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Exam Code: C2090-423
Exam Name: IBM (Information Analyzer v8.5)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 118 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-28

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NO.1 When working with Information Analyzer reports, which two functions require use of
the reporting
functionality in the Information Server Web Console? (Choose two.)
A. Add the report to Favorites.
B. Create the report as a PDF.
C. Grant Access to report result.
D. Create a Log Messages report.
E. Choose Expiration Policy for Report.
Answer: C,E

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NO.2 You are setting up an automated process to run a set of data rules on a weekly basis.
You want to
evaluate the execution status via the Information Analyzer command line interface (CLI)
before running
subsequent reports. Which of the following do you need to evaluate?
A. Select the -runTasks option specifying the -getExecutionStatus parameter and evaluate
the status
attribute of the <RuleExecutionResult> element.
B. Select the -getExecutionHistory option specifying the -ruleName parameter and evaluate
the status
attribute of the <RuleExecutionResult> element.
C. Select the -getExecutableRule option specifying the -getExecutionHistory and -ruleName
parameters
and evaluate the status attribute of the <DataRuleResult> element.
D. Select the -getExecutableRule/ExecutionHistory option specifying the -ruleName
parameter and
evaluate the status attribute of the <DataRuleExecutionHistory> element.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which statement is true about analysis settings?
A. Default Analysis settings can be created for individual users.
B. Default Analysis settings cannot be configured for all projects.
C. Default Analysis settings can be configured at the project level.
D. Default Analysis settings are controlled by the DataStage Analysis project.
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are trying to identify a multi-column primary key in a table of 50 million records.
What steps can
you take to minimize performance impact?
A. None, you must always assess full volume of data.
B. Use a data sample; apply regression analysis to identify statistically likely candidates;
apply duplicate
check.
C. Use a data sample; limit the test to specific columns at one time; incrementally increase
the number of
possible column combinations.
D. Use a data sample; apply functional dependency analysis to remove dependent columns;
incrementally increase the number of possible column combinations.
Answer: C

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NO.5 You are working with a subject matter expert who does not have the Information
Server console
installed, but needs to receive a detailed value frequency distribution as a comma-delimited
(csv) file.
Which two of the following options can you use to deliver the required file? (Choose two.)
A. Go to the Investigate>Table Management functions, select the frequency distribution file;
export as a
Delimited file; and send the file.
B. Go to the Investigate>Publish Analysis Result functions, select the frequency distribution
file; export as
a Delimited file; and send the file.
C. Go to the Reports menu, select the Data Rule Frequency Distribution report; choose the
TXT output
option and generate the report; and provide the URL to the report output.
D. Use the IAAdmin command line interface (CLI); select the -getColumnOutputTable option
providing the
correct project and column names and the -csv format parameter; run the command and
send the file.
E. Use the IAAdmin command line interface (CLI); select the -getFrequencyDistribution
option providing
the correct project and column names and the -xsl format parameter to a csv-formatting
stylesheet ; run
the command and send the file.
Answer: A,E

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NO.6 Which of the following is the correct HTTP API request format for creating a data rule
definition in an
existing project?
A. http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/create?ruleDefinition
B. http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/create?projectContent
C.http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/project?projectName=<YourProjectName>
D.http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/ruleDefinition?projectName=<YourProject
Name>&rule
Name=<YourRuleName>
Answer: B

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NO.7 While reviewing the results of a data rule test you find a logic error. Which option will
allow you to
troubleshoot this error?
A. Set the debug option when submitting the test job, then review the log.
B. Open a command window on the client, submit the job and view the log.
C. Set Retain Scripts to on and use DataStage Director to review the job log.
D. Create a log view to capture the CAS log. Rerun the rule and review the log.
Answer: A

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NO.8 When analyzing large number of columns in Information Analyzer, which two
components may require
capacity planning review? (Choose two.)
A. Disk space on the Engine layer.
B. Disk space on the Application Server.
C. Buffer pools on the Application Server.
D. Information Server Metadata repository.
E. Information Analyzer Analysis database.
Answer: A,E

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NO.9 In a large enterprise, the human resource business unit wants to ensure the restriction
of the analysis
and analysis results to a set of HR managers. Which configuration will support this
requirement?
A. Use operating system IDs and database IDs to restrict access.
B. Use Information Server roles and security to restrict access to analysis and results.
C. Install an Information Analyzer environment (analysis server, analysis engine, analysis
database) for
the HR business unit.
D. Install an analysis engine for each business unit and one analysis database using
Information server
security to restrict access.
Answer: C

