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Exam Code: C-TPLM30-66
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Enterprise Asset Management (Maintenance & Repair) with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP6
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Exam Code: C_TBIT44_73
Exam Name: SAP Certfied Development Associate - Process Integration with SAP NetWeaver (PI 7.3) (C_TBIT44_73)
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Exam Code: C-A1FIN-10
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Financials with SAP Business All-in-One Solution Exam
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NO.1 SAP Best Practices are preconfigured packages that can be used for different purposes in
various phases of an implementation project.
Why would you set up a system by activating an SAP Best Practices package? (Choose two)
A. To introduce new functions that are not offered in the Business Suite
B. To accelerate the implementation of SAP applications
C. To quickly set up a prototype system for specification workshops, trainings, and demos
D. To correct settings in a productive system
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 Which currency types are available for budgeting on internal orders? (Choose three)
A. Controlling area currency
B. Object currency
C. Company code currency
D. Freely-definable currency
E. Transaction currency
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 When you make a change to an asset, at what point does the planned depreciation change in
Asset Accounting?
A. After a posting to a fixed asset
B. After depreciation is run and posted to the general ledger
C. After depreciation is run without being posted
D. After depreciation is run and posted to the fixed assets ledger
Answer: A

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NO.4 During the preparation phase, you create a project charter and define project standards and
procedures. These elements give the project manager the authority to conduct a project within
scope, quality, time, and cost and resource constraints.
Which approach would you recommend for scope change requests?
A. Since the project is a fixed scope project, reject all scope change requests.
B. Only accept scope change requests after integration and acceptance tests.
C. Collect scope change requests and hand them over to development immediately.
D. Document scope change requests according to the change requests plan and decide on
realization.
Answer: D

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6. Which components are part of the SAP Business All-in-One solutions? (Choose three)
A. Preconfigured business processes
B. Help portal
C. NetWeaver Business Client
D. Documentation and training material
E. GuiXT
Answer: A,C,D

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7. How do you use the Solution Builder to package your own solution? (Choose two)
A. Add a Customizing step to your building blocks using a report.
B. Use solution builder to automatically transfer a solution into a new scenario map.
C. Export the structure of your solution into an xml file.
D. Create building blocks that contain your delta settings.
Answer: C,D

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8. The ASAP Focus Methodology defines a proposal framework as an accelerator to help you
produce the proposal document during the evaluation phase.
Which document is part of the proposal framework?
A. Sales presentations
B. Marketing collateral
C. Customer qualification questionnaire
D. Solution scope document
Answer: D

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9. Which "additional" planning method is available for internal orders if you have information
about sources of supply and vendors' prices based on quantities?
A. Unit cost planning
B. Activity input planning
C. Overall planning
D. Primary cost planning
Answer: A

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10. Along with SAP NetWeaver Business Client (NWBC), SAP provides a NWBC demo kit for
partners. This contains the welcome page and workbenches to enhance the user interface.
What are the required steps to install and run the NWBC demo kit? (Choose three)
A. Configure the user interface according to your specific needs.
B. Import the transport request from the NWBC demo kit into your system.
C. Download the NWBC demo kit from the SAP Help Portal under alias /bestpractices.
D. Download the NWBC demo kit from the SAP Service Portal under alias /bestpractices.
E. Order the NWBC demo kit per OSS message with reference to SAP Note 1040010.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.5 When a document is posted, a number is assigned to that document.
Where does this number come from?
A. Document source
B. Document area
C. Document type
D. Posting key
Answer: C

