2013年6月30日星期日

TMPTE best EXIN certification exam questions and answers free download

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Exam Code: TMPTE

Exam Name: EXIN (TMap NEXT® Test Engineer)

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NO.1 During the Process Cycle Test, the coverage type paths is used. In which way can coverage be varied
here?
A. by using boundary values
B. by using a higher or lower test depth level
C. by taking equivalence classes into consideration
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which activity is not part of the Completion phase?
A. updating the testware to be preserved
B. assessing test results
C. evaluating the test process
D. selecting the testware to be preserved
Answer: B

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NO.3 See the definition below:
Tests in which the supplying party demonstrates that the product particularly meets the functional and
non-functional specifications and the technical design, among other things.
Of which test level is this the definition?
A. acceptance test
B. development test
C. system test
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is not an advantage of applying a test design technique and recording it in the test specifications?
A. that the tests are reproducible
B. that the test specifications are transferable
C. that coverage of 100% is achieved
D. that it provides a justified elaboration of the test strategy
Answer: C

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NO.5 Under which circumstance can Exploratory Testing be used effectively?
A. when experienced testers with domain knowledge are available
B. when testing must be as brief as possible on the critical path of the project
C. when critical functionality, failure of which can cause severe damage, must be tested
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which defect has an internal cause that can be solved within the test team?
A. a defect in the test basis
B. a defect in the test specification
C. a defect in the test object
Answer: B

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NO.7 A structured testing approach is characterized by:
-providing concrete footholds -covering the full scope and describing the complete range of relevant
aspects -providing a structure, so that it is clear what exactly by whom, when and in what sequence has to
be done
What is the fourth characteristic?
A. it delivers insight into and advice on any risks in respect of the quality of the tested system
B. managing test activities in the context of time, money and quality
C. the testing is on the critical path of the total development, as briefly as possible, so that the total lead
time of development is shortened
D. to find defects at an early stage
Answer: B

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NO.8 See the illustration below:
To test a registration application for a weekend trip, logical test cases must be created in
accordance with the Data Combination Test. In addition, it has been agreed that less depth testing
must be performed. One data pair has been defined that must be fully tested in combination:
-car - attraction
Eight test cases are designed using a classification tree.
Where must the 'bullets' for test case 4 be placed?
A. Saturday, fun park, 2nd
B. Sunday, museum, station
C. Sunday, fun park, station
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which type of tool is used in the Execution phase to test a module or component that has a
relationship with programs that have not yet been realized?
A. code coverage tool
B. comparator
C. 'model-based testing' tool
D. stubs and drivers
Answer: D

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NO.10 In which Map phase activity does the pre-test take place.?
A. Defining central starting points
B. Intake of the test object
C. Specifying the test object intake
D. Executing (re)tests
Answer: B

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Exam Code: EX0-101J

Exam Name: EXIN (ITIL Foundation V 3.0 & ITIL Foundation (EX0-101日本語版))

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NO.1 次のどちらが新しいサービスの実装 を 可能にするために、 サ ービスの移行に渡さ れ る
情報を含んでいますか。
A. サービス? オプション
B. サービストランジ ションパッケージ(STP )
C. サービス? デザイン? パッケージ(SDP )
D. サービス憲章
Answer: C

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NO.2 サー ビス· ライフサイクルのどの段階で、 新たなサービスを動作させるために必要なプ
ロセスが定義されるべきですか。
A. サービス設計:プロセスを設計する。
B. サービス戦略:製 品を開発する
C. サービス移行:配 備のために計画を立てて準備をする。
D. サービスオペレー ション:IT 運用管理
Answer: A

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NO.3 次のリストを考 慮してください:
1. 権限を変更
2. マネージャーを変更
3. 変更諮問委員会(CAB )
下記のどれが上記の項目の最高の説明でしょうか。
A. ジョブの説明
B. 機能
C. チーム
D. 役割、人々または グループ
Answer: D

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NO.4 下記のどれがサ ービス? レベル管理の目的ですか。
A. 現在の IT サービスをサポートするために必要なサービス操作の活動を実施すること
B. 十分なキャパシテ ィーがサービス の合意 されたパフォー マンス を供給するため に提供 さ
れていること を確認すること
C. サービス? カタログ を作成し住むこと
D. IT サービスの合意されたレベルが現在のすべての IT サービスに提供されることを保証す
ること
Answer: D

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NO.5 大事件は、下記 のどれを要求しますか。
A. 別のプロシージャ
B. より少ない緊急
C. より長い時間スケ ール
D. より少ないドキュ メンテーション
Answer: A

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NO.6 下記のどちらが サービス要求の最高の説明ですか。
A. 情報(アドバイス)のための、または、標準的な変化のためのユーザーからの要請
B. 顧客はほしく、代 金を払う用意ができているもののすべて
C. セルフヘルプ Web ベースのインタフェースを介してユーザによって入力されるすべての
要求や需要
D. ローリスクで、 変更諮問委員会(CAB) 会 のない変更マネージャーによって承認することが
できる変更(RFC) の任意 の要請
Answer: A

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NO.7 どのプロセスが IT サービスをモニターし、 パフォーマンスが下記の許容限度を下回る
ときに検知することに関係しますか。
A. サービス資産管理および構成管理
B. イベント管理
C. サービス? カタログ 管理
D. 問題管理
Answer: B

