spell Check section of the Forms Designer heading in the Preferences.
B. On the file system, by removing or replacing the dictionary files in the Designer's install folder.
C. In the global form properties dialog.
D. From the Preferences dialog opened from the Viewer's toolbar.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A developer is working in IBM Forms Designer using the Standard IBM Forms perspective.
Which
of the following statements is TRUE?
A. XForms model information is always generated automatically in the background.
B. The form cannot contain an XForms model.
C. The developer should switch to the Advanced perspective to add an XForms data model.
D. XForms model information is generated automatically unless the developer indicated the form
should not contain a data model.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which statement below best describes XFDL functions?
A. XFDL functions provide a way to perform complex calculations.
B. XFDL functions can be extended via User-Defined functions.
C. XFDL functions provide out-of-the-box functionality via two packages: viewer and system.
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.7 How is an XForms submission handled by the Translator Server?
A. The Client's Browser sends the XForms submission as XML directly to the submission URL.
B. The Client's Browser sends the XForms submission as HTML directly to the submission URL.
C. The Translator Server sends the XForms submission as XML directly to the submission URL.
D. The Translator Server sends the XForms submission as HTML directly to the submission URL.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is the default namespace prefix for an IBM Form?
A. xmlns:xforms
B. xmlns:default
C. xmlns:custom
D. xmlns:xfdl
Answer: D

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C2020-706Exam Code: C2020-706
Exam Name: IBM Cognos Financial Statement Reporting Developer
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C2040-913Exam Code: C2040-913
Exam Name: Developing Websites with IBM Lotus Web Content Mgmt 7.0
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A2090-463Exam Code: A2090-463
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM InfoSphere Guardium
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NO.1 What is a disadvantage of using S-TAP terminate action in the policy (and related functionality)
over S-GATE terminate?
A. There is a need to install the S-TAP agent on the database server and as a result it's harder to
deploy.
B. Additionally licensed feature needs to be installed and as a result there is additional cost
associated with this functionality.
C. The decision to terminate is done by S-TAP and as a result it has significant negative impact on
database server performance.
D. The violation activity will start bringing results from the database before the connection is
terminated and as a result data leakage is possible.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which mechanism is used to intercept DB2 and Informix shared memory traffic on all UNIX
platforms except Linux?
A. TEE
B. PCAP
C. A-TAP
D. K-TAP
Answer: D

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NO.3 When configuring S-TAP on Solaris Zones or AIX WPARs, what is the correct way to configure
the
connect_to_ip parameter in the Inspection Engines?
A. connect_to_ip = 127.0.0.1
B. connect_to_ip = 1.1.1.1 / 0.0.0.0
C. connect_to_ip = <IP address of local zone>
D. connect_to_ip = <IP address of global zone>
Answer: C

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NO.4 With Guardium version 8.x "S-TAP for z" monitoring a single DB2 instance on z/OS, which
statement is true?
A. There is typically 1 started task running on z:
ADHSPAGT = Agent
B. There are typically 2 started tasks running on z:
ADHCXXXX = Collector
ADHSPSRV = Server
C. There are typically 3 started tasks running on z:
ADHMXXXX = Master
ADHSPAGT = Agent
ADHSPSRV = Server
D. There are typically 4 started tasks running on z:
ADHCXXXX = Collector
ADHMXXXX = Master
ADHSPAGT = Agent
ADHSPSRV = Server
Answer: D

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NO.5 The policy has an extrusion rule with action of 'Log Extrusion Counter' when a credit card
number
is returned by the query. The inspection engine is configured with:
Query 'select credit_card from TABLE1 where customer_id in (1,2,3);' returns a total of 120
records with 10 credit cards returned in each network packet. What is expected result for
SUM(Returned Data Count) from Full SQL domain for this query?
A. 0
B. 12
C. 74
D. 120
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the purpose of K-TAP flex load in Linux installations?
A. Allows upgrade of the K-TAP module without requiring a reboot of the host operating system.
B. Give the system administrator the ability to stop traffic interception by manually unloading the
K-TAP module.
C. Allows installation of K-TAP module with closest match in cases where an exact kernel match is
not available.
D. Allows the system administrator to upgrade the K-TAP module directly from GIM interface on
Central Manager.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which storage type requires a dsm.sys file to be uploaded to the Guardium appliance?
A. SCP
B. TSM
C. SFTP
D. CENTERA
Answer: B

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NO.8 How does Application End User Translation determine the correct application user?
A. Uses Client MAC Address to determine Client IP .
B. Imports LDAP and matches Client IP address with Application User name.
C. Guesses the correct application user by comparing session time to / from the database server.
D. Integrates with Enterprise Business Application to deterministically capture application user
name.
Answer: D

