2013年10月31日星期四

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Exam Code: 1z0-593
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Real Application Clusters 11g Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Once OUI recognizes a set of nodes in a cluster, which three choices does it offer when
installing the Oracle Database 11g Release 2 software?
A. You can only install the Oracle Database with the RAC option on selected nodes.
B. OUI forcesyouto configure ASM for shared storage before proceeding.
C. You can install the Oracle Database as a single instance or with the RAC option on all the nodes.
D. You can install the Oracle Database as a single instance or with the RAC option on selected nodes.
E. You can install Oracle RAC One Node.
Answer: B,D,E

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Explanation:
B, D: Complete the prerequisite tasks for converting to an Oracle RAC database:
Oracle Clusterware and Oracle Database software is installed on all target nodes.
Oracle Clusterware is started.
(D)The Oracle Database binary is enabled for Oracle RAC on all target nodes.
(B) Shared storage is configured and accessible from all nodes.
User equivalency is configured for the operating system user performing the conversion.
Enterprise Manager agents are configured and running on all nodes, and are configured with the
cluster and host information.
The database being converted has been backed up successfully.
E:Installing Oracle RAC One Node is available starting with Oracle Database 11g Release 2
(11.2.0.2).
Note:
*By default, the standard Oracle Database 11g software installation process installs the Oracle
RAC option when OUI recognizes that you are performing the installation on a cluster.

NO.2 Select two Clusterware administration tasks that must be performed as the root user.
A. List the location of the voting disks.
B. Check the health and viability of the Clusterware on all nodes.
C. Disable the Clusterware from automatic start at node reboot.
D. Start the Clusterware manually on one node.
E. Check the health of the Clusterware on one node.
Answer: A,D

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Explanation:
A:Voting disk management requires a valid and working OCR. Before you add, delete, replace, or
restore voting disks, run the ocrcheck command as root.
D: Example:
Restart the Oracle Clusterware stack in normal mode as root:
# crsctl start crs

NO.3 The Oracle Cluster Health Monitor can't _________.
A. Detect and analyze OS and duster resource for problems in Oracle Clusterware and RAC cluster
B. Track OS resource consumption at each node, process, and device level continuously
C. Be installed on Windows Server 20O3 SP1
D. Collect and analyze the cluster-wide data
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Incorrect: Oracle Cluster Health Monitoris designed to detect and analyze operating system (OS) and
cluster resource related degradation and failures in order to bring more explanatory power to many
issues that occur in clusters where Oracle Clusterware and Oracle RAC are running such as node
eviction. It continuously tracks the OS resource consumption at each node, process, and device level.
It collects and analyzes this cluster-wide data. In real time mode, when thresholds are hit, an alert is
shown to the operator. For root cause analysis, historical data can be replayed to understand what
was happening at the time of failure.

NO.4 Which of these is not recommended as the basis for an ASM disk in a shared storage
configuration?
A. Raw disk partition
B. NFS file
C. Raw logical volumes
D. iSCSI targets
Answer: A

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Explanation:
*Block or raw devices are not supported by Oracle Universal Installer (OUI) or Database
Configuration Assistant (DBCA). However, manually configured raw or block devices are supported
by Oracle, but not recommended.
* Shared disk access requires some sort of networked storage
-
iSCSI (not D)
-
Fibre Channel/SCSI
-
NFS (not B)
*A logical volume issupported in less complicated configurations where a logical volume is mapped
to a LUN, or a logical volume uses disks or raw partitions.

NO.5 Which step will you have to perform on Windows to restore the OCR that you did not do on
Linux?
A. Identify existing backups with the -backup option
B. Use the Service Control Panel to stop services
C. Review the contents of the backup with the ocrdump command
D. Make sure that the restored OCR files are valid
Answer: B

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Explanation:
See step 2) below. Restoring the Oracle Cluster Registry on Windows-Based Systems
Use the following procedure to restore the OCR on Windows-based systems:
cluvfy comp ocr -n all [-verbose]
Note:
Restoring the Oracle Cluster Registry on UNIX-Based SystemsUse the following procedure to
restore the OCR on UNIX-based systems:
Repeat this command on each node in your Oracle RAC cluster.
Note:
Prior to running the crsctl start crs command in step 4, run the following command to verify that all
processes except init.cssd fatal are inactive:
ps -ef|grep cssd
Repeat this command on each node in your Oracle RAC cluster.
Reference: Oracle Database Oracle Clusterware and Oracle Real Application Clusters
Administration and Deployment Guide

NO.6 You are creating an Oracle Cluster database using DBCA. The "Memory size (SGA and PGA)"
field is supplied on value of 2000 MB. The default Block used for the database is __________.
A. 2 KB
B. 4 KB
C. 8 KB
D. 16 KB
E. 32 KB
Answer: C

Oracle   1z0-593   1z0-593
Explanation:
Note: *In the Block Size list, enter the size in bytes or accept the default. Oracle Database data is
stored in these blocks. One data block corresponds to a specific number of bytes of physical space
on disk. While using pre-defined templates, this field is not enabled since the database will be
created with the default block size of 8 KB. But while using the custom option, you can change block
size. Selecting a block size other than the default 8 KB value requires advanced knowledge and
should only be done when absolutely required.