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NO.8 どのプロセスは ビジネス、サービス、コンポーネントのサブプロセスを含みますか。
A. 容量管理
B. インシデント管理
C. サービスレベル管 理
D. 財務管理
Answer: A

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Exam Code: E22-250

Exam Name: EMC (Network Management - Smarts Administration)

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NO.1 There is a firewall between the servers on which the Domain Managers are running. You are
troubleshooting a connectivity issue with the Smarts deployment. Which command is used to verify the
TCP ports on which the Domain Managers are listening?
A.brcontrol
B.sm_ping
C.sm_service show
D.sm_what
Answer:A

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NO.2 Which information is needed by IP Availability Manager to communicate with an EMC Celerra NAS in
addition to its IP address?
A.Control Station port number
B.Data Mover port number
C.Port number
D.Username, password
Answer:D

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NO.3 A switch appears down in Service Assurance Manager. After trying to troubleshoot the problem, an
operator finds out that the switch has been removed from service. Why didn't this switch automatically
become Unmanaged in Smarts?
A.IP Availability Manager needs to be restarted to remove this switch.
B.Other devices that were connected to this switch are still reachable by Smarts.
C.This switch requires rediscovery.
D.Unmanaging devices is a manual process.
Answer:D

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NO.4 Which relationship exists between a card and its ports?
A.ConnectedTo/ConnectedVia
B.HostsAccessPoints/HostedBy
C.MemberSystems/MemberOf
D.Realizes/RealizedBy
Answer:D

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NO.5 A root-cause problem is presented that states one of a router interfaces is down. What is the
underlying issue?
A.Router interface is administratively down and operationally down.
B.Router interface is administratively up and operationally down.
C.Router is completely down.
D.SNMP Agent on that router is not responding.
Answer:B

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button. The current weights.conf file contains: ClassWeight ICIM_ManagedElement 1
Which impact value would be calculated for this Router Down problem?
A.102
B.1000
C.1002
D.10002
Answer:C

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NO.7 A new Windows 2003 Enterprise Server from Vendor XYZ needs to be discovered. The Smarts admin
created an entry for this server in oid2type_Field.conf. .1.3.6.1.4.1.9999.1.12 { TYPE = Switch VENDOR
= XYZ MODEL = Widget5550 CERTIFICATION = TEMPLATE INSTRUMENTATION: Interface-Fault =
MIB2 Interface-Performance = MIB2 } After discovering this new server, which class will it be part of?
A.Host
B.It will not be added to the topology
C.Node
D.Switch
Answer:D

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NO.8 To ensure that Discovery probes every IP address on a Class B IP network you set the Discovery filter
to 10.1.*.*. . However, you see that most devices in that range have not been discovered. Why?
A.MaximumHostBits parameter in discovery.conf is set to 8 by default.
B.Some of those IP addresses do not exist.
C.The systems have been throttled and placed on the Pending Device List.
D.You have run out of licenses.
Answer:A

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NO.9 Which sm_server parameters are required when starting a Service Assurance Manager?
A.--name and --config
B.--name and --port
C.--server and --config
D.--server and --port
Answer:A

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NO.10 Oper1, a user, would like to share a saved map with other users. What does the admin need to do?
A.Copy the saved map to \smarts\local\conf\console folder on the Global Manager
B.Copy the saved map to \smarts\local\conf\consoles folder on the Global Manager
C.Copy the saved map to \smarts\local\console folder on the Global Manager
D.Copy the saved map to \smarts\local\consoles folder on the Global Manager
Answer:D

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NO.11 What does the context filter determine when defining a tool?
A.If the tool is grayed out
B.If the tool is visible
C.The acceptable state for tool use
D.Which attributes are passed
Answer:B

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit button. A router monitored by these polling settings has just been polled, and the
operational status of Interface A is DOWN. Ten seconds after the initial poll, the interface operational
status changes to UP. How long will it take from the last poll for the IP Domain Manager to set this
interface's status to UP?
A.15 minutes
B.700 milliseconds
C.9 seconds
D.900 minutes
Answer:A

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NO.13 At a customer site, many different networks are being managed by a single IP domain, which is
generating many DuplicateIP alerts in SAM. How can you avoid these DuplicateIP alerts?
A.Filter the Duplicate network
B.Use a different IP-AM for each network
C.Use a different SAM for each network
D.Use IP Tagging
Answer:D

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NO.14 Which Performance Monitor Setting will give early warning that an interface is too busy?
A.IPThreshold
B.Restart Trap Window
C.UnicastThreshold
D.UtilizationThreshold
Answer:D

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NO.15 The EMEA NOC, America NOC, and Asia NOC each has visibility to regional NOCs. Each regional
NOC implements one or more Smarts applications and uses its own Smarts Service Assurance Manager
to provide an end-to-end view of the region. What needs to be configured to architect EMC Smarts
solutions to view all regions?
A.Hierarchical SAM configuration
B.Smarts Aggregation Adapter
C.Smarts Topology Split Manager
D.Standard SAM configuration
Answer:A

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NO.16 A customer's environment has many different networks that are being managed by Smarts. As a result
of this there are many DuplicateIP notifications. What is an effect on Smarts of having DuplicateIP
notifications?
A.Each duplicated IP object is unmanaged.
B.IP Domain Manager polls twice as often.
C.Network connections will not be represented correctly.
D.Root-cause analysis of other events will be correlated to these Duplicate IPs.
Answer:A

