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Exam Code: 1Y0-A13
Exam Name: Citrix (Implementing Citrix Access Gateway 9.0, Enterprise Edition)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 115 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Scenario: An Access Gateway virtual server is configured with the following three settings: ICA Proxy is
set to ON Web Interface address is set to "http://10.102.32.201:80/Citrix/AccessPlatform" Clientless
Access is set to ON Client Choices is enabled Which client choice(s) will be available to a user logging in
from a client device running a Windows operating system?
A.Web Interface only
B.Clientless Access only
C.Web Interface and Clientless Access
D.Access Gateway Plugin for Windows, Web Interface and Clientless Access
Answer:C

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NO.2 Scenario: The wireless network in an environment is NOT secure, so users connecting over it need to
log on to Access Gateway in order to access resources in the corporate intranet. The users in this
environment are running Windows XP on their client devices and management has instructed the IT team
to ensure that users are logged on automatically to Access Gateway using the Windows credentials they
used to log on to their client devices.Which Access Gateway Plugin type should the IT team implement in
this environment?
A.Clientless Access
B.Citrix Access Gateway Plugin for Java
C.Citrix Access Gateway Plugin for ActiveX
D.Citrix Access Gateway Plugin for Windows
Answer:D

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NO.3 Scenario: A system administrator created a new virtual server, "admin.widget.com", on an Access
Gateway appliance. Only system administrators will be connecting to this virtual server. These system
administrators require a full SSL VPN tunnel when connecting. Other users connect to another virtual
server, "users.widget.com", which runs on the same Access Gateway appliance. Any user connecting
through "users.widget.com" currently connects clientlessly. Which action must the administrator take to
give the system administrators full VPN access?
A.Edit the virtual server corresponding to admin.widget.com and enable the Citrix Access Gateway Plugin
for ActiveX
B.Create a session policy, set Clientless Access to Off in the profile associated with the policy and apply
the policy to users.widget.com
C.Create a session policy, set Clientless Access to Off in the profile associated with the policy and apply
the policy to admin.widget.com
D.Create a session policy, select Citrix Access Gateway Plugin for Windows as the "Windows PluginType"
in the profile associated with the policy and apply the policy to admin.widget.com
Answer:D

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NO.4 Scenario: The following policies are configured in an environment in order to provide remote access
through Access Gateway 9.0, Enterprise Edition:
A.All the users must have a validator file, Employee.cer, on the C drive NOT older than 7 days before they
can attempt to login.
B.The keylogger.exe process must be killed before a user can log on.
C.The Employee.cer validator file must be deleted after successful logon.
D.An updated Employee.cer validator file must be put on the C drive for next use. The administrator in the
environment needs to use pre-authentication policies and a logon script for this deployment. Which two
policies can the administrator implement using pre-authentication end point analysis alone? (Choose two.)
A. A B. B C. C D. D
Answer:A B

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NO.5 Scenario: A network administrator needs to configure access to published resources in a Citrix XenApp
farm through Access Gateway. The administrator will implement Access Gateway as a replacement for
the current Secure Gateway deployment, which does NOT have SmartAccess. Which three steps must
the administrator take for this scenario? (Choose three.)
A.Set ICA Proxy to ON
B.Configure split tunneling
C.Set Single Sign-on Domain
D.Configure the Secure Ticket Authority server
E.Set the Access Gateway home page to the Web Interface URL
Answer:A C D

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NO.6 Which three entities could be used to configure SmartAccess? (Choose three.)
A.Traffic policy
B.Session policy
C.Session profile
D.Authorization profile
E.Pre-authentication policy
Answer:B C E

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NO.7 To configure Access Gateway 9.0, Enterprise Edition as a replacement for Secure Gateway, which two
actions must an administrator perform? (Choose two.)
A.Enable the client choices option
B.Change the ICA Proxy setting to ON
C.Change the Windows Plugin Type to ICA
D.Enter the URL of the Web Interface server in the Web Interface Home Page field
Answer:B D

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NO.8 An administrator wants to provide access to published applications hosted on XenApp servers only,
without requiring the use of a Citrix Access Gateway Plugin for Windows.Which feature should the
administrator enable in order to meet the needs of this environment?
A.ICA proxy
B.Single sign-on
C.SmartAccess with ICA proxy
D.Session Reliability on Web Interface
Answer:A