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NO.10 You submitted a column analysis job with the "Retain Scripts" set to no. The column
analysis job
finished with an "error encountered" final message. You have access to the DataStage
Director client.
Which option would allow you to find the source of the error.?
A. Create a log view in Information Analyzer and rerun the job. Examine the log to determine
the error.
B. Rerun the job with the "Retain Scripts" turned on. The error message will be returned to
the Information
Analyzer status window.
C. Submit the job from Information Analyzer. After it finishes log onto DataStage Director and
examine the
job log to determine the source of the error.
D. Submit the job from Information Analyzer and place it on hold. Log onto DataStage
Director, release
the job and examine the job log to determine the source of the error.
Answer: A

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NO.11 When creating a Scheduling View, which two of the following options can be
configured? (Choose
two.)
A. Status > Schedule > Pending
B. Status > Task Run > Abnormally Ended
C. Status > Task Run > Successfully Ended
D. Origins > Information Analyzer > IA Export Project
E. Origins > Information Analyzer > IA Report Execution
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 When analyzing large volumes of source data in column analysis, which two
statements identify ways
you can improve processing performance? (Choose two.)
A. Use data sampling in Information Analyzer.
B. Add more space to the Metadata repository.
C. Modify the project Analysis settings to increase the buffer pools.
D. Modify the DataStage apt config file to use multiple nodes and parallel process the data.
E. Modify the Information Analyzer Analysis database config file to parallel process the data.
Answer: A,D

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NO.13 You are managing a business analyst who is annotating column profile details with
issues and
resolutions.
You wish to see how many annotations remain open for resolution. Which report should you
create and
review?
A. Metric Summary Project Status report
B. Metadata Summary-Column Profile Status report
C. Project Status- Project Summary by Notes Status report
D. Domain Quality Summary- Column Quality by Status report
Answer: C

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NO.14 You are installing Information Analyzer and plan to use Oracle as the Information
Analyzer analysis
database.
Which statement is true?
A. The metadata database must also be Oracle.
B. The metadata database does not have to be Oracle.
C. Only Oracle RAC (Real Application Clusters) is supported.
D. The Information Analyzer analysis database can not be Oracle.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following is true about ODBC DSN's (data source names)?
A. No ODBC DSN's are required.
B. You must manually create the Information Analyzer database DSN.
C. You must create a DSN for the data sources on both the client and server.
D. The Information Analyzer database DSN is automatically created at installation time.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: P2080-099
Exam Name: IBM ( IBM Coremetrics Technical Mastery Test v1)
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Total Q&A: 57 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-28

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NO.1 Which of the following statements regarding the Email Inbox Metrics import feature is
NOT true?
A. The Email Inbox Metrics import file fields 1 -15 may include either numeric or string values.
B. The Email Inbox Metrics import file supports a maximum of 30 unique fields.
C. The Email Inbox Metrics import file fields 1-15 must be included in a pre-specified order.
D. All of the above statements are true.
Answer: A

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NO.2 How are CDF files loaded into Coremetrics Analytics/Explore?
A. FTP
B. Directly through the Coremetrics Import interface.
C. Email
D. Via FTP or directly through the Coremetrics Import interface.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the maximum number of category levels supported in the Merchandising
Report?
A. Unlimited
B. 15
C. 10
D. 100
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT a report chart type?
A. Bar
B. Radar
C. Pie
D. Cumulative Trend
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the offsite Marketing Campaign URL parameter?
A. cm_marketing
B. cm_mark
C. marketingID
D. cm_mmc
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C2040-986
Exam Name: IBM (Creating IBM Lotus Notes and Domino 8.5 Applications with Xpages and Advanced Techniques )
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Total Q&A: 164 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-28

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NO.1 Jim is looking at the Properties dialog box for an agent. Which one of the following best
describes the
use of the "Allow user activation" option?
A. Allows users with Editor access or above in the ACL to run an agent
B. Allows users with Author access or above in the ACL to run an agent
C. Allows users with Editor access or above in the ACL to enable an agent
D. Allows users with Author access or above in the ACL to enable an agent
Answer: C