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NO.17 Which relationship of a switch is expanded to view the instances of its ports, in the Topology Browser?
A.ComposedOf
B.HostConnectionPoints
C.Overlaying
D.PartOf
Answer:A

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NO.18 Which command can be used in a script that will stop the Service Assurance Manager SMARTS-SA?
A.dmquit -s SMARTS-SA --force
B.dmquit -n SMARTS-SA --norestore
C.sm_quit -n SMARTS-SA --norestore
D.sm_quit -s SMARTS-SA --ignore
Answer:A

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NO.19 An organization is looking for a way to effectively scale in an intricate heterogeneous IT environment.
Which part of the Smarts A3 architecture will minimize the manual effort to accomplish this goal?
A.Automation
B.Abstraction
C.Analytics
D.Analysis
Answer:B

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NO.20 Which relationship exists between a card and its ports?
A.ConnectedVia/ConnectedTo
B.PackagedIn/Packages
C.Realizes/RealizedBy
D.Underlying/LayeredOver
Answer:C

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Exam Name: EMC (CLARiiON Solutions Expert Exam for Storage Administrators)

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NO.1 A new CLARiiON arrives at a customer's site and an EMC Customer Engineer performs the physical
installation. The storage administrator is under a lot of pressure to have the array online and in production
by the end of the week. The storage administrator selects several Windows and Solaris servers for the
initial production rollout. The storage requirements have been agreed upon and the storage administrator
creates 30 LUNs of various sizes based upon EMC best practices.
The administrator works with the server team to install HBAs, update settings, install EMC software, and
then perform the necessary cabling and zoning requirements. After the hosts successfully register with
the CLARiiON array, the Windows and Solaris administrators state each server has 30 LUNs allocated.
What does the storage administrator need to accomplish to ensure each server has access to the
appropriate LUNs?
A.Create the appropriate storage groups
B.Disable Access Logix
C.Enable Access Logix
D.Fix the incorrect zones
Answer: C

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NO.2 You are using Replication Manager to make clones of two production Exchange mailbox database
LUNs. After reviewing the event log for the week, you notice there have been numerous failures but no
alerts have been sent out. Replication Manager was configured to send email alerts in case of an
Exchange job failure.
What is preventing the email alerts from being sent out?
A.MAPI32.DLL is missing on the Replication Manager server
B.Outlook was not installed on the Replication Manager server
C.The Replication Manager console was not configured to relay alerts
D.The SMTP service in IIS was not configured on the Replication Manager server
Answer: D

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NO.3 A large financial customer has a time-critical OLTP application running on a dedicated CX3-80. One of
their internal administrators believes they modified something that could have affected the production
LUN. Since then the response time has increased significantly.
What action is the likely cause of the problem?
A.Decreased the high watermark to 75%
B.Enabled auto-assignment
C.Increased queue depth to 128
D.Increased the cache write aside value to 3076
Answer: C

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
While performing a routine check of a CX3-40 with FLARE R26 the storage administrator receives an
error while trying to clear the logs. What is the cause of the error?
A.Host agent is not running
B.The Privileged User List is empty
C.The user is logged in as a security administrator role
D.The user is logged in with a manager role
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer is implementing the Replication Manager/SAN Copy/RepliStor solution for DR of their
Exchange environment. In the process of configuring this solution they need to configure the RM DR
utility to run after the completion of the SAN Copy job.
Which level of IR callout should they use in order for the script to invoke at the proper time?
A.100
B.300
C.400
D.600
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer created two RAID groups, 0 and 2, with the default settings on their CX3-80 and bound
four LUNs in each group. After starting the application the customer notices all I/O is going through SP B.
What caused the LUN imbalance?
A.CX3-80 has a single SP
B.Default setting bound all LUNs on the same SP
C.Host does not have failover software installed
D.Host is not ALUA-aware
Answer: B

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NO.7 A customer was running a snapshot session when they noticed a SP failure. The Source LUN was
owned by the failed SP. What will happen to the session and the Reserved LUN Pool (RLP) LUN?
A.Session continues and the RLP LUNs trespass. After repairing the failed SP, the RLP LUN must be
manually trespassed to the original owning SP.
B.Session continues and the RLP LUNs trespass. After repairing the failed SP, the RLP LUN trespasses
back to the original owning SP.
C.Session gets deactivated and the SP frees the allocated LUN. After fixing the failed SP, the session will
activate and the original RLP LUN will be allocated.
D.Session stops and a new RLP LUN will be allocated on the surviving SP upon fixing the failed SP. The
RLP LUN will trespass back to the original SP and the user must manually restart the session.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer uses multiple server preparation scripts; one for new Exchange servers and one for recovery.
These scripts are used to configure the CLARiiON storage using the Navisphere Secure CLI. The
customer calls and reports that they accidentally ran the new server preparation script instead of the
recovery script they intended to run.
The customer asks for a check to see if their data is still available from CLARiiON storage as they cannot
find their LUNs. The CLARiiON SP event logs show the data in the exhibit. Which method can the
customer use to correct the problem?
A.Rebind base and component LUNs, reform the metaLUN, place the metaLUN in SG for the host, and
recover the data from the backup.
B.Reform the metaLUN from the original base and component LUNs, place the metaLUN in SG for the
host, and recover the data from the backup.
C.Use CLARiiON recovery tools to recover the metaLUN, place the metaLUN in SG for the host, and
recover the data from the backup.
D.Use Navisphere Secure CLI tools to recover base and component LUNs, reform the metaLUN, and
place the metaLUN in SG for the host.
Answer: A