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NO.9 Scenario: A network administrator created multiple personal folder files (*.pst) on a workstation while
accessing Outlook over a VPN session. The administrator would like for the *.pst files to be deleted upon
logout from the VPN session.The administrator should configure the client cleanup to clean up _______.
(Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A.cookies
B.*.pst files
C.address bars
D.application data
Answer:D

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NO.10 What is the minimum assignment of rights that users must have in order to install the Citrix Access
Gateway Plugin for Windows for the first time on a client device?
A.Power User
B.Authenticated User
C.Local Administrator
D.Domain Administrator
Answer:C

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NO.11 A network administrator is instructed to perform client-side cleanup before every session over the Citrix
Access Gateway Plugin for Windows through the Access Gateway appliance.What is true about
client-side cleanup?
A.Client-side cleanup clears the history of the browser.
B.Client-side cleanup cleans up data regularly during the session.
C.Client-side cleanup will delete all Internet Explorer temporary files.
D.Client-side cleanup will NOT clean up any data before the session starts.
Answer:D

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NO.12 In which two instances must an Access Gateway 9.0, Enterprise Edition policy name match the name
of a filter that is bound to another policy? (Choose two.)
A.Access Gateway 9.0, Enterprise Edition is being configured for SmartAccess integration with XenApp
B.Access Gateway 9.0, Enterprise Edition is being configured for single sign-on integration with Web
Interface
C.The other policy is being applied to a XenApp hosted application that is being accessed through the
Access Gateway appliance
D.The other policy is being applied to a Web Interface server that is performing authentication on behalf of
the Access Gateway appliance
Answer:A C

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NO.13 Scenario: A consultant of a new Access Gateway 9.0, Enterprise Edition deployment at a customer site
was given the following information and IP addresses to use when configuring the Access Gateway
appliance: Internal Citrix XenApp server 5.0 IP address: 192.168.100.12 Time Zone to be used: Eastern
Standard Time (EST) IP addresses to be used when configuring the Access Gateway 9.0, Enterprise
Edition deployment NSIP: 10.165.30.45 MIP: 10.165.30.60 VIP: 12.15.30.62 Which two options should be
configured on the Access Gateway appliance in order to communicate with the Citrix XenApp server?
(Choose two.)
A.Subnet IP in the 192.168.100.x subnet
B.Intranet IP in the 192.168.100.x subnet
C.Static Route to the 192.168.100.x subnet
D.Virtual Server in the 192.168.100.x subnet
Answer:A C

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NO.14 An administrator enabled the file type association.Which policy can the administrator use to bind this
parameter to a group of users?
A.Traffic
B.Session
C.Authorization
D.Pre-authentication
Answer:A

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NO.15 The Citrix Access Gateway Plugin for Windows needs administrative privileges _______ and ________
on a Windows XP device. (Choose the two correct phrases to complete the sentence.)
A.for installation
B.for upgrading or downgrading of the system
C.for Endpoint Analysis checks that require administrative privileges
D.for those rare situations where it will be used as an antivirus application
Answer:A C

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NO.16 When creating a Web Interface XenApp Services site for use with Access Gateway 9.0, Enterprise
Edition, which access method or authentication should be specified for the XenApp Services site?
A.SmartAccess Control
B.Explicit authentication
C.Advanced Access Control
D.Pass-through authentication
Answer:C

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NO.17 Scenario: An administrator wants users to be able to access resources running on file servers and
application servers in an environment. The administrator has deployed Access Gateway 9.0, Enterprise
Edition. The Citrix Access Gateway Plugin for Windows is used to establish connections to the corporate
network. There are no intranet applications configured in this environment and split tunneling is turned off.
The default authorization policy is set to "Deny." Users in this environment will be able to access
applications on file and application servers as long as _______. (Choose the correct phrase to complete
the sentence.)
A.users are assigned specific intranet IP addresses
B.an authorization policy is configured to grant them access
C.internal resources are assigned specific intranet IP addresses
D.internal resources in this environment are configured as published applications
Answer:B

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NO.18 Scenario: An Access Gateway virtual server is configured with the following settings: A group named
QUARGRP A session profile named QUARPROF, with Clientless Access mode set to ON A session policy
named QUARPOL, with the expression, "NS_TRUE" and the profile QUARPROF The QUARPOL session
policy is bound to the QUARGRP group The global settings with Client Security is set to "CLIENT.APP.AV
== SYMANTEC EXISTS" and the quarantine group is set to QUARGRP Which client will be provided to a
user who logs on to the virtual server from a client device that is NOT running Symantec Antivirus?
A.Web Interface
B.Clientless Access
C.Citrix Access Gateway Plugin for Java
D.Citrix Access Gateway Plugin for Windows
Answer:B