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Exam Code: C-HANAIMP131
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate (Edition 2013) - SAP HANA
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Exam Code: C-ISR-60
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Retail with SAP ERP 6.0
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Exam Code: C_TADM51_731
Exam Name: SAP Certified Technology Associate - System Administration (Oracle DB) with SAP NetWeaver 7.31
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NO.1 Which of the following are the IT scenarios powered by SAP NetWeaver Master Data
Management (MDM)?
A. SRM Master Data Management, SRM Master Data Consolidation, SRM Master Data
Harmonization
B. Central Master Data Management, Master Data Consolidation, Master Data Harmonization
C. ERP Master Data Management, ERP Master Data Consolidation, ERP Master Data Harmonization
D. Central Customer Master Data Integration, Customer Rich Product-Content Management, Master
Data Harmonization
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following functions does the purchasing list offer? (Choose three)
A. Selecting characteristic values for a purchasing list item.
B. Entering planned quantities for seasonal articles per assortment.
C. Planning the number of styles of seasonal articles per vendor.
D. Planning new articles that do not yet have an article master record.
E. Creating prepacks and displays.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 For which of the following key figures can you maintain plan data in a purchasing list in SAP
Retail? (Choose three)
A. Stock transfer
B. Initial buy fix
C. Initial buy variable
D. Putaway
E. Allocation table
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.4 Which of the following functions are offered by replenishment planning in SAP Retail? (Choose
three)
A. Calculating requirements for merchandise category value-only articles.
B. Determining requirements for stores based on the stock situation.
C. Considering different customer stock types.
D. Analyzing customers' sales data and stock data.
E. Generating follow-on documents.
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.5 Where is the supplementary calculation schema assigned?
A. Condition type
B. Calculation schema
C. Access sequence
D. Schema group
Answer: A

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NO.6 Where in the Merchandise Category Hierarchy would you find a Reference Article?
A. Any Merchandise Category Hierarchy Level
B. Merchandise Category
C. Merchandise Category Hierarchy Top Level
D. Merchandise Category Hierarchy Level and Merchandise Category
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which one of the following price determination elements must be configured so that certain
condition lines of a purchase order will appear on the print output?
A. Access sequence
B. Condition type
C. Calculation schema
D. Schema group
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following needs to be considered when using the replenishment based inventory
management procedure?
A. Only the unrestricted-use stock type is monitored.
B. Documents are created for all goods movements.
C. Different stock types are monitored.
D. Documents are created for goods receipts only.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 050-80-CASECURID01
Exam Name: RSA SecurID Certified Administrator 8.0 Exam
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NO.1 A user who is enabled for Risk-Based Authentication will likely be associated with what other
authentication method?
A. PIN-less SecurID token.
B. On-Demand Authentication.
C. Emergency Access Passcode.
D. Digital Certificate Authentication.
Answer: B

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NO.2 If a user is seeking help after receiving an 'Access Denied' message, which Security Console
function would help locate the activity?
A. Reporting
B. Token record
C. User activation record
D. Administrative Activity Monitor
Answer: A

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NO.3 If all users are denied access when they attempt to authenticate to an RSA Authentication
Manager instance, the problem might be that
A. the licensed number of users has been exceeded.
B. the Authentication Manager services are not running.
C. all Agent node secrets have been cleared by the users.
D. the Super Admin administrator has left the instance in debug mode.
Answer: B

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NO.4 If an administrator creates a new administrative user,
A. by default, the new administrator must use a SecurID token to log in.
B. the administrator creating the new user must have at least a Super Admin role.
C. by default, the new user has permissions identical to the administrator creating the new user.
D. permissions granted to the new user can not exceed those of the administrator creating the new
user.
Answer: D

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6. If a user is NOT a member of an Authentication Manager user group, which of the following
statements is true?
A. The user can not be restricted to certain login times.
B. The user can not be forced to adhere to password polices.
C. The user can not take advantage of Risk-Based authentication.
D. The user can not log on to an unrestricted Authentication Agent.
Answer: A

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7. Of the following RSA Authentication Manager components, which one is most likely to be
located in a network DMZ?
A. Web Tier
B. Risk Engine
C. Replica Server
D. Authentication Agent
Answer: A

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8. Token expiration dates;
A. Appear on the token display thirty days prior to expiration.
B. Are programmed into a token record at the time of manufacture.
C. Vary according to the date set by the administrator when assigning the token.
D. Depend on the clock in the Authentication Agent to determine if the token is active.
Answer: B

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9. Which of the following services is NOT an option to users through the Self-Service Console?
A. Changing a password or PIN
B. Creating an individual PIN policy
C. Requesting a replacement token
D. Resynchronizing an RSA SecurID token
Answer: B

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10. Can multiple Identity Sources be established from the same LDAP directory?
A. Yes, if the mapped Organizational Units (OUs) do not overlap.
B. Yes, if duplicate attribute values do not exist in the LDAP directory.
C. No - only one LDAP directory can be mapped to one Identity Source.
D. Yes, if no duplicate passwords exist in the LDAP directory (unique password for each user).
Answer: A