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NO.2 Dierdre is periodically asked to update the Readers field in documents created with the
SalesOrder form.
If a person's name changes, they are no longer able to access documents they'd been able
to access in
the past. Dierdre would like the Readers fields to be automatically updated when someone's
name has
been changed in the Domino directory. How can she do this?
A. Open the Security tab of the SalesOrder Form properties. Place a checkmark next to
"Enable adminp
updates".
B. Open the Advanced tab of the database ACL. In the selection list for Action, choose
"Modify all
Readers and Authors fields".
C. Open the Security tab of the Database properties. In the selection list for Administration
Actions,
choose "Update all Readers and Authors fields".
D. Ask a Notes Administrator to enable "Maintain Reader/Author field consistency" on the
Security tab of
the server document for her application server.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Winnie is enhancing the interface on the Corporate Phone Book Web application. Ted,
the graphics
designer who is providing Winnie with the images for her Domino application, has suggested
that she use
image resource sets. What is a feature that Winnie can incorporate by using image resource
sets?
A. A vertical image set can be used to incorporate effects using the onmouseover,
onmouseout, and
onclick events of an image on an XPage.
B. A vertical image set can be used to incorporate effects using the Normal, Mouse-over,
Selected, and
Mouse-down image states of a Domino Web page image.
C. A horizontal image set can be used to add effects when a user hovers the mouse over an
image. For
example, the normal image could be replaced with a larger image when the mouse hovers
over it.
D. A horizontal image set can be used to add effects when a user hovers the mouse over an
image. For
example the normal image could be replaced with an image with different coloring when the
mouse
hovers over it.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following statements describes the function of SSL?
A. SSL encrypts the database ahead of transmission by using a SOCKS proxy.
B. SSL encrypts the database by creating a certificate authority as a key ring.
C. SSL encrypts the transmission of HTTP by using the user's ID as an encryption key
D. SSL encrypts the transmission of HTTP by using a registered certificate as an encryption
key.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Josh needs to associate the Price and ProductName fields of the Sales database with
fields from the
Inventory table in a relational database. His company uses DECS. He has created a Data
Connection
Resource to handle the connection to the Inventory table. What is the next step to make this
connection
available to fields on the Product form?
A. From the Advanced tab of the ACL, select "Allow connection to external databases using
DCRs". From
the Defaults tab of the Product form properties dialog, click Browse by the Data Source
Options and
select the DCR.
B. From the Advanced tab of the database Properties, select "Allow connection to external
databases
using DCRs". From the Data Connection Resource properties, select the Product form under
"Connection
enabled for?
C. From the Advanced tab of the ACL, select "Allow connection to external databases using
DCRs". From
the Security tab of the Form Properties dialog, click Browse by the Data Source Options and
select the
DCR.
D. From the Basics tab of the Database properties, select "Allow connection to external
databases using
DCRs". From the Defaults tab of the Form Properties dialog, click Browse by the Data
Source Options
and select the DCR.
Answer: D

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NO.6 When enabling his XPages application for mobile access, which best describes the
options Enrique
should consider?
A. The screen size means different navigation might be required.
B. XPages can be viewed without any additional changes on an iPhone or other iOS device.
C. It might be appropriate to include only a subset of functionality because of the different
screen size.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Marge wants to track user preference information while users navigate through her
Web site, but does
not want to require users to authenticate when accessing the site. Which of the following
should she use
to track the user information?
A. Cookies
B. Servlets
C. User profile documents
D. The users must authenticate
Answer: A

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NO.8 Juanes needs to import some data from a custom application not using a standard
database engine,
which is being migrated to a Lotus Notes/Domino application. How can he accomplish this
task?
A. Use Lotus Enterprise Integrator.
B. Import data using one of the built-in connection services like DECS or connectors.
C. Export the data to XML on the old application and import it using XMLT.
D. Export the data from the old application to one or more ASCII files and import them by
using
LotusScript file access methods.
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is the purpose of using XSLT in a Lotus Domino Web application?
A. To define what DXL should be available for export.
B. To allow a Web service to interact with a Java agent.
C. To display a view as HTML without using a Java applet.
D. To transform XML documents to HTML or even to another XML document.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Joy wants to implement single sign-on for her Lotus Domino Web applications. What
does she need to
do?
A. Encode the Single Sign-On form in each database.
B. Enable "Use Single Sign-on" in the database properties.
C. Ensure that all servers are using the same certificate authority.
D. Update the "Session authentication" field in the server's configuration document.
Answer: D

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NO.11 David migrates an XPage application from his development environment to his test
server. When he
tests the application, his browser returns the HTTP 403 error message. What is the most
probable cause?
A. He was developing using Firefox but is now looking at the application in Internet Explorer.
B. The application is signed with a development ID. It needs resigning with an ID trusted to
run XPages on
the test server.
C. The test server is not running the HTTP task.
D. He is opening the application in the Lotus Notes client. XPages applications can only be
viewed on the
web.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following describes the destination URL that is generated by Lotus
Domino when the user
enters */projects/cio/index.html as the URL?
A. /projects/cio.nsf/index?OpenPage
B. /projects/index.nsf/cio?OpenPage
C. /projects/projects.nsf/cio?OpenPage
D. /projects/cio.nsf/index.html}
Answer: A

