2013年8月31日星期六

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Exam Code: 650-368
Exam Name: Cisco (PSACAFE Advanced Collaboration Architecture Field Engineer Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Security plays essential role in the Cisco Collaboration Architecture. In which layers of the Cisco
Collaboration Architecture is security implemented?
A. Advanced Cisco security solutions are implemented in all layers of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture
model.
B. Cisco security solutions are integrated into the infrastructure layers and partially into the collaboration
services layer.
C. Security is implemented in all the layers except in the medianet services interface layer.
D. Cisco provides advanced security solutions in the infrastructure and collaboration services layers while
the collaboration applications layers security ensured by third-party solutions.
Answer: D

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NO.2 In which of the following verticals is the Cisco VXI solution most successful?
A. manufacturing and retail
B. healthcare and retail
C. retail and financial
D. public and financial
E. public and manufacturing
Answer: A

Cisco   650-368   650-368

NO.3 Which two of the following selling propositions establish the market differentiator of a Cisco partner
business.? (Choose two.)
A. market niche
B. lowest prices
C. unique services
D. widest range of technologies covered
E. highest cost of value-added services
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 Which Cisco collaboration functions are significantly improved by introducing jabber technology?
(Choose two.)
A. messaging
B. presence
C. social networking software
D. conferencing
E. IP communications
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Which statement best describes medianet?
A. Medianet is the network infrastructure layer of video networks.
B. Medianet enables Cisco collaboration network management.
C. Medianet enables integration of video infrastructure with network infrastructure.
D. Medianet is an intelligent network that is optimized for rich media.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 650-157
Exam Name: Cisco (ISIES Cisco IronPort Security Instructor – Security)
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NO.1 Which one of the following menus is used to set the Max. Invalid Recipients Per Hour?
A. HAT Sender Groups
B. LDAP Accept Profile
C. Mail Flow Policies
D. Sender Groups in the HAT
Answer: C

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NO.2 An un-configured C-Series has a duplicate IP address assigned to its management interface.
Which of the following instructor desktop applications will you use to fix the problem?
A. Vsphere Client
B. Putty Client
C. Web browser
D. Terminal Services Manager
Answer: A

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NO.3 How would you configure the Recipient Access Table to accept all subdomains and the root
domain mydomain.com?
A. One entry: mydomain.com
B. Two entries: mydomain.com and '.mydomain.com
C. Two entries: mydomain.com and .mydomain.com
D. One entry: "mydomain.com
Answer: C

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NO.4 An enterprise has two email domains but only one is covered by their LDAP directory. Of the
following, which is the best method to address this?
A. Disable LDAP verification in the HAT
B. Remove LDAP Acceptance from the incoming listener
C. Create a mail policy for this domain that skips LDAP Accept checks.
D. Configure Bypass LDAP Accept in the RAT
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the: following devices cannot support NIC Pairing?
A. X1060
B. C360 and C160
C. C660
D. C160
Answer: D

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NO.6 IPAS is enabled for all inbound mail but you want to bypass Spam checking for messages from
cisco.com. Which three methods will do this? (Choose three.)
A. Create an incoming mail policy to match on @cisco.com and disable IPAS.
B. Create a message filter to bypass Spam checkingforCisco.com.
C. Create a content filter to bypass Spam checking for Cisco.com.
D. Create a Mail Flow Policy for Sender Cisco.com and disable IPAS.
E. Add the IP addresses of the sending the sending mail serversofcisco.com to the White list.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.7 What is the difference between the ACCEPT and RELAY action in the Mail Flow Policy?
A. ACCEPT will allow the email in and handle it as an outbound message, RELAY will accept the
email and handle it as an inbound message.
B. ACCEPT will allow the email in and handle it as an inbound message, RELAY will accept the
email but skip the RAT and handle it as an outbound message.
C. ACCEPT will allow the email in and handle it as an inbound message, RELAY won't accept the
email unless configured in the RAT.
D. ACCEPT will allow the email in and handle it as outbound and skip the RAT, RELAY will accept
the email and handle it as inbound.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which one of the following commands is the "Administrator Role" restricted from exercising?
A. upgrade
B. shutdown
C. suspend
D. reload
Answer: A

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NO.9 In the default settings, which of the following sender groups will match on a reputation score of+2?
A. BLACKLIST
B. WHITEUST
C. SUSPECTLIST
D. RELAYL1ST
E. UNKNOWNUST
Answer: E

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NO.10 Select two filters that come directly before and after the content filter in the email pipeline.
A. Message Filter
B. Reputation Filter
C. Anti-Spam
D. Outbreak Filters
E. Anti-Virus
F. RSA DLP
Answer: D,E

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Exam Code: 650-256
Exam Name: Cisco (SBF for Account Managers)
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NO.1 Where is the Cisco OnPlus Network Agent appliance installed?
A. Cisco-hosted data center
B. customer premises
C. partner location
D. third-party data center
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two key purchase decision factors are most important to a target customer considering the Cisco
Unified Communications 300 Series? (Choose two.)
A. bandwidth
B. cost
C. customization
D. scalability
E. service
Answer: B,E

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NO.3 If a business has a subscription to the WebEx Meeting Center small business offering what is the
maximum number of participants a host can invite to a WebEx meeting?
A. 5
B. 15
C. 25
D. 50
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which three questions might an Account Manager use to start a conversation about network security
risks to a small business customer? (Choose three.)
A. Have you ever had a problem with employee theft of product?
B. Have you had a security problem or been compromised in the past?
C. Have physical security measures been put in place on your premises?
D. How are you currently protecting against viruses malware and web threats?
E. How concerned are you about e-commerce fraud and web security certificates?
F. How do you ensure that all PCs and servers are continuously protected?
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.5 Where can a partner who subscribes to the Cisco OnPlus Service find enablement roadmaps and tips
for monetizing the Cisco OnPlus Service?
A. Cisco OnPlus Community
B. Cisco OnPlus Service Portal
C. Cisco OnPlus Service ROI Tool
D. Cisco OnPlus Service Practice Development
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which term best describes the Cisco OnPlus offering?
A. architecture-based
B. cloud-based
C. resource-based
D. server-based
Answer: B

