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Exam Code: HP0-S16
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP BladeSystem)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 63 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 Which processors use a 64-bit x86-based architecture? (Select two.)
A. Intel Itanium
B. AMD Opteron
C. Intel Pentium IV
D. Intel Pentium M
E. Intel Xeon Quad Core
Answer: BE

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NO.2 How is BladeSystem Integrated Manager installed by default?
A. as part of a SmartStart installation
B. with the initial installation of HP SIM
C. as an add-on after HP SIM is installed
D. with a separate license key in HP SIM
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which options exist when you enable HP NIC teaming? (Select two.)
A. fault tolerance
B. CISCO Layer 4 teaming
C. socket layered balancing
D. NIC assisted load balancing
E. switch assisted load balancing
Answer: AE

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NO.4 What is the standard HP warranty on optional components such as mezzanines, fans, and power
supplies?
A. 1-1-1 (1 year parts; 1 year labor; 1 year onsite limited global warranty)
B. 3-3-3 (3 year parts; 3 year labor; 3 year onsite limited global warranty)
C. 1-0-0 (1 year parts limited global warranty or the system warranty, whichever is longer)
D. 1-1-0 (1 year parts limited global warranty or the system warranty, whichever is longer; 1 year labor)
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the minimum number of power supplies required in a BladeSystem c-Class when using
threephase
power?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the function of ECC memory?
A. It only detects single-bit errors.
B. It detects and corrects single-bit errors.
C. It detects multi-bit errors within a single DRAM chip.
D. It detects and corrects multi-bit errors within a single DRAM chip.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which HP server blade uses the Itanium processor?
A. SB40c
B. BL485c
C. BL685c
D. BL860c
E. BL2x220c
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which Onboard Administrator is the primary by default?
A. the left one
B. the right one
C. the active one
D. the first one installed
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which HP BladeSystem c-Class server blades support HP-UX? (Select two.)
A. BL465c
B. BL680c
C. BL685c
D. BL860c
E. BL870c
F. BL2x220c
Answer: DE

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NO.10 Which storage technology is used with Serial Attached SCSI?
A. NUMA
B. shared bus
C. one-to-many
D. point-to-point
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-Y16
Exam Name: HP (ProCurve Network Immunity Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 88 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 You want to set up different external alerts based on the specific type of threat. Which settings can
help you accomplish this task? (Select two.)
A. Trap ID
B. Severity
C. Description
D. Anomaly ID
E. Violation Count
Answer: AC

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NO.2 What is the intended purpose of the default traffic sampling action of ProCurve NIM?
A. to prevent ProCurve NIM from triggering false positives
B. to help PCM+/NIM periodically begin to monitor new ports
C. to send traffic for increased analysis to an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
D. to allow ProCurve NIM to take immediate action against the most probable threats
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which misconfiguration on PCM+ causes ProCurve NIM to fail to detect any anomalies in traffic?
A. the wrong sFlow version
B. an incorrect operator password
C. an incorrect manager password
D. an incorrect SNMP community name
Answer: D

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
What are reasons to configure the policy settings shown in the exhibit? (Select two.)
A. You want the policy to respond to threats from offenders within this group.
B. You want ProCurve NIM to apply the policy for threats detected in this group.
C. You have set the policy to a source group, so you must set the target group to match.
D. You want to enable dynamic local port mirroring on set ports, which compose this group.
E. The policy action is MAC Lockout, and you want to lock the offender out of the entire group.
Answer: DE