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NO.13 An XPage application is mostly made up of the following elements:
A. Forms, views, subforms, pages, framesets, and agents
B. Forms, views, XPages, CSS and themes, and outlines
C. XPages only
D. Forms, views, XPages, custom controls, and CSS and themes
Answer: D

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NO.14 Barney imports a WSDL file into a LotusScript script library, which generates code to
call the Web
service methods defined by the WSDL file. Where can he use this script library.?
A. Only in agents
B. Only in agents that run on the server
C. Only in agents and form or view actions
D. Anywhere that LotusScript can be used
Answer: D

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NO.15 To approve an expense report, Quy goes to a controlled-access section and marks
the Status field
"Approved". Status is a sign-enabled field. When is the signature attached?
A. Immediately
B. When the document is saved
C. When the document is mailed
D. When the document is encrypted
Answer: B

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NO.16 DJ is developing his first Lotus Domino application. He wants to show a particular set
of data to
unauthenticated users and provide additional data to authenticated users. Which of the
following can DJ
use to determine whether the user is authenticated or not?
A. @WebName to get the current user's name
B. @UserName, which returns "Anonymous" for unauthenticated users
C. @IsAuthenticated to determine if the user is authenticated or not
D. @WebUserName, which returns an empty string ( "" ) when a user is not authenticated
Answer: B

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NO.17 Mary is posting a discussion database on the Web. She would like to give general
users Author access
to the database, as long as they identify themselves and have registered with her site. Which
one of the
following should Mary do to ensure that all users accessing her database are identified and
have Author
access?
A. Create an Authors field on her forms and set it to Anonymous.
B. Set the database ACL Default entry to No Access and set the Anonymous to Author.
C. Set the database ACL Default entry to Author and set the Anonymous to No Access.
D. Set the form security property, "Who can create documents with this form", to only allow
users in the
Author role.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Nancy is creating a Web application and she needs anonymous users to be able to
read content and
create certain documents. What does Nancy need to do?
A. Anonymous users cannot create documents if the ACL is set to Reader.
B. Anonymous must be set to Author in the ACL and forms must be blocked to Anonymous
users.
C. Nancy needs to create an Anonymous entry to the ACL with access set to Author. Then,
using
@Formula she needs to validate if a document is being created by an Anonymous user.
D. Nancy needs to create an Anonymous entry to the ACL with access set to Reader and the
option "Write
public documents." She also needs to make the forms Available to Public Access users.
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which option best describes the benefits of being Ajax-enabled?
A. You do not need to use agents to interact with the server dynamically.
B. Content and code can be loaded when required, rather than when the page is initially
displayed.
C. Ajax functionality can be implemented with much less coding than a traditional Lotus
Domino web
application.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Monique's laptop was stolen. Monique had locally encrypted the databases on her
machine using
medium encryption. Which one of the following can unauthorized users do?
A. Nothing
B. Compact the databases
C. Read copies of the databases made through the operating system
D. Use their user ids to access local databases on Monique's workstation
Answer: A

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Exam Code: A2060-218
Exam Name: IBM (Assessment: IBM Sterling B2B Integrator V5.2, Solution Implementation )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 104 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-28

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NO.1 A company has set up an adapter Container JVM to increase performance and reliability. Which three
server adapters are available to be used with the container? (Choose three.)
A. Connect:Direct
B. FTP
C. HTTPS
D. JMS
E. OFTP
F. SMTP
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 A Business Process (BP) implementer wants to use the Document Keyword Replace Service in the
Graphical Process Modeler (GPM) but the service is not showing in the All Services stencil. What needs
to be done to make the Document Keyword Replace Service show in the GPM?
A. Update the license file.
B. Create a service configuration.
C. Execute install3rdParty.sh/.cmd.
D. Add JavaTask to adapters.properties.
Answer: B

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NO.3 IBM Sterling B2B Integrator (SBI) is installed with a LDAP connection to allow users to log in using
their username/password stored in the LDAP server. A user is created in SBI as a local user and the
InternalUser password policy is specified. The InternalUser policy states that the password has to be
changed every 30 days. After 29 days the SBI security administrator deletes the InternalUser policy from
the system. When the user logs in two days later, will the user be prompted to change the password?
A. Yes, because of the configuration of the original password policy.
B. No, because the policy is deleted so the user has no password policy.
C. The user will not be logged in because there is no valid policy specified.
D. No, the policy is irrelevant since the password is managed by the LDAP server.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A company requires FTP users to be unable to login after five failed login attempts. How can this be
accomplished?
A. Create a Lockout Policy.
B. Configure the FTP user account.
C. Configure a LoginPolicy service configuration.
D. Add an entry to customer_overrides.properties.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A company is planning to offer FTPS connection to its community of trading partners. They already
have one server certificate in IBM Sterling B2B Integrator (SBI) that they want to use for the FTPS server
in the production environment. In the development environment they want to use a self-signed test
certificate. Where can the test certificate be created?
A. Trading Partner > Digital Certificates > CA
B. Trading Partner > Digital Certificates > Trusted
C. Trading Partner > Digital Certificates > System
D. Trading Partner > Digital Certificates > Cert Manager
Answer: C