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NO.1 An administrator has been asked to create a queue manager alias for QM1 to be used
for
communication
between remote queue managers.
What MQSC command will create the queue manager alias?
A. DEF QR(QM1.ALIAS) RNAME('Q1') RQMNAME(' ') XMITQ(QM1)
B. DEF QR(QM1.ALIAS) RNAME(' ') RQMNAME(QM1) XMITQ(QM1)
C. DEF QR(QM1.ALIAS) RNAME('Q1') RQMNAME(QM1) XMITQ(' ')
D. DEF QL(QM1.ALIAS) RQMNAME(QM1)
Answer: B

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NO.2 An administrator will install IBM WebSphere MQ on an AIX platform. There is a
requirement to
configure
the installation to store the queue managers data files under a directory tree different from
the default
specified by the installation.
After creating the appropriate directory tree, the administrator should:
A. specify the file location using the -ld option when running the crtmqm command.
B. add an entry for the variable MQSPREFIX in /var/mqm/service.env before running the
crtmqm
command.
C. edit /var/mqm/mqs.ini to specify LogDefaultPath in the LogDefaults stanza before running
the crtmqm
command.
D. edit /var/mqm/mqs.ini to specify DefaultPrefix in the AllQueueManagers stanza before
running the
crtmqm command.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which features of IBM WebSphere MQ specifically provide robust message transport?
A. Data integrity, security, parallel processing
B. Asynchronous delivery, once and once-only delivery, persistent messaging
C. Time independence, no duplicate delivery, synchronous processing
D. Assured delivery, application parallelism, time dependent applications
Answer: B

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NO.4 A legacy application uses MQPUT to send messages to a queue INV. Which set of
MQSC commands
below will successfully configure the queue manager so that a number of
JMS applications can receive these messages by subscribing to topic
Inventory/CurrentItems?
A. DEFINE TOPIC(INV_TOPIC) + TOPICSTR(Inventory/CurrentItems)DEFINE QALIAS(INV)
TARGET(INV_TOPIC) TARGTYPE(TOPIC)
B. DEFINE TOPIC(INV_TOPIC) + TOPICSTR(Inventory/CurrentItems)DEFINE TALIAS(INV)
TARGET(INV_TOPIC) TARGTYPE(TOPIC)
C. DEFINE TOPIC (INV_TOPIC) + TOPICSTR(Inventory/CurrentItems) QALIAS(INV)
D. DEFINE QALIAS(INV) TARGET(Inventory/CurrentItems) + TARGTYPE(TOPIC)
Answer: A

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NO.5 An administrator has been asked to determine which files are needed to restart a
queue manager
configured with linear logging.
Which of the following MQSC commands will determine which log files are still required?
A. DISPLAY QMGR
B. DISPLAY QMSTATUS
C. DISPLAY QMSTATUS ALL
D. DISPLAY QMGR RESTART
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following are performance enhancements to the Java Message Service
provider
implementation in IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0?
A. Read Ahead
B. Support for channel exits written in C/C++
C. Asynchronous Put
D. Message selection performed by Queue Manager
E. Ability to access all MQMD fields for IBM WebSphere MQ messages.
Answer: ACD

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NO.7 A company running IBM WebSphere MQ V5.3 on UNIX upgraded to IBM WebSphere
MQ V7.0.
Immediately after the migration, what is the administrator expected to do?
Start the:
A. MQSeries service
B. queue manager and listener simultaneously
C. queue manager before starting the listener
D. listener before starting the queue manager
Answer: C

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NO.8 An administrator has created a queue manager on AIX system A, using the command
crtmqm ll QMA.
What command will create a backup queue manager for QMA on AIX system B?
A. crtmqm ll QMB
B. crtmqm ll QMA
C. crtmqm lb QMA
D. crtmqm ll backup QMA
Answer: B

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NO.1 You can use the Admin Console to add, remove, start, stop, or restart cubes.
For which other purpose can the Admin Console be used?
A. to rebuild a cubes member cache
B. to empty the member cache for a cube
C. to populate the member cache using a specified MDX query
D. to delete the files on the file system that are holding the member cache data
Answer: A

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NO.2 If you roll-in daily and roll-out monthly, which approach reduces the number of table
partitions and
eases the DBA administrative tasks?
A. Specify a MDC on day and a table partition key for day.
B. Specify a MDC on day and a table partition key for month.
C. Specify a MDC on month and a table partition key for month.
D. Specify a MDC on month and a table partition key for day.
Answer: B