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the information shown in the exhibit, what do you know about alerts on the 10.1.1.1 device over the
last five hours? (Note: The orange color corresponds with Major severity.)
A. The device has received only Major alerts.
B. The majority of alerts on the device are Major alerts.
C. The highest severity for an alert on this device is Major.
D. The most recent alert received on the device was a Major alert.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
Which port in the exhibit should you select in PCM+ and configure as the mirror destination?
A. 1
B. A6
C. X0
D. B16
E. 25-48
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which statement is true about the role that events play in ProCurve NIM?
A. When a particular event occurs, ProCurve NIM executes the corresponding alert.
B. When a particular event occurs, ProCurve NIM executes the corresponding policy.
C. When a particular number of events occur within a set time window, ProCurve NIM triggers the
corresponding alert.
D. When a particular number of events occur within a set time window, ProCurve NIM triggers the
corresponding policy.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What should you do to set up your network infrastructure for remote mirroring?
A. Enable jumbo frames.
B. Enable frame fragmentation.
C. Raise the maximum transmit unit (MTU).
D. Reserve uplink ports for the mirroring session.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which alert can be triggered by SNMP traps sent by ProCurve switches?
A. default External
B. default IP Fanout
C. default IP Spoofing
D. default Virus Throttle
E. default ProCurve SNMP
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which features are provided in a ProCurve NIM standalone deployment? (Select two.)
A. threat mitigation without the aid of PCM+
B. resetting of TCP sessions when threats are detected
C. signature-based detection of worms and other attacks
D. applying mitigation actions near the source of the threat
E. application of different policies based on the threat's place of origin
Answer: DE

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NO.11 You want to display and print a list of all events related to the Policy Manager. What should you do?
A. From the Reports menu, select the Policy Events report.
B. In Interconnect Devices, click the Events tab; filter for Policy Manager; click the Print button.
C. From the Reports menu, select the Events report; filter for Policy Manager in the Report Wizard.
D. In Network Management Home, click the Events tab; filter for Policy Manager; click the Print button.
Answer: D

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NO.12 When should the unified NIM + IDS deployment option be used?
A. to take immediate action to protect key resources and also track threats to the source
B. to add threat protection to the features of ProCurve NIM, which include only threat detection
C. to allow ProCurve NIM to mirror suspicious traffic to an external device for additional analysis
D. to protect against threats from wireless devices, which ProCurve NIM is not able to do on its own
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which statement is true about setting up an action for dynamic remote mirroring?
A. You should configure the mirror source before configuring the action.
B. You should configure the mirror destination before configuring the action.
C. You configure both the mirror source and destination as part of configuring the action.
D. You should configure both the mirror source and destination before configuring the action.
Answer: B

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NO.14 What might indicate that the sensitivity for IP fanout has been set too high?
A. IP Fanout events appear in the Events tab for almost every switch.
B. Although you do not see IP Fanout events, the IP Fanout alert triggers.
C. IP Fanout events appear in the Events tab for one switch but not others.
D. There are no IP Fanout events for days although you have configured an IP Fanout alert.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which tab is added to PCM+ when you install ProCurve NIM?
A. Policy Events
B. Security Audit
C. Event Browser
D. Security Activity
Answer: D

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NO.16 What must you do to configure a Port Rate Limit action?
A. Set the rate limit as a percentage.
B. Set the rate limit as a QoS priority value.
C. Set the rate limit as an absolute value in Kbps.
D. Enable the limit, leaving the rate to be determined by the switch configuration.
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which events can be signs of an unauthorized port scan? (Select two.)
A. Port Anomaly
B. DNS Tunneling
C. TCP/UDP Fanout
D. UDP Protocol Anomaly
E. TCP Protocol Anomaly
Answer: CE

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NO.18 How do you configure PCM+ to generate periodic reports?
A. Select the Reports button in the global toolbar.
B. Enable the periodic reports setting in PCM+ Preferences.
C. Configure the schedule in the appropriate Reports Wizard.
D. Create policies with schedule-driven alerts and report actions.
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which action can help you troubleshoot a policy in realtime from PCM?
A. Port Mirror
B. Notify (Email)
C. Message Dialog
D. Traffic Sampling
Answer: C

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NO.20 By default, which NBAD event will trigger traffic sampling on a port?
A. Duplicate IP
B. Virus Throttle
C. Protocol Anomaly
D. Packet Size Deviation
Answer: D