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NO.6 A company allows trading partners to send files to it via SFTP. Which port needs to be configured on
the SFTP Server adapter to define the communication port?
A. Data Port
B. Send Port
C. Listen Port
D. Passive Port
Answer: C

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NO.7 A company wants to change their document storage to file system storage for a IBM Sterling B2B
Integrator (SBI) cluster deployment. Which configuration needs to exist?
A. with a shared file system mounted as /FS: document_dir.jdbc.properties=/shared
defaultDocumentStorageType.jdbc.properties=FS
B. with a shared file system mounted as /FS: document_dir.jdbc.properties=/FS
defaultDocumentStorageType.jdbc.properties=shared
C. with a shared file system mounted as /shared: document_dir.jdbc.properties=/FS
defaultDocumentStorageType.jdbc.properties=FS
D. with a shared file system mounted as /shared: document_dir.jdbc.properties=/shared
defaultDocumentStorageType.jdbc.properties=FS
Answer: D

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NO.8 IBM Sterling B2B Integrator (SBI) uses a certificate to encrypt persisted documents. If this certificate
needs to be replaced with a deployment specific certificate, which certificate store is the new certificate
imported into before updating the certificate name in the customer overrides property file?
A. CA
B. Trusted
C. System
D. Certificate
Answer: C

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NO.9 A developer has created a Business Process (BP) that uses the File System Adapter to write a file to the
file system. Where should the target file name be stored in the BP so that the File System Adapter can
retrieve it?
A. Primary Data
B. Process Data
C. Primary Document
D. Process Document
Answer: B

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NO.10 A customer has deployed a two node active-active IBM Sterling B2B Integrator (SBI) cluster in the
secure zone on two servers. The customer has installed two servers in the DMZ for the purpose of
installing remote SBI Perimeter Servers to facilitate communications with external partners. External
partners will connect to an external IP Load Balancer that will distribute inbound FTP/S, SFTP and HTTP
Client sessions across the Perimeter Servers. The customer requirement is that if any single server fails,
all the other SBI nodes and remote Perimeter Server instances must continue to activelyThe customer.?
requirement is that if any single server fails, all the other SBI nodes and remote Perimeter Server
instances must continue to actively handle inbound sessions for each protocol. What is the minimum
number of remote Perimeter Server instances that must be deployed in the DMZ?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 12
Answer: C

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NO.11 Based on the screen shot, how many days will documents and other trackable data stay in the system
by default?
A. 1 dayA.1 day
B. 2 daysB.2 days
C. 3 daysC.3 days
D. The setting is controlled at the individual Business Process (BP) level.
D.The setting is controlled at the individual Business Process (BP) level.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Of the locations where persistence levels can be set, which has the highest precedence?
A. Global
B. System
C. Trading Partner
D. Business Process (BP) Definition
Answer: D

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NO.13 The system default for the amount of time a Business Process (BP) remains online in the system is set
to five days. How can that value be overridden?
A. Update noapp.properties.
B. Modify the lifespan setting for a BP.
C. Update with the Performance Tuning wizard.
D. Create a new Retention Service configuration.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Given the following information from the servers.properties file:
noapp=/home/SBI/properties/noapp.properties jboss=/home/SBI/properties/noapp.properties
jdbcService=/home/SBI/properties/jdbc.properties
jdbcServiceCustomer=/home/SIB/properties/jdbc_customer.properties
si_config=/home/SBI/properties/sandbox.cfg
customer_overrides=/home/SBI/properties/customer_overrides.properties
filesystem=/home/SBI/properties/filesystem.properties
The customer would like to change the default directory to store on-disk documents to a new directory.
How should this override be configured in the system?
A. Edit sandbox.cfg and add document_dir=<new directory full path>.
B. Edit filesystem.properties and add filesystem.document_dir=<new directory full path>.
C. Edit customer_overrides.properties and add jdbcService.document_dir=<new directory full path>.
D. Edit jdbc_customer.properties and add jdbcServiceCustomer.document_dir=<new directory full path>.
Answer: C

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NO.15 What would cause the IBM Sterling B2B Integrator (SBI) database size to continually grow and thus
impact performance?
A. persistence level set to FULL
B. improperly sized database connection pools
C. index, archive, and purge services not running
D. incorrect number of database threads assigned
Answer: C