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NO.9 A company has implemented Replication Manager to back up their SQL Server. In addition to clone
copies every 6 hours, they have also implemented SQL Server log backups for a more granular RPO.
Last night, a junior DBA corrupted the production database. After using Replication Manager to restore
the database with no recovery, the senior DBA attempts to replay the transaction log backups but the
database returns an error indicating that no database is in a state to replay logs.
What is the cause of this restore failure?
A.Replication Manager only supports transaction log replay on databases restored with full recovery
B.rmsqlrestore.exe was not used to replay the VDI metadata
C.The restored database's SCN is out of sync with the SQL system databases
D.The transaction log backups have a gap in the sequence of transactions
Answer: B

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
A failure has occurred in a DR environment. The error message is displayed in the exhibit. What must be
done to correct the failure?
A.Add more LUNs to the remote CLARiiON RLP. Restart the synchronization.
B.Destroy the mirror. Add a secondary of the correct size.
C.Enable write cache on the remote CLARiiON Write Intent Logs. Restart the synchronization.
D.Increase the write cache size on the remote CLARiiON.
Answer: A

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NO.11 A company has requested an independent consultant to develop and implement a security model for
the CLARiiON storage platform. The company has limited access to the administrator role by removing
rights for all accounts. However, they would like to keep the single administrator role account for top level
management.
Management of user security should not be done by the administrator role user. In addition, the storage
object administrators should not be able to change user security when using the Secure CLI. CLARiiON
storage systems are located in a protected data center with limited physical access.
Which method should be employed to manage user security?
A.Create a Security Administrator role user and create a Manager role user account for storage object
managers.
B.Create a Security Administrator role user, enable the CLI filter, and create a Manager role user account
for storage object managers.
C.Implement security using PKI certificates, create a Security Administrator role user, and enable the CLI
filter.
D.Implement security using PKI certificates, enable the CLI filter, and create a Manager role user account
for storage object managers.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit button.
A storage administrator is automating a solution using the Navisphere Secure CLI. In the event of
production data corruption, the script needs to recover from the target LUNs.
Which steps should the script perform?
P = Primary
S = Secondary
Snap = Snapshot
A.Unmount P, fracture, roll back Snap, synchronize, promote P, and mount P
B.Unmount P, promote S, fracture, roll back Snap, synchronize, promote P, and mount P
C.Unmount P, roll back Snap, promote S, fracture, synchronize, promote P, and mount P
D.Unmount P, roll back Snap, restore S, and mount P
Answer: B

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NO.13 A customer has a single RAID group with a RAID 1/0 6+6 LUN on a dedicated DAE2. This LUN is
active on SP A. They need to expand with the maximum possible increase in IOPS. The LUN may not go
offline. The customer has a new DAE2 with the same disks.
How should they proceed?
A.Add 12 disks to the current RAID group. Create a new LUN. Create a striped metaLUN.
B.Back up the current LUN. Create a new RAID group and a new LUN on SP B. Present it to the host and
create a LVM plaid. Restore the data.
C.Create a new RAID group and create a new LUN on SP A. Create a concatenated metaLUN.
D.Create a new RAID group and create a new LUN on SP A. Create a striped metaLUN.
Answer: D

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NO.14 A customer is currently using Replication Manager to create clone copies of their SQL Server instance
which are then mounted to a backup server and streamed to tape. The customer has decided to purchase
a second CLARiiON and implement a DR scenario. The DR site is located 30 km away. A dedicated T1
(1.5 Mb) line is leased specifically for DR purposes with measured latencies that average 5-10 ms.
The application is considered mission-critical and as such very little data loss is acceptable. Any solution
implemented must have very little impact on performance. Time will be allowed for the application to be
recovered in the case of a disaster. The implemented solution must also allow for transaction logs to be
replayed in the case of data corruption.
Which DR solution would best fit this scenario?
A.MirrorView/A
B.RepliStor SQL Server Module
C.SQL Log Shipping/Full SAN Copy from the production LUN
D.SQL Log Shipping/Incremental SAN Copy from the production LUN
Answer: C

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NO.15 Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the exhibit, what happened between 05:21 A.M. and 06:56 A.M.?
A.CLARiiON back-end port was disconnected
B.CLARiiON front-end port was disconnected
C.MirrorView connection failed
D.SAN Copy connection failed
Answer: C

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NO.16 A customer has configured SnapView for two LUNs on a DR CLARiiON storage system. When the
client attempts to run the Navisphere Secure CLI command to create the snapshot session, it fails.
In the setup process for using SnapView, which step did the customer forget to do?
A.Allocate LUNs to the Reserved LUN Pool
B.Allocate Write Intent Log
C.Enable Incremental Synchronization
D.Test IP link latency
Answer: A

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NO.17 A large warehousing company has two CLARiiONs with two LUNs set up and each is mirrored with
MirrorView/A over DWDM. The two sites are less than 1 km away.
The company is currently running an OLTP database on a 300 GB RAID 1/0 4+4 LUN and its logging on a
150 GB RAID 1/0 4+4 LUN. The I/O read/write ratio is 2:1 with a 2 kB average I/O size.
The customer notices that at peak times the latency becomes an issue as their users start to complain
about poor performance. What is your recommendation?
A.Check the fibre for faults
B.Upgrade the CLARiiON model
C.Use Incremental SAN Copy
D.Use MirrorView/S
Answer: D