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NO.19 When integrating Web Interface into the default home page, what is the preferred portal mode for Web
Interface?
A.Hybrid
B.Normal
C.Custom
D.Compact
Answer:D

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NO.20 Scenario: A group of students need access to an online examination for only one hour. The group must
be prompted periodically about the logout time during the last three minutes of their one hour session, and
the session must time out exactly after one hour. Which setting should the administrator enable when
configuring Access Gateway to provide access to these students?
A.Kill all the sessions pertaining to the students exactly after one hour
B.Specify the login and logout time so that the students' connections can time out exactly after one hour
C.Configure a session profile with a forced time out warning value of three minutes and forced time out
time of one hour
D.Configure a session profile with a session time out warning value of three minutes and session time out
time of one hour
E.Configure a session profile with a client idle time out warning value of three minutes and client idle time
out time of one hour
Answer:C

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Exam Code: 156-510
Exam Name: CheckPoint (VPN-1/FireWall-1 Management III)
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Total Q&A: 165 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What is true about detecting "blocked connection port scanning"?
A. It requires less memory than general port scanning
B. It is less secure than general port scanning
C. It is more secure than general port scanning
D. It requires more memory than general port scanning
Answer: A, B

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NO.2 In a load sharing MEP environment accessed by secuRemote.What is true about gateway
selection?
A. SecuRemote will choose the gateway closest to the server
B. SecuRemote will use the first gateway to respond
C. SecuRemote will chose the gateway randomly
D. SecuRemote will prefer its primary gateway if both respond
Answer: C

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NO.3 By default a Windows NT platform enables both TCP/IP and IPX. What does FW-1 do
with any IPX traffic?
A. Logs it, then drops it
B. Allows it through without being inspected
C. Drops all traffic regardless
D. Inspects the traffic and decide whether to allow it through
Answer: B

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NO.4 When making changes to users in an LDAP server using the policy editor
usermanager, when will the changes take effect?
A. After the user database is downloaded
B. When you log out of policy editor
C. After a policy download
D. When cache times out
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.5 Which two types of overlapping encryption domains are supported by FW-1?
A. Partial overlap
B. Full overlap
C. Proper subset
D. Partial subset
Answer: B, C

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NO.6 What is the maximum limit to the number of secondary management modules allowed?
A. No limit
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
E. 8
Answer: A

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NO.7 CPMAD will try to connect to the LEA server a number of times before giving up. What
are the default values for the number of connection attempts and the time interval between
them?
A. 20 times with 30secs between attempts
B. 10 times with 60secs between attempts
C. 5 times with 60secs between attempts
D. 10 times with 10secs between attempts
Answer: B

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NO.8 When installing FW-1 on a Windows NT platform, what state should IP forwarding be in
for correct FW-1 operation?
A. Enabled
B. Disabled
Answer: A

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NO.9 You can tell if CPMAD is enabled because you see the message
"FireWall-1: Starting cpmad (Malicious Activity Detection)"
whenyou perform a fwstart. True of false?
A. False
B. True
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is a land attack?
A. It causes incomplete TCP connections
B. It involves gaining access by imitating an authorized IP address
C. It involves scanning for ports on an IP address that will allow access
D. It causes a server to send packets to itself
Answer: D

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NO.11 What does LDAP stand for?
A. Link level Direct Access Process
B. Layered Directory Administration Protocol
C. Layer Dependent Administration process
D. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol
Answer: D

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NO.12 How much memory is reserved for the VPN-1/FW-1 kernel on a Nokia platform?
A. 5 MB
B. 15 MB
C. 3 MB
D. 10 MB
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following should be disabled in a Windows NT platform when installing
FW-1?
A. WINS
B. RPC
C. NetBIOS
D. All of them
E. DHCP relay
Answer: D

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NO.14 What is true when using SEP high availability encryption topologies?
A. Gateways must use the same FW-1 build level
B. All of these
C. You must use a distributed installation of VPN-1/FW-1
D. Gateways must use the same platform and OS
E. Gateways must run identical policies
Answer: B

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NO.15 In a resilient MEP topology, what mechanism can be used by SecuRemote to determine
that the primary gateway is still available?
A. TCP Ping
B. TCP keepalives
C. RDP status queries
D. UDP ping
Answer: C