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Exam Code: A2050-219
Exam Name: IBM (Assessment: IBM Sterling Order Management V9.1 Deployment)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 104 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-28

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NO.1 A service provider offers installation and haul away services for appliances and furniture. The services
are offered by two teams, each specializing in either appliances or furniture. On receiving a request for a
service, the service provider would like to use the closest team to the customer that also has the relevant
skills. How can this requirement be achieved?
A. The ship node servicing the customer's shipping address should be stamped as the "ServiceNode" on
the service order line.
B. The installation and haul away items should be modeled as service items in the catalog and Sourcing
rules for provided services should beconfigured.
C. The installation and haul away should be modeled as accessories to the main product (appliance and
furniture) so the sourcing rules for theproduct will also look for capacity for the accessories.
D. The service items should be defined in the catalog along with their association with the main product
(appliance and furniture). The sourcingrules for the product item will then automatically identify the right
ship node that can offer the service.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Due to an enterprise-wide license agreement, a company uses a database from a particular vendor. The
database to be used for development is supported per the System_Requirements_Guide.pdf. The testing,
staging, and production deployments are however going to use a different database (from a different
vendor), which is also a supported database. Which statement is true about this situation?
A. The IBM Sterling Selling and Fulfillment Suite allows for the databases to be different between
development, testing, staging and productiondeployments.
B. Since the IBM Sterling Selling and Fulfillment Suite uses standard JDBC to connect to the database,
questions around compatibility ofdatabases must be directed to the database vendors.
C. Even though it might work, the IBM Sterling Selling and Fulfillment Suite deployment will be supported
by IBM only if the database used forproduction remains the same as the one used for development.
D. The IBM Sterling Selling and Fulfillment Suite deployment contains code that is database specific;
therefore, it is not advisable to use differentdatabase providers between development and production
environments.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Synchronous services can be invoked in the IBM Sterling Selling and Fulfillment Suite through which
two components?
A. Actions
B. Conditions
C. User Exits
D. Agent Server
E. Integration Server
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 A company wants to run the schedule agent in multiple environments each having different provider
URL values for their JMS queues. However, they do not wish to modify the agent configuration on each
environment to the corresponding provider URL value. How can this be achieved?
A. Set the provider_url value in the sandbox.cfg file on each environment correctly.
B. Set the value of the yfs.agent.override.providerurl property in the jms.properties file.
C. Set the value of the yfs.agent.override.providerurl property in the servers.properties file.
D. Override the value of the yfs.yfs.agent.override.providerurl property in the
customer_overrides.properties file.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Payment Administration users should be able to view only payment related alerts while Node
Administrator users should be able to view all alerts. Which approach achieves this?
A. In the alert configuration in Applications Manager, under Application > Application Platform > Alert >
Exception Type appropriately define theusers who will need to view the alert.
B. In the alert configuration for Exception Type Role in Applications Manager, under Application >
Application Platform > Alert > Exception TypeRole appropriately define the users who will need to view
the alert.
C. In the alert queue configuration in Applications Manager, under Application > Application Platform >
Queue Management add the userscorresponding to the Payment Administration and Node Administrator
users appropriately to the correct queues.
D. In the alert queue configuration in Applications Manager, under Application > Application Platform >
Queue Management add the user groupscorresponding to the Payment Administration and Node
Administrator users appropriately to the correct queues.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A specific customer implementation requires IBM Sterling Selling and Fulfillment Suite to create
procurement transfer orders at the time of scheduling the original order. For achieving this, sourcing rules
must be configured to use ship nodes instead of distribution rules. Which additional parameters must be
passed for the order creation?
A. The shipping node and receiving node are passed at the order line level.
B. The enterprise, buyer, and order type are passed at the order header level.
C. The shipping node, receiving node, and catalog organization are passed at the order line level.
D. The shipping node, receiving node, buyer, and enterprise are passed at the order header and line
level.
Answer: A

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NO.7 An organization is using the Service Builder to create a service for transforming data from one format
to the other (EDI to XML). However, they are unable to do so as they encounter errors while trying to save
the service. Which two options may be responsible for this?
A. A transport node is missing.
B. A component node is missing.
C. An API component exists without System Arguments specified.
D. An API component exists without the template file name specified.
E. All required properties on all nodes and links do not have values specified.
Answer: B,E