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NO.18 Click the Exhibit button.
While performing a routine check of a CX3-40 with FLARE R26 the storage administrator receives an
error while trying to clear the logs. What is the cause of the error?
A.Host agent is not running
B.The Privileged User List is empty
C.The user is logged in as a security administrator role
D.The user is logged in with a manager role
Answer: D

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NO.19 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer wants to create an additional 250 GB LUN on their existing RAID 6 group. How can this be
accomplished?
A.Create the LUN on another RAID 6 group using concatenation
B.Defragment the RAID group and bind the additional LUN
C.Destroy the RAID group and create the new LUNs
D.Expand the RAID group to increase the available space
Answer: A

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NO.20 A customer uses Incremental SAN Copy (ISC) as part of a DR solution. They have configured the
Reserved LUN Pool (RLP). They are adapting their environment to support different failure scenarios.
Which combination of failures is most serious?
A.A failure of the ISC update followed by a failure of the production LUN
B.A failure of the ISC update followed by a failure of the remote LUN
C.A failure of the link followed by a failure of the remote RLP
D.A failure of the RLP on the remote CLARiiON followed by a failure of the remote LUN
Answer: A

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NO.21 Click the Exhibit button.
While performing a routine check of a CX3-40 with FLARE R26 the storage administrator receives an
error while trying to clear the logs. What is the cause of the error?
A.Host agent is not running
B.The Privileged User List is empty
C.The user is logged in as a security administrator role
D.The user is logged in with a manager role
Answer: D

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NO.22 Click the Exhibit button.
While performing a routine check of a CX3-40 with FLARE R26 the storage administrator receives an
error while trying to clear the logs. What is the cause of the error?
A.Host agent is not running
B.The Privileged User List is empty
C.The user is logged in as a security administrator role
D.The user is logged in with a manager role
Answer: D

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NO.23 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer wants to create an additional 250 GB LUN on their existing RAID 6 group. How can this be
accomplished?
A.Create the LUN on another RAID 6 group using concatenation
B.Defragment the RAID group and bind the additional LUN
C.Destroy the RAID group and create the new LUNs
D.Expand the RAID group to increase the available space
Answer: A

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NO.24 A customer has recently upgraded their CLARiiON to FLARE R26. What software and configuration
changes must the storage administrator ensure are in place to take advantage of the Asymmetric
Active/Active features of the software?
A.PowerPath 5.0; and change all initiators to use Failover mode 2
B.PowerPath 5.0; disable ArrayCommPath, and change all initiators to use Failover mode 4
C.PowerPath 5.1; and change all initiators to use Failover mode 4
D.PowerPath 5.1; disable Array CommPath, and change all host initiators to use Failover mode 3
Answer: C

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NO.25 A customer created two RAID groups, 0 and 2, with the default settings on their CX3-80 and bound
four LUNs in each group. After starting the application the customer notices all I/O is going through SP B.
What caused the LUN imbalance?
A.CX3-80 has a single SP
B.Default setting bound all LUNs on the same SP
C.Host does not have failover software installed
D.Host is not ALUA-aware
Answer: B

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NO.26 Click the Exhibit button.
What is true of LUN 3?
A.Disk crossings are excessively high
B.Disk utilization is above the best practices threshold
C.The host data is misaligned
D.The number of stripe crossings indicates a large I/O size
Answer: C

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NO.27 Click the Exhibit button.
You are the SAN Administrator at a company. The company is running multiple Exchange Server 2007
storage groups on a CLARiiON array that exclusively uses 15k rpm 146 GB drives. You have been tasked
with adding a third Exchange storage group with one mailbox store to the existing server.
The storage for this new Exchange storage group must be allocated from the same CLARiiON currently
running the other two Exchange storage groups. All Exchange storage groups are presently exhibiting a
1:1 read/write ratio. The new storage group will require capacity identical to the existing Exchange
storage groups.
The table below, as well as the exhibit, indicates the current utilization of the array.w`V6a2tYJ%&,*In
order to satisfy the capacity requirements (GB and IOPS), in which RAID group must you create a
database LUN for the new Exchange storage group?
A.0
B.10
C.20
D.30b
Answer: C

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NO.28 A new CLARiiON arrives at a customer's site and an EMC Customer Engineer performs the physical
installation. The storage administrator is under a lot of pressure to have the array online and in production
by the end of the week. The storage administrator selects several Windows and Solaris servers for the
initial production rollout. The storage requirements have been agreed upon and the storage administrator
creates 30 LUNs of various sizes based upon EMC best practices.
The administrator works with the server team to install HBAs, update settings, install EMC software, and
then perform the necessary cabling and zoning requirements. After the hosts successfully register with
the CLARiiON array, the Windows and Solaris administrators state each server has 30 LUNs allocated.
What does the storage administrator need to accomplish to ensure each server has access to the
appropriate LUNs?
A.Create the appropriate storage groups
B.Disable Access Logix
C.Enable Access Logix
D.Fix the incorrect zones
Answer: C

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NO.29 A customer is reporting a problem with a physical disk. Examining the SP Event Log shows errors for
LUN 16. Data is being gathered from a UNIX host used for storage management. The host does not have
the capability to run the Navisphere Web UI.
To determine the underlying disk structure, which Navisphere Secure CLI subcommand can be used to
determine if LUN 16 is being affected?
A.getdisk
B.getinfo
C.getlun
D.getrg
Answer: C