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NO.7 With the appropriate WAN access connectivity services, which Cisco ISR G2 router series can support
100 concurrent rich media collaboration sessions?
A. Cisco 2911
B. Cisco 2921
C. Cisco 2951
D. Cisco 3925
Answer: D

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NO.8 True stacking means that you can configure, troubleshoot, and manage a group of switches as a single
entity. Which Cisco switches ate stackable up to 8 units or 192 ports.?
A. Cisco 300 Series
B. Cisco Catalysts 2960-S
C. Series Cisco SFE/SGE Switches
D. Cisco Catalyst 3560 Series
Answer: C

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NO.9 What are the three main pillars of the Cisco One Product Portfolio for small business customers?
A. collaborate, simplify, virtualize
B. communicate, share, unify
C. connect, secure, communicate
D. converge, connect secure
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which Cisco Integrated Services Routers are fixed-configuration platforms?
A. Cisco 800 ISR Series
B. Cisco 1900 ISR Series
C. Cisco 2900 ISR Series
D. Cisco 3900 ISR Series
Answer: A

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NO.1 Refer to the exhibit.
Company 1 has merged with Company 2. Company 1 is using RIPv2 as its IGP and Company 2 is using
EIGRP as its IGP. EIGRP also is running between R1 and R2 over the WAN link.
Which action must be taken to allow these two configurations?
The Company 1 RIP routes appear as external EIGRP routes within Company 2.
The Company 2 EIGRP routes appear as RIPv2 routes within Company 1.
A. Enable RIPv2 on the R2 router.
B. Enable RIPv2 on the R2 router and on all internal routers of Company 2. Enable EIGRP on all internal
routers of Company 1.
C. Configure mutual route redistribution between RIPv2 and EIGRP on the R1 and R2 routers.
D. Configure mutual route redistribution between RIPv2 and EIGRP on the R1 router.
E. Configure mutual route redistribution between RIPv2 and EIGRP on the R2 router.
Answer: D

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NO.2 If a bridge port is in the non-designated state, which two statements about spanning-tree operations on
this port are true? (Choose two.)
A. This port is in the Forwarding state.
B. This port sends BPDUs on the attached link.
C. This port has the lowest cost to the root bridge.
D. This port is considered the root port.
E. This port receives BPDUs.
F. This port is in the Blocked state.
Answer: EF

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NO.3 With IPv6, for which purpose are router solicitation and router advertisement used?
A. routing protocol updates
B. routing protocol neighbor peerings
C. router and prefix discovery
D. Layer 3 to Layer 2 address resolution (similar to IPv4 ARP)
Answer: C

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NO.4 Given the IP address 10.106.170.145 255.248.0.0, which three options are the subnet that this IP
address belongs to, the host IP address range on this subnet, and the subnet broadcast IP
address?(Choose three.)
A. subnet = 10.104.0.0/13
B. subnet = 10.106.0.0/13
C. subnet = 10.112.0.0/13
D. host IP address range = 10.104.0.1 to 10.111.255.254
E. host IP address range = 10.106.0.1 to 10.106.255.254
F. host IP address range = 10.106.0.1 to 10.119.255.254
G. subnet broadcast IP address = 10.106.255.255
H. subnet broadcast IP address = 10.111.255.255
I. subnet broadcast IP address = 10.119.255.255
Answer: ADH

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NO.5 Refer to the exhibit.
Given the Class C IP network of 192.168.1.0, using VLSM, which five subnets meet the requirements in
the exhibit? (Choose five.)
A. 192.168.1.0/27
B. 192.168.1.32/27
C. 192.168.1.48/27
D. 192.168.1.48/28
E. 192.168.1.64/28
F. 192.168.1.80/28
G. 192.168.1.80/29
H. 192.168.1.88/30
I. 192.168.1.96/30
Answer: ABEFI

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NO.6 Given the IP address of 209.168.200.155/27, which two options are the subnet that this IP address
belongs to and the subnet broadcast IP address? (Choose two.)
A. 209.168.200.64 255.255.255.224
B. 209.168.200.96 255.255.255.224
C. 209.168.200.128 255.255.255.224
D. 209.168.200.95
E. 209.168.200.127
F. 209.168.200.159
Answer: CF

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NO.7 Which three physical lines can provide local or remote access to a Cisco router or switch? (Choose
three.)
A. console port
B. modem port
C. virtual terminal lines
D. switch fabric interface
E. aux port
F. managementEthernet0/RSP0/CPU0/0
Answer: AEF

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NO.8 Which two statements about IPv4 DHCP operations are true? (Choose two.)
A. If the DHCP clients and servers are on the same subnet, DHCP uses UDP broadcasts to communicate
between the clients and servers.
B. The DHCP server that receives a DHCPDISCOVER message may respond with a DHCPOFFER
message on UDP port 67.
C. A client can receive DHCPOFFER from multiple servers and it can accept all the offers by broadcasting
the DHCPREQUEST message to all the servers.
D. A DHCP relay is required if the DHCP clients and the servers are on the same subnet.
E. If the client and server are on different subnets, DHCPDISCOVER and DHCPREQUEST messages
are sent via UDP broadcasts, but DHCPOFFER and DHCPACK messages are unicast.
F. The client broadcasts a DHCPDISCOVER message on UDP port 68 with its own MAC address to
discover available DHCP servers.
Answer: AE