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NO.21 Which threat mitigation action is supported on ProCurve wireless devices?
A. Port Disable
B. MAC Lockout
C. Port Rate Limit
D. Quarantine VLAN
Answer: B

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NO.22 How does a ProCurve Network Immunity Solution protect a network?
A. It deals with threats from authorized users.
B. It stops unauthorized users from connecting.
C. It customizes users' rights based on their identity.
D. It filters Web content and email while searching for viruses.
Answer: A

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NO.23 What is a reason to create a custom group for a server zone and set that group as the source for a NIM
policy?
A. Servers handle more mission-critical traffic, so you set less drastic actions.
B. Servers trigger more false positives, so you set the NBAD sensitivities lower.
C. Threats are targeted to servers at all times, so you set the policy to any time.
D. Threats that are targeted to servers are more serious, so you set harsher actions.
Answer: A

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NO.24 ProCurve NIM was registering few TCP/UDP Fanout events. You have raised the sensitivity, and
many false positive TCP/UDP Fanout events are now triggered throughout the network. What should you
do next? (Select two.)
A. Lower the sensitivity to the previous level.
B. Remove the TCP/UDP alert from all policies.
C. Plan and create a Policy Manager policy to deal with false positive events.
D. Exclude the devices triggering the false positive events from the TCP/UDP fanout.
Answer: AD

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NO.25 What is a feature of anomaly-based threat detection but not signature-based threat detection?
A. detecting worms
B. detecting DoS attacks
C. detecting protocol anomalies
D. detecting undocumented attacks
Answer: D

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NO.26 A network already has an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) that is installed between a group of
servers and the rest of the network. Which benefits does ProCurve NIM add in a NIM + IPS deployment?
(Select two.)
A. deep packet inspection
B. signature-based detection
C. remediation of infected endpoints
D. protection for other resources throughout the network
E. applies actions closer to the point of origin of the attack
Answer: DE

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NO.27 Your company's regulatory compliance group has asked you for a record of changes to the Policy
Manager policies. Which report should you generate?
A. Security Audit
B. Actions by Policy
C. Executed Policies
D. Automation (Policy) History
Answer: C

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NO.28 How does ProCurve NIM determine the severity level for a security alert?
A. from the violation count for the associated event
B. from the event, and the severity cannot be overridden
C. from the event, unless overridden by the alert configuration
D. from the event for trap events and from the alert configuration for other events
Answer: C

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NO.29 Click the Exhibit button.
You are configuring a Quarantine VLAN action.
Which area in the exhibit displays settings that allow ProCurve NIM to always place the offender in the
Quarantine VLAN?
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Answer: D

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NO.30 From which NBAD event should you often exclude your servers?
A. DNS Tunneling
B. TCP/UDP Fanout
C. Protocol Anomaly
D. Packet Size Deviation
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-F01
Exam Name: HP (Technical Essentials of HP Enterprise Products)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 128 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 Your customer wants to connect an MSA1500cs storage array to a ProLiant server
running SuSE Linux operating system. Which two references can be used to verify the
solution is supported? (Select two.)
A. HP SAN Design Reference Guide
B. HP Integrity Product Information Tool
C. Performance Quick Reference Tool
D. HP Product Bulletin
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 An enterprise customer needs the ability to manage their HP Integrity rx8620 using more
than one console. Which feature will meet this need?
A. Remote Insight LightsOut Edition II (RILOE II)
B. Transfer of Control (TOC)
C. Management Processor LAN (iLO MP)
D. Serial Port Redirection (SPR)
Answer: C

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NO.3 What option is needed in order to stack multiple MSL tape libraries together?
A. universal pass-through mechanism
B. second Fabric switch
C. cluster
D. SCSI splitter
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which two tape technologies provide read compatibility for two previous generations?
(Select two.)
A. AIT
B. SDLT
C. SLR
D. LTO
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Which virtualization technology maximizes client connectivity uptime and security in the
Proliant server platform?
A. HP Auto Port Aggregation using 1000SX network card
B. HP Clustered NIC in each server
C. Adapter teaming in the server with VLAN functionality
D. Virtual Cluster for NIC in the server
Answer: C