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NO.5 When adding a new Authentication Agent record to the RSA Authentication Manager database,
an attempt is made to resolve the hostname of the Agent Host with its IP Address. If the attempt
fails,
A. the administrator can override the hostname/IP Address by using the Auto-Registration option.
B. the Agent is added to the database with a 'Pending' status until it is first used for a successful
authentication.
C. a warning is given that the hostname/IP Address cannot be resolved but the database will allow
the Agent to be added.
D. the administrator must correct the address resolution through DNS or editing the /etc/hosts file
before the Agent can be added to the database.
Answer: C

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Exam Name: Developer Essentials for FileMaker 13
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NO.1 A text field called FirstLast in FileMaker Pro 13 is set to auto-enter the following formula:
FirstName & " " & LastName
FirstName and LastName are text fields in the same table. The option Do not evaluate if all
referenced fields are empty is unchecked. The option Do not replace existing value of field (if any) is
checked.
Under which two circumstances will the value of the calculation be inserted into the FirstLast field?
(Choose two.)
A. A record is first created
B. Each time the value of the FirstName or LastName field is modified
C. A user selects the menu item Records> Relookup Field Contents
D. Any field value on the record is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
E. The FirstName or LastName field is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
Answer: A,E

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NO.2 A table in a FileMaker 13 solution has a text field CompanyName. The following field
validation options are set for this field:
-Validate data in this field only during data entry -Allow user to override during data entry -Require
not empty -Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName
field. What will occur?
A. All of the records will be imported, No error message will be displayed.
B. The user will see the custom error message, but the import will continue if the user overrides the
error.
C. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see the specified
custom message.
D. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog
from the FileMaker Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors,
along with a count of those records.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which statement is true about a container field set to Store container data externally in
FileMaker 13?
A. Data will not be stored externally if the file is transferred to an iOS device and used via FileMaker
Go 13.
B. Externally stored container data will not be backed up by FileMaker Server 13 scheduled backup
routines.
C. When hosted on FileMaker Server, external container data must be stored in a subdirectory of
the database folder.
D. Externally stored container data will be embedded in the file when it is downloaded via the
Server Admin Console.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which two statements are true about field indexing in FileMaker Pro 13? (Choose two.)
A. Calculation fields cannot be indexed.
B. Indexing improves the speed at which sorts are performed.
C. To establish a relationship between two fields, both fields are required to be indexed.
D. A field must be indexed in order for Auto-complete using previously entered values to function.
E. Minimal indexing indicates that either the value index or the word index has been created, but
not both.
Answer: D,E

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NO.5 What is the maximum number of recursive calls that can be made utilizing a custom function
in FileMaker Pro 13 Advanced?
A. 10,000
B. 32,000
C. 50,000
D. 64.000
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which statement is true about the Filter Portal Records feature in FileMaker Pro 13?
A. The portal filter formula must refer to at least one field in the immediately related table.
B. The feature requires one or more additional relationships to be added to the Relationships Graph.
C. The portal filter formula may not refer to any globally stored fields, summary fields, or unstored
calculation fields.
D. There can be one unique filter formula applied for each portal state (Normal State, In Focus,
Hover, or Pressed).
E. Aggregate functions (e.g., Sum, Count) based on the portal's relationship will not be affected by
the portal's filter formula.
Answer: E

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NO.7 Which two formatting options can be controlled by a layout's theme? (Choose two.)
A. The anchoring / resizing settings for a tab control
B. Conditional formatting for a value in a number field
C. The text color of a button when tapped in FileMaker Go
D. The inner shadow of a portal that is In Focus in Browse mode
E. The background color of a record in List View when a mouse pointer hovers over it
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B. Indexed timestamp field
C. A text field from a shadow table
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E. A container field defined with the Store as reference only option enabled
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Which two storage options meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. iSCSI
B. NFS
C. Fibre Channel
D. vSAN
Answer: A,C