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NO.9 When EIGRP is enabled on Cisco IOS XR, which EIGRP feature is on by default?
A. no auto-summary
B. stub routing
C. unequal cost paths load-balancing
D. no ip eigrp split-horizon
E. eigrp authentication
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which Cisco IOS CLI command is used to verify the speed and duplex settings on the Fa0/1 port on a
Cisco switch?
A. show ip interfaces fa0/1
B. show interfaces fa0/1
C. show interfaces fa0/1 switchport
D. show ip interfaces brief
E. show interfaces switchport
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which three statements about the ARP function are true? (Choose three.)
A. ARP is used to determine an IP address.
B. An ARP request is broadcast at Layer 3.
C. An ARP response is broadcast at Layer 2.
D. ARP tables are maintained on Layer 3 devices.
E. The destination MAC address of an ARP request is that of the ARP responder.
F. ARP requests are broadcast at Layer 2.
G. ARP resolves MAC addresses to NET addresses.
H. ARP uses 0x0806 as the Type field in an Ethernet frame.
Answer: DFH

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NO.12 You are having problems browsing to http://www.cisco.com from your laptop that is running Windows.
Your laptop is connected directly to a default gateway, which is a Cisco ISR G2 router. Which four options
are the basic troubleshooting steps that you should use to troubleshoot this issue? (Choose four.)
A. Issue the ipconfig command from the Windows command line on your laptop to determine your laptop
IP address and the default gateway IP address.
B. Issue the ipconfig /all command from the Windows command line on your laptop to determine the DNS
server IP address.
C. Issue the ping {default gateway IP address} command from the Windows command line on your laptop
to verify connectivity to the default gateway.
D. Issue the ping {DNS server IP address} command from the Windows command line on your laptop to
verify connectivity to the DNS server.
E. Issue the ping tcp www.cisco.com 80 command from the Windows command line on your laptop to
verify TCP port 80 connectivity to the www.cisco.com server.
F. From the ISR G2 CLI, issue the ping tcp www.cisco.com 80 command to verify TCP port 80 connectivity
to the www.cisco.com server.
G. From the ISR G2 CLI, issue the ISR-G2#tracert www.cisco.com command to verify connectivity to the
www.cisco.com server.
H. From the ISR G2 CLI, issue the ISR-G2#nslookup www.cisco.com command to determine the IP
address of the www.cisco.com server.
Answer: ABCD

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NO.13 Which statement about IPv6 global unicast addresses is true.?
A. The first 3 bits is 001.
B. The first 4 bits is 0011.
C. The first 4 bits is 1111.
D. The first 16 bits is FE80 in hex.
E. The first 16 bits is FF00 in hex.
F. The first 16 bits is 2002 in hex.
G. The first 16 bits is 3FFE in hex.
Answer: A

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NO.14 This show output is from the S7 Cisco Metro Switch and the PE7 Cisco ASR 9000 Series Router. Which
configuration change(s) is/are needed to bring the S7 FastEthernet 0/2 interface into the up/up state?
S7#show cdp neighbors
<OUTPUT OMITTED>
*Mar 20 21:28:02.177: %ETHCNTR-3-HALF_DUX_COLLISION_EXCEED_THRESHOLD:
Collisions at FastEthernet0/2 exceed threshold. Considered as loop-back.
*Mar 20 21:28:02.177: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: loopback error detected on Fa0/2, putting Fa0/2 in
err-disable state
*Mar 20 21:28:03.184: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/2, changed
state to down
S7#show interface fa0/2
FastEthernet0/2 is down, line protocol is down (err-disabled)
Hardware is Fast Ethernet, address is e8ba.70b5.6c04 (bia e8ba.70b5.6c04)
MTU 1500 bytes, BW 10000 Kbit, DLY 1000 usec,
reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255
Encapsulation ARPA, loopback not set
Keepalive set (10 sec)
Half-duplex, 10Mb/s, media type is 10/100BaseTX
input flow-control is off, output flow-control is unsupported
ARP type: ARPA, ARP Timeout 04:00:00
Last input 00:00:40, output 00:00:00, output hang never
Last clearing of "show interface" counters never
Input queue: 0/75/0/0 (size/max/drops/flushes); Total output drops: 0
Queueing strategy: fifo
Output queue: 0/40 (size/max)
5 minute input rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec
5 minute output rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec
484423 packets input, 39349929 bytes, 0 no buffer
Received 484423 broadcasts (167203 multicasts)
0 runts, 0 giants, 0 throttles
1 input errors, 0 CRC, 0 frame, 0 overrun, 0 ignored
0 watchdog, 167203 multicast, 0 pause input
0 input packets with dribble condition detected
972398 packets output, 128931949 bytes, 0 underruns
0 output errors, 46 collisions, 4 interface resets
0 babbles, 0 late collision, 0 deferred
0 lost carrier, 0 no carrier, 0 PAUSE output
0 output buffer failures, 0 output buffers swapped out
RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:PE7#show interfaces gi0/0/0/0
GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0 is down, line protocol is down
Interface state transitions: 4
Hardware is GigabitEthernet, address is 4055.392f.40a8 (bia 4055.392f.40a8)
Internet address is 192.168.107.70/24
MTU 1514 bytes, BW 100000 Kbit (Max: 100000 Kbit)
reliability 255/255, txload 0/255, rxload 0/255
Encapsulation ARPA,
Full-duplex, 100Mb/s, THD, link type is force-up
output flow control is off, input flow control is off
loopback not set,
ARP type ARPA, ARP timeout 04:00:00
Last input 00:00:00, output 00:00:35
Last clearing of "show interface" counters never
5 minute input rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec
5 minute output rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec
972551 packets input, 128953765 bytes, 729 total input drops
172486 drops for unrecognized upper-level protocol
Received 0 broadcast packets, 800781 multicast packets
0 runts, 0 giants, 0 throttles, 0 parity
0 input errors, 0 CRC, 0 frame, 0 overrun, 0 ignored, 0 abort
484545 packets output, 39360900 bytes, 0 total output drops
Output 317283 broadcast packets, 167262 multicast packets
0 output errors, 0 underruns, 0 applique, 0 resets
0 output buffer failures, 0 output buffers swapped out
4 carrier transitions
A. Enable loopback line on the S7 Fa0/2 interface then shut and no shut the Fa0/2 interface.
B. Enable duplex half on the PE7 Gi0/0/0/0 interface then shut and no shut the Fa0/2 interface on S7.
C. Change S7 Fa0/2 interface to duplex full and speed 100 then shut and no shut the Fa0/2 interface.
D. Just need to no shut the Fa0/2 interface on S7.
E. Just need to shut and no shut the Fa0/2 interface on S7.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which two statements about classful or classless routing protocol operations are true? (Choose two.)
A. Classful routing protocols do not send subnet mask information with their routing updates
B. Variable-length subnet masks are supported when using classful routing protocols.
C. Examples of classless routing protocols include RIPv1, EIGRP, OSPF, and IS-IS.
D. Classful routing protocols do not support discontiguous subnets.
Answer: AD