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NO.6 In an HP OpenView Data Protector solution, which component contains the database and
executes the core services?
A. cell manager
B. console server
C. media server
D. disk agent
Answer: A

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NO.7 The customer just purchased ten ProLiant DL380 G5 servers located at a remote location.
What can they use to gain graphical console access to the servers and power them on or
off from a central location?
A. ProLiant Multifunction Network Interface Card
B. integrated Lights-Out 2 Standard Blade Edition
C. ProLiant Lights-Out 100i
D. integrated Lights-Out 2 Advanced Pack
Answer: D

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NO.8 Your customer is currently running 28 Linux x86 NFS file servers with direct attached
storage. They are adding five servers every six months.
What solution will help resolve their potential problems?
A. EFS WAN Accelerator
B. Virtual Library System
C. MSA 1510i System
D. EFS Clustered Gateway
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which HP storage solution supports IBM mainframe ESCON connectivity?
A. XP
B. MSA
C. EVA
D. VLS
Answer: A

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NO.10 A customer would like to have the functionality of "Rip and Replace" for all their x86
Microsoft Windows and Red Hat Linux server environments. Which solution fits their
need?
A. HPBladeSystem
B. HPProLiant DL500 series
C. HPProLiant DL100 series
D. HP Integrity Superdome
Answer: A

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NO.11 Your customer has a farm of 28 file servers using ProLiant ML350, all with exclusively
internal RAID storage. They are adding five more file servers with the same
configuration every six months.
Which statement best describes their current solution?
A. best utilized and easiest managed server-storage solution
B. best utilization of IT support resources that makes the administrators most productive
C. consolidated data center that is efficient in both floor space utilization and disk
utilization
D. unconsolidated serversthat are inefficient in both floor space utilization and disk
utilization
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which two components are used to manage the HP-UX 11i Virtual Machine (VM) host
system resources? (Select two.)
A. Virtual Machine Manager
B. Virtual Machine Management Pack
C. Performance Management Pack
D. System Management Homepage
Answer: A,D

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NO.13 Which feature of HP ProLiant 300 and 500 series servers can help your customer be
proactive in maintaining their HP ProLiant servers?
A. automatic server recovery
B. rapid deployment solution
C. pre-failure warranty
D. power management pack
Answer: B

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NO.14 A customer needs a high-bandwidth storage area network (SAN) solution providing
simultaneous communication between the servers and storage disk arrays.
Which type of Fibre Channel SAN topology will meet this requirement?
A. switched fabric
B. private fabric
C. public loop
D. arbitrated loop
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which management software is able to discover and monitor virtual machines on both
Proliant and Integrity server platforms?
A. HP Virtual Insight Manager
B. HP System Tools Manager
C. HP Systems Insight Manager
D. HP Systems Consolidated Manager
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which library system family introduces a fast, highly available disk-based backup
solution?
A. ESL
B. EML
C. MSL
D. VLS
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which software tool can be used to help a customer virtualize a server environment?
A. HP VirtualComputer Center
B. HP Process Virtualization
C. HP Virtual Node Cluster
D. HP Integrity Virtual Machines
Answer: D

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NO.18 What is the maximum unplanned downtime for an industry-standard server designed to
99.99% availability?
A. 15 minutes
B. 8 hours
C. 53 minutes
D. 87 hours
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which HP ProLiant server supports RAID Memory providing higher availability?
A. BL685c
B. DL380
C. ML370
D. DL580
Answer: D

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NO.20 A critical database server stores data on a MSA 1500cs. Which RAID level on the disk
array is the most appropriate to achieve highest availability and performance?
A. RAID 4
B. RAID 1+0
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 0
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-S20
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP BladeSystem)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 85 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 Which features are new to the ProLiant G6 Intel-based server blade line? (Select two.)
A. NUMA (Non Uniform Memory Access) Architecture
B. internal SD card slot
C. SAS 1.0 Smart Array Controller
D. registered DDR2 DIMM support
Answer: AB