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NO.3 When connecting an Output Port of a Table Source to the Names Port of a Sequences
Operator, what
are two valid methods of mapping columns? (Choose two.)
A. by Name
B. by Index
C. by Position
D. by Attribute
E. by Key
Answer: AC

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NO.4 What does a Data Design Project within Design Studio contain?
A. physical data model
B. SQW work flows
C. data mining flows
D. logical data model
Answer: A

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NO.5 A control flow requires the use of a variable that seldom changes after deployment.
Which phase should be considered?
A. EXECUTION_INSTANCE
B. DEPLOYMENT
C. DEPLOYMENT_PREP
D. RUNTIME
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which two tools should an InfoSphere Warehouse developer use to perform SQL
Warehousing
design tasks? (Choose two.)
A. WebSphere Administration Console
B. InfoSphere Warehouse Design Studio
C. InfoSphere Warehouse Admin Console
D. SQL Warehousing Tool
E. IBM Data Studio
Answer: BD

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NO.7 What is a benefit of using warehouse based analytics?
A. It provides more functions in the available calculation set.
B. It ensures the user response time will always be fast.
C. It provides end users the ability to add additional calculations at report time.
D. It provides a common pool of analytic methods to produce consistent answers across all
users.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which statement is true about Rational Data Architect (RDA) integration with the
Design Studio for data
modeling?
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B. The full RDA can be installed into the Design Studio platform for logical and physical data
modeling.
C. Design Studio includes the physical data modeling component to help you implement your
physical
model.
D. Design Studio is based on IBM Data Server Developer Workbench and a full set of RDA
components.
Answer: C

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NO.1 Anja's security department wishes to block users from clicking any URLs in Lotus Quickr that relate to
FTP. They have asked you to restrict this ability. In which of the following locations should you make this
modification?
A.Verify_protocol_string
B.Allowed_protocol_values
C.URLfield_protocol_filter
D.Closed_URLprotocol_access
Answer:C

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NO.2 By default, the server logs errors related to the use of expanded membership to which of the following
locations for troubleshooting assistance?
A.The Lotus Domino log
B.Membership_logging.xml
C.The Site Administration log
D.The Lotus Quickr administration log
Answer:A

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NO.3 Your organization implemented Lotus Domino before adding Lotus Quickr. Your user names appear as:
FirstName LastName/ou=Chicago/ou=Sales/ou=NA/o=ACME Which of the following will be the result
when these users are added to Lotus Quickr?
A.Users with the above format will be unable to authenticate
B.Users with the above format will appear as FirstName LastName/o=ACME
C.Users with the above format will appear as FirstName LastName/ou=Chicago/ou=Sales
D.Users with the above format will appear as FirstName LastName/ou=Chicago/ou=Sales/ou=NA
Answer:A

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NO.4 In your Lotus Quickr environment, Lotus Quickr has been configured to control directory services. You
have encountered two users with the same name when adding a new LDAP source. Which of the
following is true regarding this scenario?
A.Only one of the names can be added to a place as a member
B.Neither name may be added to the place until the conflict is resolved
C.Both names may be added to the place but only the first listed may authenticate
D.Both names may be added to the place, and both users may authenticate because they are in alternate
directories
Answer:A

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NO.5 Nathaniel has implemented cross-place searching as manager of numerous places in Lotus Quickr.
This required him to configure Lotus Domino Domain Search and a Domain Catalog server. Where is the
cross-place searching performed once the configurations are complete?
A.The LDAP server that stores the user's credentials
B.The Lotus Quickr server where the places are stored
C.The Lotus Domino server where the user authenticates
D.The Lotus Quickr server running on the Domain Catalog server
Answer:D

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NO.6 Amanda wishes to show Usage Statistics on the Lotus Quickr server. Which of the following must be
enabled for this feature to function?
A.SuperUser
B.Single sign-on
C.Extended membership
D.Lotus Domino controlled directory services
Answer:B

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NO.7 In the Acme Corporation, they want users to utilize only the Web interface for Lotus Quickr. Besides
not providing offline access, what other steps must be taken to restrict the use of Lotus Quickr Connectors?
A.Disable Web services
B.Disable extended membership
C.Disable multi-server sign-on
D.Disable HTTP on the Lotus Domino server
Answer:A

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NO.8 The Marble Corporation has proceeded to upgrade to Lotus Quickr 8.x from a previous version. Multiple
places are being upgraded on the server at the same time to expedite the process. By default, which of
the following is true during this upgrade of the places?
A.Only one place is locked at a time
B.All places being upgraded are locked
C.The entire server is available during the upgrade
D.The entire server is locked during the places upgrade
Answer:A

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