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Exam Code: 640-554
Exam Name: Cisco (Implementing Cisco IOS Network Security (IINS v2.0))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Which two characteristics of the TACACS+ protocol are true? (Choose two.)
A. uses UDP ports 1645 or 1812
B. separates AAA functions
C. encrypts the body of every packet
D. offers extensive accounting capabilities
E. is an open RFC standard protocol
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 Under which higher-level policy is a VPN security policy categorized?
A. application policy
B. DLP policy
C. remote access policy
D. compliance policy
E. corporate WAN policy
Answer: C

Cisco   640-554 study guide   640-554

NO.3 Which option is a feature of Cisco ScanSafe technology.?
A. spam protection
B. consistent cloud-based policy
C. DDoS protection
D. RSA Email DLP
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which option is the correct representation of the IPv6 address
2001:0000:150C:0000:0000:41B1:45A3:041D?
A. 2001::150c::41b1:45a3:041d
B. 2001:0:150c:0::41b1:45a3:04d1
C. 2001:150c::41b1:45a3::41d
D. 2001:0:150c::41b1:45a3:41d
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which two features are supported by Cisco IronPort Security Gateway? (Choose two.)
A. spam protection
B. outbreak intelligence
C. HTTP and HTTPS scanning
D. email encryption
E. DDoS protection
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement about this output is true?
A. The user logged into the router with the incorrect username and password.
B. The login failed because there was no default enable password.
C. The login failed because the password entered was incorrect.
D. The user logged in and was given privilege level 15.
Answer: C

Cisco   640-554   640-554 questions   640-554

NO.7 Which two characteristics represent a blended threat? (Choose two.)
A. man-in-the-middle attack
B. trojan horse attack
C. pharming attack
D. denial of service attack
E. day zero attack
Answer: B,E

Cisco   640-554   640-554 answers real questions   640-554 test questions   640-554

NO.8 Which type of Cisco ASA access list entry can be configured to match multiple entries in a single
statement?
A. nested object-class
B. class-map
C. extended wildcard matching
D. object groups
Answer: D

Cisco   640-554   640-554   640-554

NO.9 What does level 5 in this enable secret global configuration mode command indicate?
A. router#enable secret level 5 password
B. The enable secret password is hashed using MD5.
C. The enable secret password is hashed using SHA.
D. The enable secret password is encrypted using Cisco proprietary level 5 encryption.
E. Set the enable secret command to privilege level 5.
F. The enable secret password is for accessing exec privilege level 5.
Answer: E

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NO.10 Refer to the exhibit.
What does the option secret 5 in the username global configuration mode command indicate about the
user password?
A. It is hashed using SHA.
B. It is encrypted using DH group 5.
C. It is hashed using MD5.
D. It is encrypted using the service password-encryption command.
E. It is hashed using a proprietary Cisco hashing algorithm.
F. It is encrypted using a proprietary Cisco encryption algorithm.
Answer: C

Cisco exam simulations   640-554   640-554

NO.11 Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement about this partial CLI configuration of an access control list is true?
A. The access list accepts all traffic on the 10.0.0.0 subnets.
B. All traffic from the 10.10.0.0 subnets is denied.
C. Only traffic from 10.10.0.10 is allowed.
D. This configuration is invalid. It should be configured as an extended ACL to permit the associated
wildcard mask.
E. From the 10.10.0.0 subnet, only traffic sourced from 10.10.0.10 is allowed; traffic sourced from the
other 10.0.0.0 subnets also is allowed.
F. The access list permits traffic destined to the 10.10.0.10 host on FastEthernet0/0 from any source.
Answer: E

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NO.12 Which three options are common examples of AAA implementation on Cisco routers? (Choose three.)
A. authenticating remote users who are accessing the corporate LAN through IPsec VPN connections
B. authenticating administrator access to the router console port, auxiliary port, and vty ports
C. implementing PKI to authenticate and authorize IPsec VPN peers using digital certificates
D. tracking Cisco NetFlow accounting statistics
E. securing the router by locking down all unused services
F. performing router commands authorization using TACACS+
Answer: A,B,F