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NO.16 How often will SecuRemote check for the availability of a VPN gateway by default?
A. 60 secs
B. 120 secs
C. 30 secs
D. 90 secs
Answer: A

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NO.17 If CPMAD terminates, how can you restart it?
A. By using the GUI log client
B. It automatically starts itself
C. By using fw cpmadstart
D. By using fwstop/fwstart
Answer: D

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NO.18 Addresses allocated from an IP pool remain allocated for a configurable period, even after
all connections to that address are closed. What is the default time before the address is
returned to the pool?
A. 120 mins
B. 180mins
C. 30 mins
D. 60 mins
Answer: D

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NO.19 When using IP pools for MEP VPN access, where would you specify the pool to be used for
a particular gateway?
A. The NAT screen of the gateway's properties configuration
B. The ADVANCED screen of the gateway's properties configuration
C. The VPN screen of the gateway's properties screen
D. The TOPOLOGY screen of the gateway's properties configuration
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which are two network related conditions required by high availability in SEP VPN's?
A. The gateways must be synchronized
B. Traffic must be redirected correctly to the backup gateway when the primary gateway fails
C. The gateways must use identical MAC addresses
D. NTP (network time protocol) must be configured between both gateways
Answer: A, B

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NO.1 Under what circumstances this command line procedure would be used? 1. osql.exe �CE 2.
Use disknet 3. update globle configuration set 4. go
A. To connect a local MSDE database installed on a machine using a Microsoft Trusted application
B. To unlock and access the Endpoint Security Media Encryption Server service.
C. To address a blue screen issue when using Endpoint Security media Encryption and McAfee
8.5i on a Windows Vista Enterprise machine
D. To connect to a remote SQL instance using trusted authentication.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Can Endpoint Security Media Encryption import Novell user group?
A. No, Endpoint Security Media Encryption only work with Active Directory
B. Yes
C. Yes, if the Novell Server is using RADIUS with LDAP
D. No, Endpoint Security Media Encryption only uses RADIUS
Answer: B

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NO.3 There has been a security breach of your companys network and you must block clients
form downloading all files with an .inst extension. What is the correct approach to resolve this
issue?
A. Create the file extension in PSG, save the profile, and update all groups.
B. Load the default profile to groups in the organization until steps are taken to remove the
threat.
C. PSG does not support executing files having other than 3 character extensions and will
therefore block the file.
D. Selects the file extension in PSG, and reloads the profile appropriately.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Consider the following image of a log event. Assume this device is frequently used, but you
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dilemma?
A. Add this device to Device Manager
B. Create e-mail alerts anytime this device is accessed
C. Create a media audit rule
D. require that the device be password encrypted
Answer: A

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NO.5 Fill in the blank if no Anti-Virus scanner or Pointsec DataScan is detected on the client
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B. will not be possible and access will not be granted.
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NO.1 Which of the following statements about the Port Scanning feature of IPS is TRUE?
A. The default scan detection is when more than 500 open inactive ports are open for a period of 120
seconds.
B. The Port Scanning feature actively blocks the scanning, and sends an alert to SmartView Monitor.
C. Port Scanning does not block scanning; it detects port scans with one of three levels of detection
sensitivity.
D. When a port scan is detected, only a log is issued, never an alert.
Answer: C

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NO.2 How does a cluster member take over the VIP after a failover event?
A. Ping the sync interface
B. if list -renew
C. Broadcast storm
D. Gratuitous ARP
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following manages Standard Reports and allows the administrator to specify automatic
uploads of reports to a central FTP server?
A. Smart Dashboard Log Consolidator
B. Security Management Server
C. Smart Reporter Database
D. Smart Reporter
Answer: D

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NO.4 John is configuring a new R71 Gateway cluster but he can not configure the cluster as Third Party IP
Clustering because this option is not available in Gateway Cluster Properties: What's happening?
A. John is not using third party hardware as IP Clustering is part of Check Point's IP Appliance B .Third
Party Clustering is not available for R71 Security Gateways.
B. ClusterXL needs to be unselected to permit 3rd party clustering configuration.
C. John has an invalid ClusterXL license.
Answer: C

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NO.5 When you check Web Server in a host-node object, what happens to the host?
A. The Web server daemon is enabled on the host.
B. More granular controls are added to the host, in addition to Web Intelligence tab settings.
C. You can specify allowed ports in the Web server's node-object properties. You then do not need to list
all allowed ports in the Rule Base.
D. IPS Web Intelligence is enabled to check on the host.
Answer: B