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The ability to shape inbound (RX) traffic
Support for Private VLANs (PVLANs)
Support for LLDP (Link Layer Discovery Protocol)
What is the minimum vSphere Edition that will support these requirements?
A. vSphere Essentials Plus
B. vSphere Standard
C. vSphere Enterprise
D. vSphere Enterprise Plus
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A. 5.5
B. 5.1
C. 5.0
D. 4.1
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Which two options are available to ensure that the upgraded switch will be compatible with these
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A. Upgrade the vSphere Distributed Switch to 5.5
B. Upgrade the ESXi 5.1 hosts to version 5.5, then upgrade the vSphere Distributed Switch to 5.5
C. Upgrade the vSphere Distributed Switch to 5.1
D. Upgrade the ESXi host switches to 5.5, then upgrade the vSphere Distributed Switch to
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B. Multisite Single Sign-On
C. Basic Single Sign-On
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-- Exhibit --
Which two statements below could explain why the vSphere Client is reporting N/A for
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The physical CPUs in the host do not support hyperthreading.
A. Hyperthreading is disabled in the host's BIOS.
B. The physical CPUs in the host are not multi-core.
C. The number of CPUs meets or exceeds the maximum without hyperthreading.
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NO.7 Which two Identity Sources are available to add for vCenter Single Sign-On authentication?
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A. LocalOS
B. OpenLDAP
C. NIS as an LDAP Server
D. VCMSDS
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A. Private VLAN
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C. Virtual Guest Tagging
D. Virtual Switch Tagging
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NO.1 What defines the link between user and computer resources?
A. Resource Association
B. Resource Data Class
C. Resource Type
D. Resource Link
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which Symantec Management Platform component initiates policy-based communication?
A. Notification Server
B. Symantec Management Agent
C. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
D. Symantec Management Console
Answer: B

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NO.3 A named resource target contains 50 computers in the Sales Department. Several policies and
tasks are applied to this target. An administrator modifies one of these policies by changing this
target so that the policy now applies to 25 computers in the Engineering Department. How are the
policies and tasks affected?
A. Only the policy that the administrator changed is affected; all others only apply to the 50
computers in the Sales Department.
B. Only the policies and tasks that the administrator created are affected and apply to the 25
computers in the Engineering Department.
C. Every policy and task that applies to the target now applies to 75 computers in both the Sales and
Engineering Departments.
D. Every policy and task that applies to the target now only applies to the 25 computers in the
Engineering Department.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What can the administrator use to have resources assigned to specific sites without
administrative intervention and as they register with the Notification Server?
A. Automation policy
B. Active Directory import policy
C. Inventory policy
D. Custom Inventory policy
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which Symantec Management Platform component processes data sent by the Altiris Agent
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A. Symantec Management Console
B. Software Management Framework
C. Notification Server
D. Site Services
Answer: C

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NO.6 Refer to the Exhibit.
An administrator is attempting to set up a replication rule. When the administrator right-clicks the
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create a replication rule?
A. enable Replication
B. access one of the Replication subfolders
C. access the resource and select Replicate Now
D. create a subfolder and access it there
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which two tabs are used to modify security roles in the Symantec Management Console?
(Select two.)
A. Permissions
B. Privileges
C. Rights
D. Security
E. Membership
Answer: B,E

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NO.8 What must an administrator do to edit a sample task?
A. Clone the sample task and edit the original task
B. Right-click and select the task's properties
C. Clone the source folder of the sample
D. Clone the sample task and edit the clone
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which one of the following will the Chief Risk Officer (CRO) care about?
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B. Attracting new capital
C. Portfolio management
D. Meeting regulatory compliance
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C. Through web-based interfaces for always-on connectivity.
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B. Solvency II
C. Basel III
D. Alternative Investment Fund Managers Directive (AIFMD)
Answer: D