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NO.30 A customer has been tasked with copying 50 LUNs between two CLARiiONs using SAN Copy. The
customer starts the sessions selecting all defaults. The resulting copies appear to be taking an
unexpectedly long time.
Which settings should be increased to improve performance?
A.Reserved LUN Pool Size, Concurrent sessions
B.Throttle Value, Concurrent sessions
C.Throttle Value, Reserved LUN Pool Size
D.Write cache, Reserved LUN Pool
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which third-party product available from EMC is commonly deployed with TaskSpace to provide
document viewing, redaction, and redlining?
A. Workshare DeltaView
B. Informative Graphics Brava!
C. Adobe Acrobat Reader
D. Documentum Image Services
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which xCP component executes automatic runtime activities such as Queue Item Prioritization and
Outbound System Integration activities?
A. TaskSpace
B. Process Engine
C. Process Integrator
D. Content Server
Answer: B

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NO.3 After defining a package, a developer selects the This package can be used to generate reports check
box.
Where does the application developer enable audit trail settings to publish reporting data?
A. Process Reporting Services
B. the process template
C. TaskSpace
D. the package definition
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which core xCP component is responsible for aggregating business process reporting information?
A. Process Reporting Services
B. Business Activity Monitor
C. Process Engine
D. Documentum Reporting Services
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which component is responsible for executing outbound data/messaging activity templates from the
Process Integrator?
A. Business Process Server
B. SMTP Server
C. Content Server
D. Java Method Server
Answer: D

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NO.6 A manual activity is designed with performer setting as All users in a group.
Which statement represents the server behavior?
A. A work item is generated for each user in the group and an inbox item is also generated for each user
in the group.
B. A work item is generated for each user in the group but no inbox item is generated.
C. A work item is generated for each user in the group, but only one inbox item is generated for the entire
group.
D. One work item is generated for the entire group and an inbox item is generated for each user in the
group.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Where can an application developer enable tracing for Composer to monitor building or importing a
project?
A. dfc.properties
B. log4j.properties
C. Eclipse preferences
D. composer.properties
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is part of the xCP runtime architecture?
A. Process Integrator
B. Process Reporting Services
C. Process Builder
D. TaskSpace Configuration
Answer: A

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NO.9 A medical supply company has a product approval workflow where the unique product ID must be
exposed to TaskSpace users in the task list template.
What is the EMC best practice for exposing the ID in the task list template?
A. Customize the query that populates the task list template.
B. Put the product ID into a structured data type.
C. Customize the task list template using the WDK XML configuration.
D. Mark the package data as reportable for BAM.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Where are exceptions from Inbound Activity templates logged?
A. bpm-runtime.log
B. bps.log
C. documentum.log
D. server.log
Answer: B

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NO.11 During single-user testing, the task list of a TaskSpace application takes over 10 seconds to render.
What is the EMC recommended method for an application developer to identify the DQL queries that may
be the cause of the problems?
A. Turn on database level tracing and give the trace data to an experienced DBA.
B. Enable DFC tracing on the TaskSpace application server and convert the trace file to an Excel-friendly
format using traceD6.awk.
C. Install a proxy on the client machine and monitor the traffic with the TaskSpace application server
when clicking on the task list.
D. Set the last_sql_trace flag in the repository's server.ini on the Content Server and obtain all the queries
from the server log file.
Answer: B

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NO.12 An application developer needs to create a business process template that allows a user to modify
individual task instructions for new process instances without having to uninstall the process template.
How should the task instructions be stored?
A. in text documents stored in the repository
B. in a structured data type
C. in process variables
D. in process parameters
Answer: D

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NO.13 A manual activity has a Pre-Timer defined to send an email notification.
Which task condition for the activity will trigger the email notification?
A. The task is not completed within the specified time after the workflow starts.
B. The task is not completed within the specified time once the activity is created.
C. The task is not created within the specified time after the completion of the previous activity.
D. The task is not created within the specified time after the workflow starts.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Where are exceptions from Outbound Activity templates logged?
A. bpm.log
B. log4j.log
C. bps.log
D. server.log
Answer: A

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NO.15 An application developer is creating a business process template and needs to ensure that certain
pieces of data that are included within a structured data type will be persisted in the repository after the
workflow completes.
To which location should the structured data type data be mapped?
A. process parameters
B. process variables
C. attributes of a package
D. no mapping is required
Answer: C

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NO.16 Users access documents by searching for them using a fulltext query. The query could potentially
return hundreds of thousands of documents; however users are only allowed to access those that were
generated within the user ¯ s o w n depa rt m en t, w h i ch i s a s m a ll nu m be r o f docu m en t s . A ccess i s con tr o ll ed
using an ACL that grants appropriate access by department.
Which data modeling approach will significantly improve the response time for the query without changing
the query semantics?
A. Modify the query to run at the database rather than the fulltext server.
B. Ensure that the ACL assigned to documents does not contain a large number of accessors.
C. Modify the ACL to restrict, rather than grant, access using the access restrictions feature of Trusted
Content Services.
D. Add an attribute value to documents that indicates the originating department and modify the query to
filter on this attribute.
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which xCP component is responsible for providing page serving and managing annotations on
documents?
A. Documentum Collaboration Services
B. Documentum PDF Annotation Services
C. Document Image Services
D. TaskSpace
Answer: C