NO.7 Which two actions do you need to take in Oracle Grid Infrastructure 11g Release 2 to enable
debugging for the resource ora.docrac.vip?
A. Make sure you are logged in as a privileged user.
B. crsctldebug res ora.docrac1.vip:1
C. crsctlset log res ora.docrac1.vip:1
D. crsctldebug log res ora.docrac1.vip:0
Answer: A,C

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Explanation:
A:You can use crsctl commands as the root user to enable dynamic debugging for the Oracle
Clusterware Cluster Ready Services (CRS), Oracle Cluster Registry (OCR), Cluster Synchronization
Services (CSS), and the Event Manager (EVM).
C: You can enable debugging for the CRS, OCR, CSS, and EVM modules and their components by
setting environment variables or by issuing crsctl debug commands using the following syntax:
crsctl debug log module_name component:debugging_level
Reference: Oracle Clusterware Administration and Deployment Guide,Component Level Debugging

NO.8 Choose two options that are not suitable for shared storage in a RAC 11g Release 2 database
created using DBCA.
A. Block device
B. Raw device
C. ASM
D. CFS
Answer: A,B

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Explanation:
Before you use DBCA to convert a single-instance database to an Oracle RAC or an
Oracle RAC One Node database, ensure that your system meets the following conditions:
/ It is a supported hardware and operating system software configuration.
/ It has shared storage: either Oracle Cluster File System (CFS) (not D) or Oracle ASM (not C) is
available and accessible from all nodes. On Linux on POWER systems, ensure that GPFS is
available and accessible from all nodes.
/ Your applications have no design characteristics that preclude their use with cluster database
processing.
Note:
*DBCA (Database Configuration Assistant) is a utility used for creating, configuring and removing
Oracle Databases.
Reference:Creating Oracle Real Application Clusters Databases with Database Configuration
Assistant
Reference:Converting to Oracle RAC and Oracle RAC One Node with DBCA

NO.9 Which two options are checked by the Oracle Universal Installer, when you first install Oracle
Software on a system?
A. if the OFA-compliant path is available
B. oraInst.loc should exist
C. that the user running the installation has permissions to write to the designated path
D. that you are running OUI as a DBA user
Answer: A,B

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Explanation:
A:
*When installing an OFA-compliant database using Oracle Universal Installer, ORACLE_BASE is
set to /pm/app/oracle by default.
*All Oracle products on CD-ROM are OFA-compliant; that is, Oracle Universal Installer places
Oracle products in directory locations that follow OFA guidelines
B: Every Oracle software installation has an associated Central Inventory where the details of all the
Oracle products installed on a host are registered. The Central Inventory is located in thedirectory
that the inventory pointer file specifies. Each Oracle software installation has its own Central
Inventory pointer file that is unknown to another Oracle software installation.
Default Inventory Pointer File Locations
PlatformDefault Inventory Pointer Location Linux LinuxPPC /etc/oraInst.loc AIX /etc/oraInst.loc
Solaris SPARC HPUX-IA64 HPUX-PARISC /var/opt/oracle/oraInst.loc Windows Windows.X64
Windows.IA64 HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE/Software/Oracle/inst.loc

NO.10 Which command lists all the service-related information for the specified service? (crmdb is
the cluster database name and crms is the service name)
A. #crsctl config services -d cmdb -s crms
B. #srvctlconfig service -d cmdb -s crms
C. #srvctl getenv service -d crmdb -s crms
D. #crsctl status service -d crm -s crm -v
Answer: B

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Explanation:
*The srvctl config command displays the Oracle Restart configuration of the specified component or
set of components.
*srvctl config service For the specified database, displays the Oracle Restart configuration
information for the specified database service or for all database services
Incorrect: Not C: getenv
Gets and displays environment variables and their values from the Oracle Restart configuration for a
database, listener, or Oracle ASM instance.
srvctl getenv Summary
CommandDescription
*srvctl getenv asm Displays the configured environment variables for the Oracle ASM instance
*srvctl getenv database Displays the configured environment variables for the specified database
instance
*srvctl getenv listener Displays the configuredenvironment variables for the specified listener
Reference:SRVCTL Command Reference for Oracle Restart

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Exam Code: 1Z1-478
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle SOA Suite 11g Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Identify two features of Oracle BAM.
A. Enterprise Manager's monitoring capabilities are central to Oracle BAM's ability to monitor
performance indicators.
B. You can analyze and present Information from activities spanning multiple systems and
applications.
C. Rich browser-based dashboards provide visibility into current values of key performance
indicators (KPIs).
D. There is a built-in trouble ticket system to track assignment and completion of corrective actions.
Answer: A,C

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Explanation:
Note: *Oracle Business Activity Monitoring (Oracle BAM) gives business executives the ability to
monitor their business services and processes in the enterprise, to correlate KPIs down to the actual
business process themselves, and most important, to change business processes quickly or to take
corrective action if the business environment changes.