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NO.4 Fund managers require a consistent rigorous standard for risk assessment that:
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B. Supports stocks.
C. Supports derivative instruments.
D. Supports fixed income investments.
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NO.5 All North American based hedge funds (subject to size) are impacted by which of the following?
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C. AIFMD - Alternative Investment Fund Managers Directive
D. Basel III
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NO.1 How can an administrator disable Role Based Access Control (RBAC) in a WPAR?
A. Run chattr -E -I sys0 -a enhanced_RBAC=false Reboot the WPAR
B. Run the RBAC wizard and deselect 'Enable RBAC Reboot the system
C. Run chdev -I mywpar -a enhanced_RBAC=false Reboot the Global Environment
D. Run chwpar -a RBAC=false Reboot the WPAR
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the difference between deferred and concurrent firmware updates?
A. Deferred firmware can be applied concurrently but contains updates that affect the internal
program load path, which are not activated until the next time the server is shut down and restarted.
B. Concurrent firmware must be done on all LPARs in the frame at the same time. Deferred
firmware can be loaded on each LPAR at a different time and only becomes active when the LPAR is
shutdown and restarted.
C. Deferred firmware can only be applied during an outage to the managed system as it will
automatically shut the managed system down during its installation.
D. Concurrent firmware is only for minor fixes to the system mircocode while deferred firmware
contains major fixes to the service processor.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which technology provides the maximum amount of usable storage and resilience for a
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A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 6
Answer: C

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NO.4 The following information has been reported in an AIX error log:
How can the administrator prevent the error from reoccurring?
A. Create a secondary dump device greater than 266MB
B. Increase primary dump device size greater than 266MB
C. Increase "/var" file system to ensure it has a minimum of 266MB free space
D. Increase "/var/adm/ras/livedump" file system to ensure it has a minimum of 266MB free space
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is a requirement for Live Partition Mobility?
A. The network and disk must be virtual.
B. The disk must be virtual and a Logical Host Ethernet Adapter (LHEA) for network.
C. The client partition must be connected to a SAN.
D. The client partition must be set up as a 'Mover Service Partition'.
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network. He suspects that it may be caused by a problem in the VLAN configuration.
How would the administrator determine the VLAN for which the adapter was configured?
A. Use the command 'Isdev -I ent0' on the host to determine the port VLAN ID.
B. Use the command 'Isattr-EI ent0' on the host to determine the port VLAN ID.
C. Look on the HMC to determine which VLAN is configured for the adapter.
D. Examine the Shared Ethernet Adapter on the Virtual I/O Server to determine which VLAN the
adapter is using.
Answer: C

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NO.7 An LPAR is configured with strict logical volume mirroring across two disks for resilience. The
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A. varyonvg -n datavg
B. mirrorvg-Q-c 2 datavg
C. mklvcopy -e m -s y (each logical volume name) 2
D. chvg -Qn datavg
Answer: D

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NO.8 After performing a NIM rte install, the administrator noticed that not all filesets are at the
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A. On the NIM server, run an Ippchk to identify if the Software Vital Product Data is valid.
B. On the NIM client, run oslevel command against the TL to identify missing prerequisites.
C. Run instfix command on NIM client to determine what filesets are inconsistent.
D. On the NIM server run the NIM IsIpp command to indentify downlevel filesets contained in the
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NO.1 The customer's legacy system has no functionality to create custom integrations.
Which two options
are available to migrate data from a legacy system to an IBM Maximo asset management
V7.1(MAM)
environment?(Choose two)
A. Export data from the legacy system and import data as a database dump.
B. Directly insert extracted data from the legacy system into the MAM database.by using SQL
statements.
C. Extract data from the legacy system into flat files and use the Maximo Migration Manager
to migrate
the data into MAM.
D. use the data migratiion option in the maximo lntegration Adapter.after having extracted
data from the
legacy sysem into the comma-separated value(CSV)files.
E. Use the data import option in the lntegration Framework.after having extracted f
Answer: BE

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NO.2 Onet or more solutions for each functional gap now have been identified where the
solution requires
one to vary from using standard IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.1.Which two factors are
used to
calculate the impact of each soulution for the project success?(Choose two)
A. length
B. urgency
C. Priority
D. Risk to business
E. difficulty to implement
Answer: DE

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NO.3 Which two methods are available to migrate data from a legacy system to IBM
maximo Asset
management V7.1(MaM)(choose two)?
A. use a data mapping tool to link the legacy database to the MAM data warehouse and
update the MAM
data.
B. Extract data from the legacy system and create SQL.statements to insert the data directly
into the MAM
database.
C. connect the legacy database to the MAM database and synchronize the required data by
using an
external data mapping tool.
D. Extract data from the legacy system to comma-separated value files and use the data
import option of
the lntegration framework
E. restore the legacy database on the MAM database server,connect MAM to the legacy
database.and
reorganize the tables.view.and fields.
Answer: BD