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NO.6 You need to publish SecurePlatform routes using the ospf routing protocol. What is the correct
command structure, once entering the route command, to implement ospf successfully?
A. Run cpconfig utility to enable ospf routing
B. ip route ospf
ospf network1
ospf network2
C. Enable
Configure terminal
Router ospf [id]
Network [network] [wildmask] area [id]
D. Use DBedit utility to either the objects_5_0.c file
Answer: C

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NO.7 ________is a proprietary Check Point protocol. it is the basis for Check Point ClusterXL inter-module
communication.
A. RDP
B. CCP
C. CKPP
D. HA OPCODE
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following commands can be used to stop Management portal services?
A. fw stopportal
B. cpportalstop
C. cpstop / portal
D. smartportalstop
Answer: D

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NO.9 Organizations are sometimes faced with the need to locate cluster members in different geographic
locations that are distant from each other. A typical example is replicated data centers whose location is
widely separated for disaster recovery purposes.
What are the restrictions of this solution?
A. There are no restrictions.
B. There is one restriction: The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 150 ms latency
(ITU Standard G.114).
C. There is one restriction: The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 100 ms latency.
D. There are two restrictions: 1. The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 100ms
latency and no more than 5% packet loss. 2. The synchronization network may only include switches and
hubs.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following is NOT a feature of ClusterXL?
A. Enhanced throughput in all ClusterXL modes (2 gateway cluster compared with 1 gateway)
B. Transparent failover in case of device failures
C. Zero downtime for mission-critical environments with State Synchronization
D. Transparent upgrades
Answer: C

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NO.11 What is a task of the SmartEvent Correlation Unit?
A. Add events to the events database.
B. Look for patterns according to the installed Event Policy.
C. Assign a severity level to an event
D. Display the received events.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Check point Clustering protocol, works on:
A. UDP 8116
B. UDP 500
C. TCP 8116
D. TCP 19864
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which procedure creates a new administrator in SmartWorkflow?
A. Run cpconfig, supply the Login Name. Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions.
B. In SmartDashboard, click SmartWorkflow / Enable SmartWorkflow and the Enable SmartWorkflow
wizard will start. Supply the Login Name, Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions
when prompted.
C. On the Provider-1 primary MDS, run cpconfig, supply the Login Name, Profile Properties, Name,
Access Applications and Permissions.
D. In SmartDashboard, click Users and Administrators right click Administrators / New Administrator and
supply the Login Name. Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which external user authentication protocols are supported in SSL VPN?
A. LDAP, Active Directory, SecurID
B. DAP, SecurID, Check Point Password, OS Password, RADIUS, TACACS
C. LDAP, RADIUS, Active Directory, SecurID
D. LDAP, RADIUS, TACACS, SecurID
Answer: B

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NO.15 Control connections between the Security Management Server and the Gateway are not encrypted by
the VPN Community. How are these connections secured?
A. They are encrypted and authenticated using SIC.
B. They are not encrypted, but are authenticated by the Gateway
C. They are secured by PPTP
D. They are not secured.
Answer: D

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NO.16 You are MegaCorp Security Administrator. This company uses a firewall cluster, consisting of two
cluster members. The cluster generally works well but one day you find that the cluster is behaving
strangely. You assume that there is a connectivity problem with the cluster synchronization cluster link
(cross-over cable).
Which of the following commands is the best for testing the connectivity of the crossover cable?
A. telnet <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member>
B. arping <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member>
C. ifconfig a
D. Ping <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member>
Answer: B

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NO.17 What command will allow you to disable sync on a cluster firewall member?
A. fw ctl setsync 0
B. fw ctl sysnstat stop
C. fw ctl sysnstat off
D. fw ctl setsyns off
Answer: D

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NO.18 You want to verify that your Check Point cluster is working correctly. Which command line tool can you
use?
A. cphaconf state
B. cphaprob state
C. cphainfo-s
D. cphastart -status
Answer: B