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NO.2 Which virtualization technologies are supported in c-Class server blades? (Select three.)
A. Microsoft Virtual Machines
B. VMware Workstation
C. Integrity Virtual Machines
D. VMware ESX
E. Virtual Partitioning
Answer: ACD

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NO.3 What is a new feature of ProLiant G6-series server blades?
A. internal SD card slot
B. internal USB port
C. PCI Express 1.0 ports
D. small form factor SAS drives
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which features does the HP iLO Advanced for BladeSystem license include? (Select two.)
A. global team collaboration
B. server migration pack
C. enhanced networking
D. headless server deployment
E. integration with LDAP services
Answer: AE

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NO.5 What are advantages of using point-to-point storage technology with Serial Attached SCSI (SAS)?
(Select two.)
A. higher fault tolerance of the disks
B. better isolation of hard drive failures
C. increased bandwidth
D. backwards compatibility with parallel SCSI cables
Answer: BC

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NO.6 Which memory slots must be populated first in a ProLiant BL490c G6?
A. white
B. black
C. blue
D. brown
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is required to enable online spare memory?
A. All memory banks available in the server must be populated with DIMMs of the same capacity.
B. Four-way interleaving must be enabled in the ROM-Based Setup Utility (RBSU).
C. The DIMMs in the spare bank must be the same capacity or larger than those in the other banks.
D. The spare memory bank must be counted and added to the system memory count reported to the
operating system.
Answer: C

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NO.8 You have collected and evaluated data from a series of reports and subsystems of an HP c-Class
enclosure and server blades. You are now ready to develop an action plan that addresses the
outstanding
issues you identified.
In accordance with the HP Troubleshooting Methodology, which tasks should you perform in order to
develop an optimized action plan for your customer? (Select two.)
A. Identify the steps necessary to implement each solution.
B. Isolate faults to a hardware or software system.
C. Identify possible solutions for each possible root cause.
D. Identify the cause of the failure and implement preventive measures.
Answer: AC

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NO.9 What does the HP StorageWorks All-in-One SB600c Storage System provide? (Select three.)
A. data protection
B. support for SCSI disk subsystems
C. shared storage for application servers
D. synchronous data replication
E. enhanced file serving for end-user clients
Answer: ACE

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NO.10 What can be configured to allow an additional server to take over operations from a failed server?
A. SmartLink
B. high-availability clustering
C. cloud computing
D. RAID 5
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-E19
Exam Name: HP (HP Partner Fundamentals 2009)
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Total Q&A: 59 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 Preferred Partners in EMEA are a very important part of the HP channel.
A. less than 5%
B. less than 10%
C. greater than 70%
D. greater than 90%
Answer: C

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NO.2 What does IT investment provide customers? (Select two.)
A. reduced prices
B. increased footprints
C. return on investment
D. better levels of service
Answer: AC

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NO.3 Which business units have introduced a Virtualisation specialization? (Select two.)
A. IPG
B. ESS
C. PNB
D. PSG
Answer: BD

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NO.4 When can a Partner join the HP Preferred Partner Program upon completion of the defined criteria?
A. monthly
B. annually
C. quarterly
D. every half year
Answer: B

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NO.5 What are the key measurement criteria for Preferred Partners? (Select two.)
A. selling all HP products
B. fulfiling revenue targets
C. gathering customer testamonials
D. attaining minimum certification levels
Answer: BD

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NO.6 What are roles of a HP Partner Account Manager? (Select two.)
A. helps users manage their forecast
B. ensures the optimal skill levels are in place
C. provides access to HP corporate hospitality events
D. provides assistance in the development of the Partner Business Growth Plan
Answer: BD