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NO.13 Which Cisco management tool provides the ability to centrally provision all aspects of device
configuration across the Cisco family of security products?
A. Cisco Configuration Professional
B. Security Device Manager
C. Cisco Security Manager
D. Cisco Secure Management Server
Answer: C

Cisco braindump   640-554 exam simulations   640-554   640-554 questions

NO.14 Refer to the exhibit.
Which traffic is permitted by this ACL?
A. TCP traffic sourced from any host in the 172.26.26.8/29 subnet on any port to host 192.168.1.2 port 80
or 443
B. TCP traffic sourced from host 172.26.26.21 on port 80 or 443 to host 192.168.1.2 on any port
C. any TCP traffic sourced from host 172.26.26.30 destined to host 192.168.1.1
D. any TCP traffic sourced from host 172.26.26.20 to host 192.168.1.2
Answer: C

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NO.15 When AAA login authentication is configured on Cisco routers, which two authentication methods
should be used as the final method to ensure that the administrator can still log in to the router in case the
external AAA server fails? (Choose two.)
A. group RADIUS
B. group TACACS+
C. local
D. krb5
E. enable
F. if-authenticated
Answer: C,E

Cisco test   640-554   640-554

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Exam Code: 644-906
Exam Name: Cisco (Implementing and Maintaining Cisco Technologies Using IOS XR )
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NO.1 In order to determine the hardware and firmware revision of a linecard, what is the correct command
that should be invoked?
A. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:CRS-MC#show version
B. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:CRS-MC#show platform
C. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:CRS-MC(admin)#show platform
D. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:CRS-MC#show diagnostic summary
E. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:CRS-MC(admin)#show diag details
Answer: E

Cisco   644-906 original questions   644-906

NO.2 In which mode can you check the power usage of a chassis?
A. in EXEC mode
B. in admin mode
C. in both EXEC and admin mode
D. in ROMMON mode
E. in environmental mode
Answer: B

Cisco   644-906   644-906

NO.3 Refer to the show environmental power-supply command output exhibit.
How much power is the system currently using?
A. 663 W
B. 1150 W
C. 1850 W
D. 6000 W
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the maximum long-term normal operating temperature of the Cisco CRS-1, ASR 9000 Series
Routers, and XR 12000 Series Routers?
A. 40C (104F)
B. 50C (122F)
C. 55C (131F)
D. 65C (149F)
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the cell size of the cells that traverse the switch fabric on the Cisco CRS-3?
A. 128 bytes
B. 136 bytes
C. 144 bytes
D. 200 bytes
E. 288 bytes
Answer: B

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NO.6 Where are client interfaces terminated on the Cisco CRS-3?
A. the modular services card
B. the physical layer interface module(s)
C. the switch fabric interface terminator
D. the Service Processor 40
E. the Service Processor 140
Answer: B

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NO.7 Refer to the exhibit.
If you have ROMMONs and FPDs with the Upg/Dng field marked "Yes" and you ran the upgrade
hw-module fpd all location all command, what did you upgrade?
A. upgraded only the FPD for the cards that the Upg/Dng field marked "Yes"
B. upgraded all of the FPDs on all cards with an FPD regardless of the Upg/Dng field markings C.
upgraded only the FPD and ROMMON for the cards that the Upg/Dng field marked "Yes"
D. upgraded all of the FPDs and ROMMONs on all cards with an FPD or ROMMON regardless of the
Upg/Dng field markings
Answer: C

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NO.8 The Cisco CRS 16-Slot Line Card Chassis Site Planning Guide suggests having 48 inches of clearance
behind the chassis. What would definitely happen to the system if there were only 28 inches of clearance
behind the Cisco CRS 16-Slot Line Card Chassis?
A. The system would overheat due to inadequate airflow.
B. The fabric card could not be exchanged if one failed.
C. The modular services card (MSC) could not be exchanged if one failed.
D. The fan tray could not be exchanged if one failed.
Answer: D

Cisco   644-906   644-906 exam simulations

NO.9 How many planes are there in the Cisco CRS-3 switch fabric?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 7
D. 8
Answer: D

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NO.10 Refer to the show environmental power-supply command output exhibit.
How many additional line cards of the same type that are currently in the system can you safely install and
remain redundant in the worse power usage if there is a power supply failure.?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 648-375
Exam Name: Cisco (Cisco Express Foundation for Systems Engineers (CXFS) Exam)
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Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 What are two of the four key benefits of the ISR platforms? (Choose two)
A. monitoring, analysis, and response
B. investment protection
C. guest access
D. voice and mobility ready
E. storage virtualization
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 What should you do to prevent VLAN hopping?
A. Enable all unused ports and place them into an unused VLAN
B. Set unused access ports to trunking ON
C. Disable some unused ports
D. Disable all unused ports and place them into an unused VLAN
Answer: D

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NO.3 What should you keep in mind when using a midspan PSE?
A. It can be used to deliver PoE over 100BASE-T connections
B. It can implement power delivery only over the spare wires of the copper cabling
C. It defines terminology to describe a port that acts as a PSE to a powered device
D. It states that power can be delivered by an end-point PSE
Answer: B

Cisco   648-375   648-375

NO.4 Which of these is an accurate list of Cisco Lifecycle Services phases?
A. project planning, site assessment, risk assessment, solution selection and acquisition, testing,
and operations
B. analysis, design, deployment, testing, implementation, and production
C. prepare, plan, design, implement, operate, and optimize
D. initiation, planning, analysis, design, development, implementation, operations and
maintenance
E. presales, project planning, development, implementation, operations testing, and operations
sign-off
Answer: C