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NO.18 An insurance claims process invokes a child process that is used to determine whether the person
making the claim has secondary insurance. During the child process, a Boolean value,
has_other_insurance, is set by a task processor.
How should the has_other_insurance data item be defined so that the data can be shared between the
parent process and child process?
A. as a process parameter
B. as a structured data type
C. as a simple process variable
D. as an attribute of a package
Answer: D

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NO.19 Case workers access a TaskSpace Task List component in order to determine the most important
tasks to work on each day. Workers will filter their task list by two required data fields: Request_date:
DATE
Income: FLOAT
A value in both fields is required in order to sufficiently minimize the number of cases shown in the case
worker's task list.
How must request_date and income be defined to minimize the response time for the task list display?
A. as simple process variables
B. within separate structured data types
C. within the same structured data type
D. as attributes within package data
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which optional xCP product provides document capture and indexing from a customizable web
interface?
A. Informative Graphics Brava!
B. Application Xtender
C. Kofax Capture Enterprise
D. Captiva eInput
Answer: D

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Exam Code: EVP-101

Exam Name: EMC (2011 VSE Backup and Recovery Product and Technology Test)

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NO.1 Please check the option that best describes your relationship with EMC:
A. EMC Employee
B. EMC Customer/Partner
C. Other
Answer: B

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NO.2 In NetWorker integration with Data Domain Boost, in which component does the processing handled by
the DD Boost library occur?
A. NetWorker storage node
B. Data Domain system
C. NetWorker server
D. NetWorker client
Answer: D

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NO.3 In order to quickly identify segments, what is stored in Data Domain along with data segments?
A. Fingerprint
B. Parity bit
C. File catalog
D. Protection bit map
Answer: A

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Exam Code: E20-545

Exam Name: EMC (VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Technology Architects)

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NO.1 You are supporting a customer whose VNX hostname has recently changed. Immediately after this
change, the VNX administrators begin to receive certificate errors when they attempt to connect to the
array. You need to advise them on how to regenerate the Control Station ¯ s ce rtifi ca t e au t ho rit y and w b
server certificates.
Which command should be used?
A. server_certificate
B. server_security
C. nas_ca_certificate
D. nas_license
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which RAID type can be expanded?
A. RAID 5
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 6
Answer: A

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NO.3 What monitoring option is used to generate file-related notifications based on a user-defined threshold?
A. Notification Logs for File
B. Background Tasks for File
C. Event Logs for File
D. Statistics for File
Answer: A

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NO.4 What are the available Usermapper roles?
A. Primary, secondary, and client
B. Primary, local, and remote
C. Local, remote, and client
D. Active, passive, and standby
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is a valid statement about the characteristics of certificates on the VNX system?
A. Default certificates are in place for SP A, SP B, Control Station(s), and Data Movers
B. Default certificates area self-signed 1024-bit RSA keys
C. All certificates are self-signed
D. Default certificates are self-signed 2048-bit RSA keys
Answer: D

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NO.6 According to EMC best practices, how many secondary Usermappers are recommended in a multiple
VNX array environment?
A. One per VNX array
B. One per Data Mover
C. One per additional VNX array
D. One per VNX environment
Answer: C

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NO.7 When using the provisioning wizard, how many RAID group options are available?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 6
Answer: C

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NO.8 When generating a Certificate Signing Request (CSR), what is a valid statement about the certificate?
A. The Public key must be an RSA key.
B. The certificate must be set to expire within 20 years.
C. The subject ¯ s O r gan i za ti ona l U n it N a m e m us t be se t t o VNX .
D. The subject ¯ s co mm on na m e m us t be se t t o t he C on tr o l S t a ti o ¡ ¯s IP ad dr es s
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which drive type benefits least from enabling FAST Cache?
A. Flash
B. NL-SAS
C. SAS
D. SATA
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is the length of RSA keys used to encrypt and decrypt network traffic in a VNX environment?
A. 2048 bits
B. 1024 bits
C. 2048 bytes
D. 1024 bytes
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which protocol does VNX support for encrypted network management activities.?
A. SSH
B. PKI
C. IPSec
D. LDAP
Answer: A

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NO.12 What command produces audit summaries for the Control Station?
A. /sbin/aureport
B. /sbin/ausearch
C. /sbin/auditctl
D. /sbin/service
Answer: A

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NO.13 In order to ensure that role-based access is enforced, the VNX storage domain has implemented two
administrative groups called Auditors and Storage Admins. One of the administrators is a member of both
groups. What access to objects will that administrator inherit?
A. The least restrictive privilege established by the two groups
B. The most restrictive privilege established by the two groups
C. The first group that the administrator joined
D. The last group that the administrator joined
Answer: A

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NO.14 What monitoring option is used for file system and network performance?
A. Background Tasks for File
B. Statistics for File
C. Event Logs for File
D. Notification Logs for File
Answer: B

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NO.15 You are proposing a storage solution using a VNX system. What will you tell the storage administrator
about the default setting for VNX IP address filtering?
A. Access is limited to a single Unisphere client.
B. IP address filtering does not restrict any access.
C. IP address filtering is not installed by default.
D. IP address filtering prevents all communications until the VNX system is configured.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: E20-007

Exam Name: EMC (Data Science and Big Data Analytics)