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NO.7 Which statements are true about the HP Preferred Partner Program? (Select two.)
A. It is a program for distributors.
B. It is a program for printing Partners only.
C. It is highly respected by channel Partners and analysts.
D. It is a channel program that spans the entire HP portfolio.
Answer: CD

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NO.8 What are the benefits of being an HP Preferred Partner? (Select two.)
A. demonstrates commitments to customers
B. enables Partners to sell at greater discount
C. provides access to Partner Co-Marketing Activities
D. provides access to HP's multimillion dollar marketing program and brand recognition
Answer: CD

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NO.9 Which business unit introduced two extra specialization tracks?
A. ISS
B. PNB
C. HPS
D. BCS
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which is certification an important part of being a Preferred Partner? (Select two.)
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B. It is a key criterion for becoming a Preferred Partner.
C. It is important to be able to demonstrate ability to pass exams.
D. It demonstrates a specific area of expertise, and customers want to work with experts.
Answer: BD

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Exam Code: HP2-K09
Exam Name: HP (Supporting MSL2024 and MSL4048 Tape Libraries)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 94 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 What is the maximum native storage capacity of the MSL4048 Tape Library with an Ultrium 960 drive
and
all media slots loaded?
A. 9.6 TB
B. 19.2 TB
C. 24.0 TB
D. 36TB
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the maximum cable length on an LVD SCSI bus?
A. 9.84 ft (3 m)
B. 19.68 ft (6 m)
C. 39.37 ft (12 m)
D. 82.02 ft (25 m)
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which host interfaces (HBA) can be used for the tape drives of MSL2024 and MSL4048 Tape Libraries?
(Select two.)
A. Ultra 320 SCSI for the Ultrium 448 SCSI tape drive
B. Ultra 320 SCSI for the Ultrium 960 SCSI tape drive
C. 2Gb/s Fibre Channel HBA for the Native Fibre Channel Ultrium 960 tape drive
D. 1Gb/s Fibre Channel HBA for the Native Fibre Channel Ultrium 960 tape drive
E. 2Gb/s Fibre Channel HBA for the Native Fibre Channel Ultrium 960 tape drive
Answer: AB

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NO.4 Which tape drive format uses helical scan technology?
A. AIT
B. SDLT
C. LTO-3
D. Travan
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which featuresare used bythe LTO Ultrium tape family? (Select three.)
A. cartridge memory
B. global storage link
C. adaptive tape speed
D. adaptive compression
E. adaptive cleaning heads
F. media recognition system
Answer: ACD

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NO.6 What is the recommended maximum number of Ultrium 448 drives per SCSI bus when connected to an
ULTRA320 HBA?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the maximum number of drives the MSL4048 can support? (Select two.)
A. 2 Ultrium 960 tape drives
B. 4 Ultrium 960 tape drives
C. 4 Ultrium 448 tape drives
D. 2 Ultrium 448 tape drives
E. 2 Ultrium 448 tape drives and 1 Ultrium 960 tape drive in mixed configuration
Answer: AC

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NO.8 Which SCSI signaling is supported with the MSL2024 and MSL4048 Tape Libraries? (Select two.)
A. SE (single ended)
B. SAS (serial attached SCSI)
C. LVI (low voltage incremental)
D. LVD (low voltage differential)
E. HVD (high voltage differential)
Answer: BD

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NO.9 Which scheme reflects the slot numbering of an MSL2024 Tape Library?
A. vertical columns from top to bottom, starting at the rear
B. vertical columns from bottom to top, starting at the front
C. horizontal rows from rear to front, starting at the top row
D. horizontal rows from front to rear, starting at the bottom row
Answer: D

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NO.10 You are connecting an MSL2024 or MSL4048 library to a Fibre Channel SAN. Which statement is
correct?
A. One host only can have access to the tape devices.
B. Each tape device can be accessed by only one host.
C. All hosts can have shared access to the tape devices.
D. Only hosts with HP Data Protector installed can share tape devices.
Answer: C