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NO.8 A retailer wants to have different process flows for orders created online and from their stores. How
can this efficiently be achieved?
A. Create separate document types for online and store orders.
B. Configure a hub rule that will move online and store orders to different pipelines.
C. Implement the YFSVerifyOrderUE to check for the different modes of order capture.
D. Pass different values for the 'Channel' attribute in the input and distinguish the two in the
ON_SUCCESS event of createOrder API.
Answer: B

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NO.9 A customer credit card has been authorized with an authorization expiration date of September 28.
The order does not get settled before September 28 and the payment configurations are as shown below.
On which date will the IBM Sterling Selling and Fulfillment Suite raise a reauthorization request?
A. September 27A.September 27
B. September 28B.September 28
C. September 29C.September 29
D. September 30D.September 30
Answer: A

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NO.10 A customer places an order of amount $100. As per their business rules, if the payment method is credit
card the retailer has to authorize the credit card by contacting the payment gateway for the complete
order amount before the order can be scheduled. Which execution step needs to be completed for the
payments on the order to be authorized and the details stored against the order?
A. The managePaymentTerms API needs to be invoked with the appropriate order and payment
information in the input.
B. The executePaymentTransactions API needs to be invoked with the appropriate order and payment
information in the input.
C. The Payment Collection, Payment Execution and Payment Collection transactions should be executed
in that sequence for the order.
D. The payment status on the order has to be manually changed to UTHORIZED?from the Sterling Selling
and Fulfillment Foundation console.
Answer: C

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NO.11 A buyer in the supply chain network requires certain compliance services (such as adding an RFID
label) to be performed for certain items. Which statement is true about the fulfillment process for this item?
A. Compliance services can be performed for only bundle items.
B. Compliance services can be configured at item level for each buyer.
C. Compliance services can be configured at the enterprise, buyer, and item level.
D. Compliance services can be configured for a buyer at the item classification level.
Answer: D

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NO.12 A retailer needs different types of items to be associated with their corresponding provided services. For
example, all the televisions need to be associated with an installation service, whereas microwaves need
to be associated with a product demo service. What should be created to help achieve this?
A. Create an asset for the item contains the associated service.
B. Create an item classification with the purpose set asservice Association
C. Create item attributes for each item type with purpose set asservice Association
D. Create item categories for each item type with purpose set asservice Association
Answer: B

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NO.13 Using the Exception Console of the IBM Sterling Selling and Fulfillment Suite, the exceptions raised by
asynchronous services can be viewed. The developer needs the ability to view the error XML, modify it,
and process it. Which property of the Receiver Link Exception Handling properties should the developer
turn on?
A. Is Reprocessible
B. Handle Exceptions
C. Process Exceptions
D. Reprocess Exceptions
Answer: A

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NO.14 While installing the IBM Sterling Selling and Fulfillment Suite in the GUI mode, the installation fails with
an error indicating a user permission issue on the database schema. On researching the issue, it is
discovered that the user has not been granted "CREATE TABLE" permission on the schema. The
database administrator who can provide access is not accessible until the end of the week. Which
statement is true regarding the application installation procedure.?
A. The installation has to be rerun from the beginning after the permission has been granted to the user.
B. The IBM Sterling Selling and Fulfillment Suite should be re-installed with the option to use the database
bundled along with it.
C. The installation can be run in a mode such that it does not connect to the database and the database
scripts can be run later when thepermission issue is resolved.
D. Since the issue is only a permissions issue, the installation can be run with a parameter in the silent file
so it would ignore such errors andcomplete the installation successfully.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which two segment types are provided in IBM Sterling Selling and Fulfillment Suite?
A. Made to fulfill
B. Made to order
C. Made to stock
D. Made to demand
E. Made to customer
Answer: B,E

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Exam Code: M2090-224
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Initiate Master Data Service Sales Mastery v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 39 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-28

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NO.1 What is NOT a strategic value of an Enterprise Master Person Index (EMPI) solution?
A. increase profitability
B. maintain provider registry
C. ensure regulatory compliance
D. improve quality of patient care
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is used to determine the price of an IBM Initiate solution?
A. number of records managed
B. number of user licenses
C. number of CPUs
D. number of employees in the organization
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is NOT one of the reasons for the IBM acquisition of Initiate.?
A. consolidation
B. growth
C. investment
D. integration
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C4040-221
Exam Name: IBM (AIX 7 Administration )
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Total Q&A: 229 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-28

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NO.1 A host has a single virtual Ethernet adapter (ent0) configured with only a default PVID, and the
administrator is trying to determine why it cannot be used to reach any other system on the
network. He suspects that it may be caused by a problem in the VLAN configuration.
How would the administrator determine the VLAN for which the adapter was configured?
A. Use the command 'Isdev -I ent0' on the host to determine the port VLAN ID.
B. Use the command 'Isattr-EI ent0' on the host to determine the port VLAN ID.
C. Look on the HMC to determine which VLAN is configured for the adapter.
D. Examine the Shared Ethernet Adapter on the Virtual I/O Server to determine which VLAN the
adapter is using.
Answer: C