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NO.4 At a high leve1,around which three data levels are IBM Maximo Asset Management
V7.1 functionality
and security built?(Choose three)
A. site
B. system
C. assets
D. Locations
E. Work Order
F. Organization
Answer: ABF

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NO.5 The client requirements outline the need for advanced Asset lifecycle features to
estimate compatible
units or replacement assets,This requirement and other crew management related
requirements are
determined to exceed standard IBM Maximo Asset Management capabilities.Which industry
solution or
add-on provide this and other features?
A. Maximo Linear Assets
B. Maximo for Utilities
C. Maximo for Life Sciences
D. Maximo service Management
Answer: B

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NO.6 At which date level do contracts,Labor,and chart of Accounts reside?
A. set
B. site
C. system
D. organization
Answer: D

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NO.7 A client needs any work order that is created to be categorized by using specific
codes:DF=defact(reactive),DB=breakdown(reactive),RT=routine(planned),SF=safety(planned
).and
CAPEX=capital expenditure (capital).This is to allow the to report the difference between
proactive,recative,and capital works.Which organization option will be use to fefine these
codes?
A. work type
B. categories
C. work options
D. classifications
Answer: A

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NO.8 if a customer has a requirements list,when is the best time to review this list with the
customer and
classify the requirements?
A. at the end of the design phase
B. as the first task of Design phase
C. during the process design workshops
D. at the beginning of the configuration phase
Answer: B

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NO.1 For comparing the x86 IBM Flex System offering with the Cisco UCS offering, a client wants to
know how much energy the IBM Flex System will be consuming. The energy consumption based on
label ratings is not sufficient. What tool would the technical expert use to determine this?
A. The IBM Power Configurator
B. The IBM System Planning Tool
C. The IBM Systems Workload Estimator
D. The IBM Systems Energy Estimator Tool
Answer: A

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NO.2 A client wants to see how the 900 GB 10k drives would be used in a RAID 5 set to migrate their
30 TB of storage. Which tool can the technical expert use to show the layout for Flex System V7000
Storage Node?
A. Disk Magic
B. Capacity Magic
C. TCOnow! for Disk
D. IBM Flex System TCO Analysis
Answer: B

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NO.3 The client has three independent redundant SAN fabrics: One for development, one for
validation and one for production. The client will use a chassis with x240 nodes to connect these
SAN fabrics. What is the best solution for the client?
A. Use two CN4054 adapters and two EN4093 switches, each with two FoD enhancements
B. Use two CN4058 adapters and two CN4093 switches, each with two FoD enhancements
C. Use two CN4058 adapters and four EN4093 switches, each with one FoD enhancement
D. Use one CN4054 adapter, LOM, and four CN4093 switches with FoD enhancements throughout
Answer: D

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NO.4 On a PureFlex system, how can an FSM be recovered if the management software is
inoperable because of misconfiguration or corruption, but the management node hardware is
operational and the hard drives have not failed?
A. Call smcli restore from the FSM CLI to restore the FSM
B. Call IBM Support and request a replacement of the FSM ITE
C. Connect to the Internet, download a new FSM image and install it over the IMM connection to
the FSM
D. Boot while pressing F12 and select the recovery partition as the boot device, then run a full
system recovery
Answer: D

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NO.5 A client has a PureFlex system and needs to upgrade their Flex System V7000 Storage
Node. Which interface would be used to accomplish this?
A. FSM
B. BIOS upgrade
C. Chassis Manager
D. Flex Node Interface GUI
Answer: A

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NO.6 A client has a number of Power servers that are virtualized and boot from FC SAN with dual
VIO servers. The client is considering consolidation of server and network hardware (LAN and SAN)
while maximizing the return on investment by leveraging existing shared FC storage. Which option
meets the client requirements?
A. Utilize FCoE to boot the VIO servers
B. Utilize iSCSI to boot the VIO servers
C. Continue to use FC SAN for the VIO servers
D. Use a pair of internal drives to provide for the VIO servers
Answer: A

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NO.7 A client has a need for a Linux based solution that requires a large amount of memory. The
application runs on either x86 or Power nodes. Which of the following nodes would provide the
maximum memory configuration?
A. p460
B. x440
C. p24L
D. x240
Answer: B