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Exam Name: HP (HP Network Node Manager Essentials)
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Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 How can an administrator block traps from a specific IP address?
A. Open the node from the console and click the Traps tab, then click Ignore.
B. Open the incident configuration window and use the Tools > Ignore Host tool.
C. Add the IP address to the nnmtrap.ignore file.
D. Add the IP address to the nnmtrapd.conf file.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which user role is used to access NNMi the first time during installation and for command line access?
A. System
B. Operator
C. Guest
D. root
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which devices define the NNMi Layer Three topology?
A. switches and bridges
B. bridges and hubs
C. routers and switch routers
D. connections and subnets
Answer: C

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NO.4 How is SNMP communication with the NNMi server authenticated?
A. Encrypted authentication string are used.
B. A community string is used.
C. RSA keys are required.
D. An enable password is required.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which process controls the application server that contains all the NNMi services?
A. Postgres
B. Causal Engine
C. Ovjboss
D. NmsModel
Answer: C

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Exam Code: Hp2-E24
Exam Name: HP (HP Service Sales Profession)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 78 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 Which value do HP services provide to the customers in addition to the warranty?
A. increased product reliability
B. advanced ormore timely response
C. free phone access numbers
D. 4-hour call-to-repair commitment
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which area in covered if we sell improvement of timeliness of problem resolutions?
A. increase IT quality
B. improve agility
C. mitigate risk
D. manage costs
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which feature do HP Care Pack service offers provide?
A. hardware and software maintenance
B. hardware maintenance only
C. software maintenance only
D. parts-only coverage
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which approximate fraction of all customer helpdesk calls relates to commercial printers?
A. more than 75%
B. up to 50%
C. less than 10%
D. between 10% and 20%
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which HP service is classified as reactive?
A. Data Center Service
B. Support Plus 24
C. Education Service
D. Critical Service
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which services should be quoted by default with each storge platform that does not include
bundled sercices? (Select two.)
A. 1-year HP Care Pack
B. HP Proactive Service
C. HP Installation and Startup Service
D. 3-year HP Care pack
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 Your HP ProLiant customer is looking for a single solution for hardware and openrating system
technical support services. Which HP Care Pack categories provide hardware and O/S
techinal support services in one part number? (Select two.)
A. Support Plus 24
B. Hardware Services 6-Hour Call to Repair On-site Service
C. Installation & Start-up Services
D. Support Plus
E. Hardware Services On-site Service
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 Travel Next Business Day response HP Care Pack service provides mobiles computer users
with a support solution for HP Notebook products. Where can it be claimed?
A. in listed countries across all regions
B. in the country where the notebook was purchased
C. in EMEA
D. in the region where the notebook was purchased
Answer: A

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NO.9 What prevents a 5-year HP Care Pack from usage as a post-warranty Care Pack？
A. The 5-year HP Care Packcan not be registered after the standard warranty period has
expired.
B. The maximum Care Pack lifetime is three years.
C. Post-warranty service requires individual contracts.
D. The main warranty is threeyears, consequently a 2-year Care Pack is required.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Your customer owns HP ProCurve Network Management software. How long are maintenance
releases available at no additional cost?
A. for as long as the customer owns the product
B. for one year, starting at the date of the purchase
C. for a period of 90 days
D. until the next version is released
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which HP Care Pack do you advise for HP Scanjets if your customer has critical business
needs?
A. 4-hour Onsite Response, 24¡Á7
B. Next Day Onsite
C. Next Day Exchange
D. 4-hour Onsite Response, 9¡Á5
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which lifetime warranty level is included when selling an HP ProCurve 2910aI-24G Switch?
A. Next-Business-Day
B. Onsite-Parts-Exchange
C. SupportPlus
D. SupportPlus 24
Answer: A

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NO.13 You offer either basic Installation or Installation & Start-up Care Pack services to your
customers. Which operations constitute the distinction between the two offerings? (Select two)
A. operation and 9¡Á5softerware support verification
B. coordination of network installation and start-upactivitises
C. configuration download
D. confirmation of software revisions and device cabling
E. building the configurationfile
Answer: B,D