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NO.19 You are establishing a ClusterXL environment, with the following topology: External interfaces
192.168.10.1 and 192.168.10.2 connect to a VLAN switch. The upstream router connects to the same
VLAN switch. Internal interfaces 172.16 10.1 and 172.16.10.2 connect to a hub. 10.10.10.0 is the
synchronization network. The Security Management Server is located on the internal network with IP
172.16.10.3. What is the problem with this configuration?
A. There is an IP address conflict
B. The Security Management Server must be in the dedicated synchronization network, not the internal
network.
C. The Cluster interface names must be identical across all cluster members.
D. Cluster members cannot use the VLAN switch. They must use hubs.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Refer to Exhibit:
Match the ClusterXL Modes with their configurations
A. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
B. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
C. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
D. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
Answer: C

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NO.1 To add a column to an existing table, you need to:
A. Override the default XML file in the custom area using a new unique name.
B. Edit the default XML file in the default area and reference the new XML file in the custom area.
C. Create a new table XML file in the custom area with the same name as the default XML file and
reference the default XML file.
D. Create a new table XML file in the custom area with the same name as the default XML file and do not
reference the default XML file.
Answer: C

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C. Create a file in the custom directory structure with a different file name from the default XML file.
D. Create a file in the custom directory structure with a different file name from the default XML file but
reference the default XML file.
Answer: B

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NO.3 The EventDisp file defines event processing. Which statements about event processing are TRUE?
(Choose three)
A. An event can run a script.
B. An event can clear an alarm.
C. An event can participate in an Event Rule
D. An event can be logged to the DDM database.
E. Events can be correlated among different models.
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A. PCause
B. AlertMap
C. EVformat
D. EventDisp
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NO.5 Use an Event Rate rule when you want:
A. No alarms for subsequent events of that event type.
B. Notification of a series of events occurring in a specific sequence.
C. Notification of the absence of an expected second event after an initial event.
D. Notification that there is a problem when a stream of the same events occurs at a set rate within a
specified time frame.
Answer: D

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Exam Name: CA (CA Clarity PPM v13.x Professional Certification Exam)
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NO.1 CA Clarity PPM v13 portlets
A. Can use an object, a system, or a query as a data provider.
B. Use multiple dimensions if created using an object data provider.
C. Include restricted portlets, such as the Action Item portlet, which only administrators can
change.
D. Include new interactive functionality, which uses Microsoft Silverlight to build complex
visualizations.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which feature characterizes NSQL multi-dimensional queries?
A. The data provider is always an object.
B. The related portlets have a Y-axis subpage.
C. They enable more complex charts such as Donut charts.
D. They always include change_key and merge_key attributes.
Answer: B

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6. You need to export a single portlet that is contained within a dashboard. Which limitations do
you
need to consider? (Choose three)
A. The export will always be Fit to Page.
B. The Export to PDF option must be selected.
C. The Export to PowerPoint option will only permit 30 records.
D. The dashboard template must be Application Page Template.
E. The dashboard type must be Page with Tabs or Page without Tabs.
Answer: A,D,E

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7. The CA Clarity PPM bundle includes CA Business Intelligence (CABI) software. Which features
characterize CABI? (Choose three)
A. Support for cached content
B. Component-based content development
C. A built-in INSolve Functional Intelligence QuickStart Pack
D. An InfoView Business Relationship Manager (BRM) module for complex report design
E. A built-in paging mechanism to help ensure the scalable delivery of large volumes of content
Answer: A,B,E

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8. Before saving a Generic Execution Language (GEL) script in a process, it is recommended that
you:
A. Validate the GEL script
B. Remove all FTP Library tags
C. Delete all namespace declarations
D. Test the GEL script in a duplicate process
Answer: D

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9. Which technology is Generic Execution Language (GEL) based on?
A. Oracle Java
B. CA Clarity PPM
C. Apache Jakarta Jelly
D. SAP Business Objects
Answer: C

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10. Out of the box, which object actions can you create in CA Clarity PPM v13? (Choose three)
A. Run a stock report
B. Link to Google search
C. Delete an active service
D. Run the Delete Investments job
E. Move tasks across or between projects
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 To access the server page that lists the XML Open Gateway (XOG) invoke action web services,
you specify the following URL:
http://<servername:port>/niku/wsdl/InvokeAction
Which types of invoke action web services are listed here? (Choose three)
A. Process
B. Flush cache
C. Aggregate data
D. Productivity data
E. Synchronize external links
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.4 In the CA Clarity PPM Process Engines event flow, what is the function of the Wakeup Signal?
A. Displays detailed Process Engines instance information
B. Triggers the Background Engine as soon an event is fired
C. Keeps track of all the executing process, controls the event flow, and helps manage the
Workflow Execution
D. Interacts with the CA Clarity PPM database on a consistent basis to proceed with the workflow
steps or instructions
Answer: B