Cisco   648-375 test questions   648-375

NO.5 Which VMS Security Monitor tool allows you to monitor data for patterns of attacks from one
machine to a list of targets?
A. Advanced Correlation Engine
B. Management Center for CSA
C. CiscoWorks Dashboard
D. Advanced Notification Engine
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the purpose of the Dynamic Configuration Tool?
A. to allow for the mass deployment of devices with minimal configurations
B. to provide an easy way to check for known bugs in IOS releases
C. to determine the correct IOS image to support your modules or blades
D. to test router configurations virtually prior to implementing them in your production network
E. to verify that hardware such as modules are compatible with your chassis
Answer: E

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NO.7 Which of these is a benefit of an integrated security management system?
A. It provides configuration, monitoring, and troubleshooting capabilities across a wide range of
security products.
B. It leverages existing network management systems such as HP OpenView to lower the cost of
implementation.
C. It integrates security management capabilities into the router or switch.
D. It integrates security device management products and collects events on an "as needed" basis
to reduce management overhead.
E. It provides a single point of contact for all security configuration tasks thereby enhancing the
return on investment.
Answer: A

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NO.8 What should you keep in mind when working with antennas?
A. Antennas can be used as transmit and receive antennas on the same radio
B. All antennas broadcast the horizontal plane
C. Isotropic antennas broadcast equally in all directions
D. An antennas that converts electrical energy into RF waves is called a receive antenna
Answer: C

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NO.9 In the plan phase, network readiness assessment addresses the optimal technologies for
supporting its business requirements and objectives
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

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NO.10 You are working with a company that has an infrastructure based on lightweight access points
using the advanced feature set. A new security requirement demands real-time asset tracking for
800 assets. Which product or solution will provide this function?
A. Wireless Control System
B. Wireless Location Appliance
C. Wireless LAN Solution Engine
D. Wireless LAN Services Module
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 642-384J
Exam Name: Cisco (Cisco Express Foundation Field Specialist (642-384日本語版))
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Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 四方八方のカバ レッジが必要とされるとき、 どのタイプのアンテナが使用されますか。
A. 指向
B. 双方向
C. 全方向性
D. パッチ
Answer: C

Cisco   642-384J   642-384J

NO.2 ワイヤレス ・ ドメイン・ サービスを 実 行するとき、どの二 つ の文は自主的なアク セ ス
・ ポイント を使用し て セットされ る無線中 心 的な特徴に ついて記 述 しますか。 (2 つ選択 し
てください。 )
A. レイヤ 2 とレイヤ 3 サービスは、Cisco Aironet の自律 AP または シスコのサービス統合型
ルータで設定することができる。
B. レイヤ 2 サービスは、Cisco Aironet の自 律 AP またはシスコのサービス統合型ルータで設
定することができる。
C. レイヤ 2 およびレイヤ 3 サービスは、Cisco Aironet の自律 AP ま たはコントローラで設定
することができる。
D. レイヤ 3 サービス は、WLSM で構成されることができる。
E. レイヤ 3 サービスは、WLSE で構成されることができる。
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 ポートのどのコ ンビネーションがシスコ SPA 8800 声ゲート ウェイで利用可能ですか。
A. 1 つのステーション ・ ポートと 1 つのトランク ・ ポート(1xFXS and 1xFXO)
B. 2 つのステーション ・ ポート (2xFXS)
C. 4 つのステーション ・ ポートと 4 つのトランク ・ ポート(4xFXS and 4xFXO)
D. 8 つのステーション ・ ポート 8xFXS)
Answer: C

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NO.4 シスコ SR 500 フ ァミリーは、 どの三つの WAN 技術をサポートしますか。 (3 つ選択し
てください。 )
A. ファーストイーサネット
B. ファイバーチ ャネ ル
C. ADSL
D. T1
E. IPv6
F. SIP トランキング
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.5 中間の配布フレームを使用すること の 2 つの利点は何で すか。 (2 つ選択して くださ
い。 )
A. パワー ・ オーバー・ イーサネット能力
B. より高い RU 密度
C. 減少されたスペー ス
D. ホットスワップ可 能なハードディスクドライブ
E. 減らされたケーブル
Answer: C,E

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Exam Code: 156-210
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point CCSA NG)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Which critical files and directories need to be backed up? Choose three
A. $FWDIR/conf directory
B. rulebase_5_0.fws
C. objects_5_0.c
D. $CPDIR/temp directory
E. $FWDIR/state directory
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.2 What function does the Active mode of SmartView Tracker perform?
A. It displays the active Security Policy.
B. It displays active Security Administrators currently logged into a SmartCenter Server.
C. It displays current active connections traversing Enforcement Modules.
D. It displays the current log file, as it is stored on a SmartCenter Server.
E. It displays only current connections between VPN-1/FireWall-1 modules.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following statements about Client Authentication is FALSE?
A. In contrast to User Authentication that allows access per user. Client Authentication
allows access per IP address.
B. Client Authentication is more secure than User Authentication, because it allows
multiple users and connections from an authorized IP address or host.
C. Client Authentication enables Security Administrators to grant access privileges to a
specific IP address, after successful authentication.
D. Authentication is by user name and password, but it is the host machine (client) that is
granted access.
E. Client Authentication is not restricted to a limited set of protocols.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You are a Security Administrator preparing to implement Hide NAT. You must
justify your decision. Which of the following statements justifies implementing a
Hide NAT solution? Choose two.
A. You have more internal hosts than public IP addresses
B. Your organization requires internal hosts, with RFC 1918-compliant addresses to be
assessable from the Internet.
C. Internally, your organization uses an RFC 1918-compliant addressing scheme.
D. Your organization does not allow internal hosts to access Internet resources
E. Internally, you have more public IP addresses than hosts.
Answer: A, C