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NO.2 The following information has been reported in an AIX error log:
How can the administrator prevent the error from reoccurring?
A. Create a secondary dump device greater than 266MB
B. Increase primary dump device size greater than 266MB
C. Increase "/var" file system to ensure it has a minimum of 266MB free space
D. Increase "/var/adm/ras/livedump" file system to ensure it has a minimum of 266MB free space
Answer: C

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NO.3 An LPAR is configured with strict logical volume mirroring across two disks for resilience. The
administrator would like to ensure if one disk fails the volume group stays online. Which command
will ensure that the datavg volume group stays online?
A. varyonvg -n datavg
B. mirrorvg-Q-c 2 datavg
C. mklvcopy -e m -s y (each logical volume name) 2
D. chvg -Qn datavg
Answer: D

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NO.4 How can an administrator disable Role Based Access Control (RBAC) in a WPAR?
A. Run chattr -E -I sys0 -a enhanced_RBAC=false Reboot the WPAR
B. Run the RBAC wizard and deselect 'Enable RBAC Reboot the system
C. Run chdev -I mywpar -a enhanced_RBAC=false Reboot the Global Environment
D. Run chwpar -a RBAC=false Reboot the WPAR
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which technology provides the maximum amount of usable storage and resilience for a
system with 6 physical volumes?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 6
Answer: C

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NO.6 After performing a NIM rte install, the administrator noticed that not all filesets are at the
correct Technology Level (TL). What action will help the administrator determine why the
inconsistent fileset levels were installed?
A. On the NIM server, run an Ippchk to identify if the Software Vital Product Data is valid.
B. On the NIM client, run oslevel command against the TL to identify missing prerequisites.
C. Run instfix command on NIM client to determine what filesets are inconsistent.
D. On the NIM server run the NIM IsIpp command to indentify downlevel filesets contained in the
lpp_source.
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is a requirement for Live Partition Mobility?
A. The network and disk must be virtual.
B. The disk must be virtual and a Logical Host Ethernet Adapter (LHEA) for network.
C. The client partition must be connected to a SAN.
D. The client partition must be set up as a 'Mover Service Partition'.
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is the difference between deferred and concurrent firmware updates?
A. Deferred firmware can be applied concurrently but contains updates that affect the internal
program load path, which are not activated until the next time the server is shut down and restarted.
B. Concurrent firmware must be done on all LPARs in the frame at the same time. Deferred
firmware can be loaded on each LPAR at a different time and only becomes active when the LPAR is
shutdown and restarted.
C. Deferred firmware can only be applied during an outage to the managed system as it will
automatically shut the managed system down during its installation.
D. Concurrent firmware is only for minor fixes to the system mircocode while deferred firmware
contains major fixes to the service processor.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: M2050-238
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Commerce Solutions Selling/Order Mgmt Sales Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 37 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-28

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NO.1 IBM Sterling Configurator can be integrated with other applications. What specific
characteristic makes
it easy to accomplish such integrations?
A. Configurator engine design is based on open standards such as XML and JAV
B. Configurator engine has great performance and scalability characteristics.
C. Configurator engine is a stateless engine.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.2 The ability to have multiple quotes assigned to a single opportunity enables sales
people to
________________.
A. find the optimal price point of a quote
B. handle approvals of quotes
C. make quote negotiations more effective since alternative quotes can be presented to a
prospect
D. Both A and B.
Answer: C

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NO.3 How do today s customers interact with a brand?
A. Customers expect the brand to provide a seamless and consistent cross-channel
experience.
B. Customers expect a dedicated and independent system for each channel for more
focused service.
C. Customers are increasing using only a single channel for all their interactions.
D. None of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.4 IBM Sterling CPQ has customers in many different verticals. Which combination of
verticals reflects
most accurately, the CPQ customers.?
A. Manufacturing, High Tech, Communication/Media/Entertainment, LifeScience, and
Education.
B. Communication/Media/Entertainment/ LifeScience, High Tech, Pharma, Consumer.
C. LifeScience, Manufacturing, Construction, Communication/Media/Entertainment/
Consumer.
D. Manufacturing, High Tech, Communication/Media/Entertainment/ LifeScience, Consumer.
Answer: D

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NO.5 IBM Sterling OM provides a single order repository that enables a user to modify,
update or track all
orders real-time for what type of channel?
A. Field Sales
B. Retail Store
C. Call Center
D. Any combination of channels.
Answer: D

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