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NO.5 The creation of a grid portlet requires a data provider. Data providers can be: (Choose three)
A. Filters
B. Events
C. Objects
D. Systems
E. NSQL queries
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.1 F lyHigh Airlines is planning their S OA program. An initial assessment of capability has been made, but no
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A. Focus on developing the initial shared services reference architecture
B. Services should be classified and categorized by their relative risk and business priority
C . A cost model should be constructed to evaluate best sequencing of services and assess the required
infrastructure investment
D. Common services such as authentication, exception handling, and logging should be constructed
Answer: A

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NO.2 F elicity F inancial S ervices is a full service brokerage. Their primary business objective is to be the premier
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derivatives, and whole loan investments. What is the primary benefit that an S OA would provide F elicity?
A. Improved business/IT alignment.
B. Improved quality of customer service
C. Consistency in information and behavior across channels
D. Agility to change processes or introduce new products quickly
Answer: D

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NO.3 J ohnston Marks, a regional bank, are looking to use S OA as a way to improve their product development
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architecture, roadmap, constructed common services such as single-sign on, have identified project priorities.
S ome members of IT management are unaware of the S OA program, while other managers are unclear as to why
they are undertaking it. One of these managers is responsible for deploying a new system in support of new
promotions. Which of the SOA domains could most use improving (choose two)?
A. Business Process & Strategy
B. Architecture
C. Costs & Benefits
D. Building Blocks
E. Projects & Applications
F. Organization & Governance
Answer: CF

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NO.5 Acme, Inc. is conducting an S OA transformation program. The program has been accepted by IT senior
management. The S OA steering committee has determined the appropriate priorities and complexities of
services, and how they should be harvested. The technical team has a good architectural understanding of the
design considerations and infrastructure needed to support the target services. Acme has not yet constructed or
harvested any services. What should Acme focus on next?
A. Focus on developing the initial shared services reference architecture
B. Services should be classified and categorized by their relative risk and business priority
C. A cost model should be constructed to evaluate best sequencing of services
D. Initial common services such as authentication, exception handling, and logging should be harvested and/or
constructed
Answer: D

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NO.6 G reat North T ravel is a multi-national travel agency implementing an S OA program. The program was
sponsored by the highest levels of both business and IT management, and is seen as a key tactic to their customer
satisfaction improvement and new product introduction strategies. A number of in-progress initiatives are using
various E AI technologies to perform integration, and there is no sharing of artifacts among these initiatives.
F urthermore, these initiatives all seem to be developing separate, and overlapping, customer data stores. Which
of the SOA domains could most use improving (choose two)?
A. Business Process & Strategy
B. Architecture
C. Costs & Benefits
D. Building Blocks
E. Projects & Applications
F. Organization & Governance
Answer: DF

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NO.7 Serendipity Securities, Inc. has two major business objectives:
1. E nsure consistent customer information and service capabilities across all product lines and all customer
channels (interactive voice response, call centre, and website)
2. Maintain business unit autonomy so new products and/or services can be introduced in a timely fashion.
What is the likelihood of achieving all the objectives through an SOA program?
A. Both objectives can be met; both agility and consistency are complementary.
B. It is unlikely the objectives can be met because agility and consistency are contradictory.
C . There is a tradeoff between agility and consistency in dealing with product information, and some compromise
must be made between the business units
D. There is a tradeoff between agility and consistency in dealing with customer information, and some
compromise must be made between the business units
Answer: D

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
An automated business process requires human intervention only if an event occurs during its execution. What
is the term for this pattern? (S ee E xhibit for picture)
A. Fork/Join
B. Escalation
C. Delegation
D. Exception Handling
Answer: B

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NO.9 Titan C ommunications is a provider of cable TV , wireless, and wireline phone services. Its stated business
objective is to transition from a product centric to a customer centric organization. What is the primary benefit
that an SOA would provide Titan?
A. Improved business/IT alignment.
B. Improved quality of customer service
C. Consistency in behavior across customer channels
D. Agility to change processes or introduce new products quickly
Answer: A

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NO.10 Acme Builders, inc. has created an S OA roadmap, reference architecture and has exposed an initial handful of
data access and shared business services. The development team currently handles all requests for support,
diagnosis, and connectivity to these services through manual / ad hoc means. The number of consumers of
these services is growing. Which two service lifecycle phases are currently the most appropriate to their S OA
transformation program?
A. Monitor
B. Design
C. Expose
D. Build
E. Compose
F. Secure
Answer: AF