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NO.5 Once you have installed Secure Internal Communcations (SIC) for a host-node
object and issued a certificate for it. Which of the following can you perform?
Choose two.
A. Rename the object
B. Rename the certificate
C. Edit the object properties
D. Rest SIC
E. Edit the object type
Answer: A, C

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NO.6 You are a Security Administrator attempting to license a distributed
VPN-1/Firewall-1 configuration with three Enforcement Modules and one
SmartCenter Server. Which of the following must be considered when licensing the
deployment? Choose two.
A. Local licenses are IP specific.
B. A license can be installed and removed on a VPN-1/Firewall-1 version 4.1, using
SmartUpdate.
C. You must contact Check Point via E-mail or telephone to create a license for an
Enforcement Module.
D. Licenses cannot be installed through SmartUpdate.
E. Licenses are obtained through the Check Point User Center
Answer: A, E

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NO.7 Check Point's NG with Application Intelligence protects against Network and
Transport layer attacks by: (Choose two)
A. Preventing protocol-anomaly detection-
B. Allowing IP fragmentation-
C. Preventing validation of compliance to standards.
D. Preventing non-TCP denial-of-service attacks, and port scanning.
E. Preventing malicious manipulation of Network Layer protocols.
Answer: D, E

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NO.8 Which of the following is NOT a security benefit of Check Point's Secure Internal
Communications (SIC)?
A. Generates VPN certificates for IKE clients.
B. Allows the Security Administrator to confirm that the Security Policy on an
Enforcement Module came from an authorized Management Server.
C. Confirms that a SmartConsole is authorized to connect a SmartCenter Server
D. Uses SSL for data encryption.
E. Maintains data privacy and integrity.
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-210   156-210   156-210 original questions

NO.9 Which of the following suggestions regarding Security Policies will NOT improve
performance?
A. If most incoming connections are HTTP, but the rule that accepts HTTP at the bottom
of the Rule Base, before the Cleanup Rule
B. Use a network object, instead of multiple host-node objects.
C. Do not log unnecessary connections.
D. Keep the Rule Base simple.
E. Use IP address-range objects in rules, instead of a set of host-node objects.
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-210   156-210   156-210 original questions

NO.10 Which of the following characteristics BEST describes the behaviour of Check Point
NG with Application Intelligence?
A. Traffic not expressly permitted is prohibited.
B. All traffic is expressly permitted by explicit rules.
C. Secure connections are authorized by default. Unsecured connectdions are not.
D. Traffic is filtered using controlled ports.
E. TELNET, HTTP; and SMTP are allowed by default.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following locations is Static NAT processed by the Enforcement
Module on packets from an external source to an internal statically translated host?
Static NAT occurs.
A. After the inbound kernel, and before routing.
B. After the outbound kernel, and before routing.
C. After the inbound kernel, and aftter routing.
D. Before the inbound kernel, and after routing.
E. Before the outbound kernel, and before routing.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Hidden (or masked) rules are used to:
A. Hide rules from administrators with lower privileges.
B. View only a few rules, without distraction of others.
C. Temporarily disable rules, without having to reinstall the Security Policy.
D. Temporarily convert specifically defined rules to implied rules.
E. Delete rules, without having to reinstall the Security Policy.
Answer: B

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NO.13 You are importing product data from modules, during a VPN-1/Firwall-1
Enforcement Module upgrade. Which of the following statements are true? Choose
two.
A. Upgrading a single Enforcement Module is recommended by Check Point, since there
is no chance of mismatch between installed product versions.
B. SmartUpdate queries license information, from the SmartConsole runging locally on the Enforcement
Module.
C. SmartUpdate queries the SmartCenter Server and Enforcement Module for product
information.
D. If SmartDashboard and all SmartConsoles must be open during input, otherwise the
product-data retrieval process will fail
Answer: A, C

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NO.14 What function does the Audit mode of SmartView Tracker perform?
A. It tracks detailed information about packets traversing the Enforcement Modules.
B. It maintains a detailed log of problems with VPN-1/FireWall-1 services on the
SmartCenter Server.
C. It is used to maintain a record of the status of each Enforcement Module and
SmartCenter server.
D. It maintains a detailed record of status of each Enforcement Module and SmartCenter
Server.
E. It tracks changes and Security Policy installations, per Security Administrator,
performed in SmartDashboard.
Answer: E

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NO.15 You are a Security Administrator attempting to license a distributed
VPN-1/Firwall-1 configuration with three Enforcement Modules and one
SmartCenter Server. Which license type is the BEST for your deployemenet?
A. Discretionary
B. Remote
C. Central
D. Local
E. Mandatory
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-210   156-210   156-210   156-210 exam

NO.16 What are the advantages of central licensing? Choose three.
A. Only the IP address of a SmartCenter Server is needed for all licences.
B. A central licence can be removed from one Enforcement Module, and installe don
another Enforcement Module.
C. Only the IP address of an Enforcement Module is needed for all licences.
D. A central license remains valid, when you change the IP address of an Enforcemente
Module.
E. A central license can be converted into a local license.
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.17 You are a Security Administrator preparing to implement an address translation
solution for Certkiller .com.
The solution you choose must meet the following requirements:
1. RFC 1918-compliant internal addresses must be translated to public, external
addresses when packets exit the Enforcement Module.
2. Public, external addresses must be translated to internal, RFC 1918-compliant
addresses when packets enter the Enforcement Module.
Which address translation solution BEST meets your requirements?
A. Hide NAT
B. The requirements cannot be met with any address translation solution.
C. Dynamic NAT
D. IP Pool Nat
E. Static NAT
Answer: E