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NO.8 A client wants a PureFlex Express configuration with an additional EN4093R 10Gb Scalable
Switch module for redundancy. The Power nodes in the configuration have four-port 10Gb NICs and
the client applications planned for the Power nodes will require the use of all four of those ports.
What must the technical expert include in the configuration to meet this requirement?
A. An additional pair of EN4093R 10Gb Scalable Switch modules
B. IBM Flex System CN4054 Virtual Fabric Adapter Upgrade for each CN4054 adapter
C. IBM Flex System Fabric EN4093 10Gb Scalable Switch (Upgrade 1) for each switch
D. IBM Flex System Fabric EN4093 10Gb Scalable Switch (Upgrade 2) for each switch
Answer: C

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NO.1 When configuring LUNs for IBM i which is not using VIOS, which of the following is true?
A. LUNs have 512 byte sectors and must match the size of internal drives.
B. LUNs have 520 byte sectors and must match the size of internal drives.
C. LUNs have 512 byte sectors and are limited to 2 TB.
D. LUNs have 520 byte sectors and are limited to 2 TB.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer’s IT department has had problems meeting their backup window. They now
mandate
that a fast backup process be in place before an application is deployed. They have a DS8000 as
their disk subsystem and a TS3500 tape library for backups.
What is the simplest and most effective option to satis1i this requirement?
A. Implement TS1 140 drives
B. ImplementFlashCopy
C. Install Solid state Drives
D. Increase cache size
Answer: B

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NO.3 A new D58000 mixed mainframe and open storage customer would like to connect older open
(2
Gbps) and mainframe servers (4 Gbps) to the DS8000 system’s 8 Gbps host adapters.
How can this be done?
A. through the GUI, adjust the required FOP ports for open to 2 Gbps and the FIOON ports for
mainframe to 4 Gbps link speed
B. the DS8OIJO supports 4 Gbps for mainframe connection; the 2 Gbps open systems connection
must be connected via an intermediate SAN
C. the customer needs to change the server’s HBA5 to an 8 Gbps link speed type
D. the D58000 8 Gbps Host Adapter ports auto-negotiate to 4 Gbps and 2 Gbps link speed
Answer: D

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NO.4 The output of what tool is used as input to Disk Magic to most accurately model a Windows
host
that will be used with an IBM D38000?
A. Jetstress
B. Perimon
C. IOSTAT
D. NMON
Answer: B

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NO.5 A customer has an existing D68800 which is installed in their data center. It now must have an
extra frame added to support additional capacity growth, but there is no room to fit the expansion
frame to the right.
Which option should be taken?
A. Fit the expansion frame to the left of the base frame
B. Configure the expansion frame with the DS8000 Passthrough feature to allow placement of the
frame anywhere
C. Disruptively relocate the D68800 to make space to the right of the base frame for the expansion
frame
D. Create an MES to replace all of the existing capacity with larger drives which support both the
existing workload and the planned increase
Answer: C

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NO.6 On the DS8870, which of the following drive options is a valid Easy Tier hybrid pool?
A. SLO and eMLO SSDs
B. eMLO SSDs and 5,400 RPM drives
C. 7,200 RPM drives
D. 15,000 RPM and 7,200 RPM drives
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following items would suggest that the use of space efficient FlashCopy for the
Global Mirror secondary volume could present an issue?
A. The customer is using Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for Replication to manage Global
Mirror
B. The workload has a large amount of heavy sequential write activity
C. There is a long distance between the primary and secondary sites
D. There are multiple primary disk subsystems in the Global Mirror session
Answer: B

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NO.8 A customer has recently decommissioned their DS8700 wants to use the same data center
floor
space for a new D38 870.
What is an important fact for the technical specialist to discuss with the customer as it relates to
data center requirements?
A. The DS8870 uses more power than the DS8700 so more power cords will need to be ordered.
B. The DS8870 uses a different power connector than the D68700 so new cords will need to be
supplied.
C. Air circulation in the DS8870 has changed and flows back to front so cooling vent locations will
need to be adjusted.
D. The rack dimensions on the DS8870 are larger than the D38700 so more floor space will be
needed.
Answer: B

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