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NO.14 Which service provides the most complete range of deliverables?
A. 6-hour Call-to-Repair
B. 4-hour 24¡Á7
C. Proactive 24
D. Next Business Day on-site
Answer: C

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NO.15 Why is it more effective to purchase an HP Care Pack support service than to purchase extra
printers in case of failure? (Select two.)
A. It reduces uncontrolled internal cost for logistic, installation, follow-up.
B. New printers imply new settings for the users.
C. Internal batteries may discharge while on shelf.
D. A printer should be installed only by an HP certified service technician.
E. HP printers cannot be moved once they are operational.
Answer: A,D

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HP HP2-E31 training and testing

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Exam Code: HP2-E31
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Enterprise Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 51 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 What are the characteristics of an HP converged infrastructure?
A. Virtualized.Resilient. Orchestrated. Optimized, and Modular
B. Virtualized.Resilient. Orchestrated. Ongoing, and Modular
C. Virtualized.Robust. Orchestrated, Optimized, and Modular
D. Virtualized.Robust. Orchestrated, Optimized, and Managed
Answer: A

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NO.2 What are the benefits of pooling and sharing resources in a Converged Infrastructure? (Select two.)
A. IT can charge the business more accurately.
B. All users can access the same "Storage Area Network" (SAN) which reduces the time it takes to launch
new services.
C. IT can quickly reallocate resources to match the changing performance and capacity needs of different
applications.
D. IT can respond more quickly to business changes and requests for new services can be dealt with in
weeks not months
E. IT resources do not need to be involved in any aspect of service provisioning.
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 Why is it important to ask an Attitude question at the end of a sales meeting? (Select two.)
A. to establish the decision date, decision making criteria and basis of decision
B. to be polite
C. to establish the customer's real views about your proposals
D. to inquire as to how someone else in the organization might view the proposals
E. to eliminate the competition from the sales opportunity
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 Which statements are true when describing the HP Converged Infrastructure? (Select two.)
A. Payback can be achieved in less than one year.
B. IT resources can be reduced by 50%.
C. IT services provisioning can be reduced from approximately one month to as little as two hours
D. Customers can achieve 95% equipment consolidation
E. Customers can achieve 95% cost savings.
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Why it is so important to ask"Probing" questions in a sales situation? (Select two.)
A. The help to assess if the customer has a genuine requirement and is likely to invest.
B. They help to uncover or create the customers business needs.
C. They help to determine the customer's view of the competition.
D. They help in understanding the customer's problems or challenges and the associated
implications.
E. They help toarrive at the most accurate pricing structure for the project.
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 Which type of costs can HP Insight Manager typically reduce by at least 29%?
A. procurement
B. administration
C. server
D. floor space
Answer: B

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NO.7 The opening stages of a customer meeting are critical to the overall success of the meeting. What
should you always agree on at the beginning of each customer sales meeting? (Select two.)
A. the duration and agenda
B. the next action and the owner
C. the customer's objectives for the meeting
D. date for next meeting
E. the project timescales and budget
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 Traditionally IT departments have spent which percentage of their budget on operations and which
percentage on innovation?
A. 60% operations and 40% innovation
B. 50% operations and 50% innovation
C. 70% operations and 30% innovation
D. 40% operations and 60% innovation
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is HP CI-MM Express?
A. It provides an assessment of the customer's current "as is" IT environment before proposing a
converged infrastructure evolution path.
B. It is a service designed to evaluate capacity across the server and storage estate.
C. It is a service to help customers implement "cloud computing."
D. It is a converged infrastructure measurement methodology that enables customers to predict future
server capacity requirements.
Answer: A

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NO.10 At the end of a customer meeting it is important to establish the next actions and seek agreement from
the customer on their actions. Which type of question should you ask at the end of the meeting?
A. Confirmation
B. Commitment
C. New Information
D. Conclusive
Answer: B

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