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NO.18 You have created a rule that requires users to be authenticated, when connecting to
the Internet using HTTP. Which is the BEST authentication method for users who
must use specific computers for Internet access?
A. Client
B. Session
C. User
Answer: A

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NO.19 Network attacks attempt to exploit vulnerabilities in network applications, rather
than targeting firewalls directly.
What does this require of today's firewalls?
A. Firewalls should provide network-level protection, by inspecting packets all layers of
the OSI model.
B. Firewall should not inspect traffic below the Application Layer of the OSI model,
because such inspection is no longer relevant.
C. Firewalls should understand application behavior, to protect against application
attacks and hazards.
D. Firewalls should provide separate proxy processes for each application accessed
through the firewall.
E. Firewalls should be installed on all Web servers, behind organizations' intranet.
Answer: C

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NO.20 A security Administrator wants to review the number of packets accepted by each
of the Enforcement modules. Which of the following viewers is the BEST source for
viewing this information?
A. SmartDashboard
B. SmartUpdate
C. SmartMap
D. SmartView Status
E. SmartView Tracker
Answer: D

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NO.21 Network topology exhibit
You want hide all localnet and DMZ hosts behind the Enforcemenet Module, except
for the HTTP Server (192.9.200.9). The HTTP Server will be providing public
services, and must be accessible from the Internet.
Select the two BEST Network Address Translation (NAT) solutions for this
scenario,
A. To hide Local Network addresses, set the address translation for 192.9.0.0
B. To hide Local Network addresses, set the address translation for 192.9.200.0
C. Use automatic NAT rule creation to hide both DMZ and Local Network.
D. To hide Local Network addresses, set the address translation for privatenet.
E. Use automatic NAT rule creation, to statically translate the HTTP Server address.
Answer: C, E

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NO.22 Which of the following are tasks performed by a VPN-1/FireWall-1 SmartCenter
Server? Choose three.
A. Examines all communications according to the Enterprise Security Policy.
B. Stores VPN-1/FirWall-1 logs.
C. Manages the User Database.
D. Replicates state tables for high availability.
E. Compiles the Rule Base into an enforceable Security Policy.
Answer: B, C, E

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NO.23 In the SmartView Tracker, what is the difference between the FireWall-1 and
VPN-1 queries? Choose three.
A. A VPN-1 query only displays encrypted and decrypted traffic.
B. A FireWall-1 query displays all traffic matched by rules, which have logging
activated.
C. A FireWall-1 query displays all traffic matched by all rules.
D. A FireWall-1 query also displays encryption and decryption information.
E. Implied rules, when logged, are viewed using the VPN-1 query.
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.24 The SmartDefense Storm Center Module agent receives the Dshield.org Block List,
and:
A. Populates CPDShield with blocked address ranges, every three hours.
B. Generates logs from rules tracking internal traffic.
C. Submits the number of authentication failures, and drops, rejects, and accepts.
D. Generates regular and compact log digest.
E. Populates the firewall daemon with log trails.
Answer: A

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NO.25 SmartUpdate CANNOT be used to:
A. Track installed versions of Check Point and OPSEC products.
B. Manage licenses centrally.
C. Update installed Check Point and OPSEC software remotely, from a centralized
location.
D. Uninstall Check Point and OPSEC software remotely, from a centralized location.
E. Remotely install NG with Application Intelligence for the first time, on a new
machine.
Answer: E

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NO.26 Which of the following statements about the General HTTP Worm Catcher is
FALSE?
A. The General HTTP Worm Catcher can detect only worms that are part of a URI.
B. Security Administrators can configure the type of notification that will take place, if a
worm is detected.
C. SmartDefense allows you to configure worm signatures, using regular expressions.
D. The General HTTP Worm Catcher's detection takes place in the kernel, and does not
require a Security Server.
E. Worm patterns cannot be imported from a file at this time.
Answer: A

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NO.27 Why is Application Layer particularly vulnerable to attacks? Choose three
A. Malicious Java, ActiveX, and VB Scripts can exploit host system simply by browsing.
B. The application Layer performs access-control and legitimate-use checks.
C. Defending against attacks at the Application Layer is more difficult, than at lower
layers of the OSI model.
D. The Application Layer does not perform unauthorized operations.
E. The application Layer supports many protocols.
Answer: A, C, E

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NO.28 You are administering one SmartCenter Server that manages three Enforcement
Modules. One of the Enforcement Modules does not appear as a target in the Install
Policy screen, when you attempt to install the Security Policy. What is causing this
to happen?
A. The license for the Enforcement Module has expired.
B. The Enforcement Module requires a reboot.
C. The object representing the Enforcement Module was created as a Node->Gateway.
D. The Enforcement Module was not listed in the Install On column of its rule.
E. No Enforcement Module Master filer was created, designating the SmartCenter Server
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-210 pdf   156-210

NO.29 Which if the following components functions as the Internal Certificate Authority
for all modules in the VPN-1/FireWall-1 configuration?
A. Enforcement Module
B. INSPECT Engine
C. SmartCenter Server
D. SmartConsole
E. Policy Server
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-210 pdf   156-210

NO.30 You are the Security Administrator with one SmartCenter Server managing one
Enforcement Moduel. SmartView Status displayes a computer icon with an "I" in
the Status column. What does this mean?
A. You have entered the wrong password at SmartView Status login.
B. Secure Internal Communications (SIC) has not been established between the
SmartCenter Server and the Enforcement Module.
C. The SmartCenter Server cannot contact a gateway.
D. The VPN-1/Firewall-1 Enforcement Module has been compromised and is no longer
controlled by this SmartCenter Sever.
E. The Enforcement Module is installed and responding to status checks, but the status is
problematic.
Answer: E

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