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NO.1 When would you use GROUP BY ROLLUP clause in your OLAP query?
A. where all subtotals and grand totals are to be included in the output
B. where only the subtotals are to be included in the output
C. where only the grand totals are to be included in the output
D. where only specific subtotals and grand totals for a combination of variables are to be included in the
output
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which type of numeric value does a logistic regression model estimate?
A. Probability
B. A p-value
C. Any integer
D. Any real number
Answer: A

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NO.3 In data visualization, what is used to focus the audience on a key part of a chart?
A. Emphasis colors
B. Detailed text
C. Pastel colors
D. A data table
Answer: A

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NO.4 A data scientist plans to classify the sentiment polarity of 10, 000 product reviews collected from the
Internet. What is the most appropriate model to use? Suppose labeled training data is available.
A. Na ve Bayesian classifier
B. Linear regression
C. Logistic regression
D. K-means clustering
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are using MADlib for Linear Regression analysis. Which value does the statement return?
SELECT (linregr(depvar, indepvar)).r2 FROM zeta1;
A. Goodness of fit
B. Coefficients
C. Standard error
D. P-value
Answer: A

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NO.6 When creating a presentation for a technical audience, what is the main objective?
A. Show that you met the project goals
B. Show how you met the project goals
C. Show if the model will meet the SLA
D. Show the technique to be used in the production environment
Answer: B

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NO.7 In which lifecycle stage are test and training data sets created?
A. Model building
B. Model planning
C. Discovery
D. Data preparation
Answer: A

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NO.8 What does the R code
z <- f[1:10, ]
do?
A. Assigns the first 10 rows of f to the vector z
B. Assigns the 1st 10 columns of the 1st row of f to z
C. Assigns a sequence of values from 1 to 10 to z
D. Assigns the 1st 10 columns to z
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is an appropriate data visualization to use in a presentation for an analyst audience?
A. Pie chart
B. Area chart
C. Stacked bar chart
D. ROC curve
Answer: D

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NO.10 Consider a database with 4 transactions:
Transaction 1: {cheese, bread, milk}
Transaction 2: {soda, bread, milk}
Transaction 3: {cheese, bread}
Transaction 4: {cheese, soda, juice}
The minimum support is 25%. Which rule has a confidence equal to 50%?
A. {bread,milk} => {cheese}
B. {bread} => {milk}
C. {juice} => {soda}
D. {bread} => {cheese}
Answer: D

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NO.11 Your company has 3 different sales teams. Each team's sales manager has developed incentive offers
to increase the size of each sales transaction. Any sales manager whose incentive program can be
shown to increase the size of the average sales transaction will receive a bonus.
Data are available for the number and average sale amount for transactions offering one of the incentives
as well as transactions offering no incentive.
The VP of Sales has asked you to determine analytically if any of the incentive programs has resulted in a
demonstrable increase in the average sale amount. Which analytical technique would be appropriate in
this situation?
A. One-way ANOVA
B. Multi-way ANOVA
C. Student's t-test
D. Wilcoxson Rank Sum Test
Answer: A

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NO.12 What would be considered "Big Data"?
A. An OLAP Cube containing customer demographic information about 100,000,000 customers
B. Daily Log files from a web server that receives 100,000 hits per minute
C. Aggregated statistical data stored in a relational database table
D. Spreadsheets containing monthly sales data for a Global 100 corporation
Answer: B

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NO.13 Consider a database with 4 transactions:
Transaction 1: {cheese, bread, milk}
Transaction 2: {soda, bread, milk}
Transaction 3: {cheese, bread}
Transaction 4: {cheese, soda, juice}
You decide to run the association rules algorithm where minimum support is 50%. Which rule has a
confidence at least 50%?
A. {cheese} => {bread}
B. {juice} => {cheese}
C. {milk} => {soda}
D. {soda} => {milk}
Answer: A

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NO.14 In R, functions like plot() and hist() are known as what?
A. generic functions
B. virtual methods
C. virtual functions
D. generic methods
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which word or phrase completes the statement? Data-ink ratio is to data visualization as __________ .
A. Confusion matrix is to classifier
B. Data scientist is to big data
C. Seasonality is to ARIMA
D. K-means is to Naive Bayes
Answer: A

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NO.16 Your colleague, who is new to Hadoop, approaches you with a question. They want to know how best
to access their data. This colleague has a strong background in data flow languages and programming.
Which query interface would you recommend?
A. Pig
B. Hive
C. Howl
D. HBase
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which data asset is an example of quasi-structured data.?
A. Webserver log
B. XML data file
C. Database table
D. News article
Answer: A

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NO.18 You are using the Apriori algorithm to determine the likelihood that a person who owns a home has a
good credit score. You have determined that the confidence for the rules used in the algorithm is > 75%.
You calculate lift = 1.011 for the rule, "People with good credit are homeowners". What can you determine
from the lift calculation?
A. Support for the association is low
B. Leverage of the rules is low
C. The rule is coincidental
D. The rule is true
Answer: C

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NO.19 Under which circumstance do you need to implement N-fold cross-validation after creating a
regression model?
A. There is not enough data to create a test set.
B. The data is unformatted.
C. There are missing values in the data.
D. There are categorical variables in the model.
Answer: A

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NO.20 The web analytics team uses Hadoop to process access logs. They now want to correlate this data
with structured user data residing in a production single-instance JDBC database. They collaborate with
the production team to import the data into Hadoop. Which tool should they use?
A. Sqoop
B. Pig
C. Chukwa
D. Scribe
Answer: A

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