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Exam Code: 9L0-402
Exam Name: Apple (Support Essentials 10.5)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 90 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Review the screenshot of a user's home folder, and then answer the question below.
Which folder did the user create?
A. Music
B. Pages
C. Pictures
D. Downloads
Answer: B

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NO.2 You are an admin user, and have enabled the Ignore Volume Ownership option for an external FireWire
hard disk. What will happen the next time a standard user attempts to mount the disk?
A. The disk will mount, and the user will be able to read, modify, and delete any file on the disk.
B. The disk will mount, and the user will be able to read any file on the disk; the user will be required to
enter an administrator password to modify or delete files on the disk.
C. The user will be required to enter an administrator password to mount the disk; once the disk is
mounted the user will be able to read, modify, and delete any file on the disk.
D. The user will be required to enter an administrator password to mount the disk; once the disk is
mounted, the user will be able to read any file on the disk, but will be required to re-enter an administrator
password to modify or delete files.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Tom wants to share a document with Harriet. Both have standard user accounts on the same Mac OS
X v10.5 computer. Which of these is NOT a location where Tom can store the document so that Harriet
can read it?
A. /Users/Shared/
B. /Users/tom/Public/
C. /Users/harriet/Public/
D. /Users/harriet/Public/Drop Box/
Answer: C

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NO.4 You have configured your Mac OS X v10.5 computer to share its connected USB printer. Mac OS X
users can locate and print to it, but Windows users can not. What additional step must you take to allow
Windows users to print to it?
A. In Sharing preferences, enable file sharing over SMB.
B. In Print & Fax preferences, enable the SMB printer driver.
C. In Printer Setup Utility, enable Windows Printing from the Printers menu.
D. In Print & Fax preferences, configure the Windows Printer name and queue.
Answer: A

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NO.5 The primary role of the master password in Mac OS X v10.5 is to let you ________.
A. access all the passwords stored in a local keychain
B. reset the password of an account that has FileVault enabled
C. change the startup device by holding down the Option key while the computer starts up
D. connect to any password-protected web server whose password is stored in a local keychain
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which procedure will let someone who does not have a local user account log in to a local admin user
account on a Mac OS X v10.5 computer that does NOT have a firmware password enabled?
A. Log in to the computer with the user name "root" and the master password, open Accounts preferences,
and reset the admin user password.
B. Remove a RAM DIMM from one of the computers RAM slots, restart the computer while holding down
the Command-Option-O-F keys until you hear the startup sound, then type "reset-all" at the prompt.
C. Start the computer from the internal hard disk, log into a guest user account, open the Reset Password
utility in the /Applications/Utilities folder, then reset the password on the admin user account that resides
on the hard disk volume.
D. Press the C key while restarting the computer with the Mac OS X v10.5 Install DVD inserted, then
choose Reset Password from the Utilities menu. Select the hard disk volume and the admin user account,
then enter a new password for the account and click Save.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of these can you use to determine whether there is network connectivity between your computer
and a web server on the Internet?
A. Whois
B. Finger
C. Lookup
D. Traceroute
Answer: D

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NO.8 Mac OS X v10.5 can read files on a volume that is ________-formatted, but it cannot write to files on
the volume.
A. UFS
B. NTFS
C. EXT2
D. FAT32
Answer: B

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NO.9 Review the screenshots of a files permissions, as seen in Finder and from Terminal, and then answer
the question below.
Why are Kim's permissions to the file, Report.rtf, NOT visible in the Terminal listing?
A. Kims permissions are stored as POSIX settings.
B. Kims permissions are stored in the volume catalog.
C. Kims permissions are stored in the file data segment.
D. Kims permissions are stored in an Access Control List (ACL).
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which statement identifies a potential effect of resetting the master password for a Mac OS X v10.5
computer?
A. Users with keychain files created before you changed the master password must use the old master
password to unlock their keychains.
B. Users who enabled FileVault before you changed the master password will not be able to access their
home folder if they have forgotten their account password.
C. Users with keychain files created before you changed the master password will have their keychain
passwords automatically updated to match the new master password.
D. Users whose accounts were created before you changed the master password must use the firmware
password to access their home folder if they have forgotten their account password.
Answer: B

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