NO.2 Which two features are provided by decision tables?
A. Sets of input data can be bucketed and reviewed for gaps.
B. Data sets can be reviewed for conflicts.
C. Data can be used for only one rule evaluation.
D. A rule evaluation can be used only to enter new output data.
Answer: A,B

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Explanation:
After you create a Decision Table there are operations that you may want to perform on the
Decision Table, including the following:
(A)Find and fix gaps in a Decision Table (B)Finding and resolving conflicts between rules in a
Decision Table Compact or split cells in a Decision Table Merge a condition or split a condition in a
Decision Table
A: *Compact the Decision Table
In this step you compact the rules to merge from eighteen rules to nine rules. This automatically
eliminates the rules that are not needed and preserves the no gap, no conflict properties for the
Decision Table.
*The Conditions area in a Decision Table includes one or more condition rows. Each condition row
has a condition expression and, for each rule, a condition cell. A condition expression is an
expression that you build in Rules Designer. The condition expression is often a fact property or a
function result, but it can be any expression that has a type that can be associated with a bucketset.
B:A Decision Table displays multiple related rules in a single spreadsheet-style view. In Rules
Designer a Decision Table presents a collection of related business rules with condition rows, rules,
and actions presented in a tabular form that is easy to understand. Business users can compare cells
and their values at a glance and can use Decision Table rule analysis features by clicking icons and
selecting values in Rules Designer to help identify and correct conflicting or missing cases.

NO.3 In your solution, a web service client needs to invoke a series of three web services in support
of a single transaction. The third web service needs the identity of the original web service client.
Which statement describes how the identity is made available by Oracle Web Services Manager
(OWSM)?
A. The transaction manager accesses an internal table that maintains credentials used to invoke
each individual web service in the chain.
B. Each web service in the chain does its own authentication so the third web service handles its
own identity checking.
C. OWSM sets the user in the Java Authentication and Authorization (JAAS) Subject when the first
web service successfully authenticates, and the Java Subject is used by subsequent web services to
access the identity.
D. OWSM stores a SAML token from the first web service invocation in a database table, and that
table is accessed by subsequent web services in the chain to retrieve identity.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Oracle Web Services Manager is a component of the Oracle Enterprise Manager Fusion Middleware
Control, a run-time framework that provides centralized management and governance of Oracle
SOA Suite environments and applications. You create and configureOracle Web Services Manager
policies in Oracle Enterprise Manager, and those policies are persisted in a policy store (a database
is recommended). Oracle Web Services Manager lets you define policies against an LDAP directory
and generate standard security tokens (such as SAML tokens) to propagate identities across multiple
Web services used in a single transaction.

NO.4 A partner needs to access services that are defined in one of your Service Composite
Architecture (SCA) applications via a web service interface. Which approach (and accompanying
reasoning) describes a loosely coupled and robust solution?
A. Use Oracle Service Bus to provide an Interface layer over your SCA application. This enables you
to hide the locations of your SCA application, perform load-balancing across those endpoints, and
provide the ability to define service level agreements to help ensure that you are meeting your
contractual obligations to the partner.
B. Use the Mediator component to provide a web service interface to your SCA application. This
arrives you the flexibility of using the industry standard XSLT technology to perform translation and
transformations.
C. Use Oracle Service Bus to provide an interface layer over your SCA application. This enables you
to "skin" your SCA application with a web service interface and still provide a robust experience to
the partner.
D. Allow the partner simply to connect directly to the SCA application. This provides the best
performance and helps keep the partner happy.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Identify two correct descriptions of Oracle Web Services Manager (OWSM).
A. It enables you to externalize web services security from the applications youbuild.
B. It manages policies in a distributed policy manager that serves as a single policy enforcement
point.
C. Use security and management events, captured by OWSM agents, are displayed using Oracle
BAM.
D. It supplies predefined security policies that enable declarative security and management
definition.
E. It uses Oracle Event Processing (OEP) to determine when security violations have occurred.
Answer: B,C

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Explanation:
Note: *Oracle WSM allows companies to (1) centrally define and store declarative policies applied
to the multiple web services making up a SOA infrastructure, (2) locally enforce security and
management policies through configurable agents, and (3) monitor runtime security events such as
failed authentication or authorization.
*Oracle Web Services Manager offers a comprehensive and easy-to-use solution for policy
management and security of service infrastructure. It provides visibility and control of the policies
through a centralized administration interface offered by Oracle Enterprise Manager.

NO.6 When more than one policy is attached to a policy subject, the combination of policies needs
to be valid. Which statement is true about the valid combination of policies for a policy subject?
A. Only one MTOM policy can be attached to a policy subject.
B. More than one Reliable Messaging policy can be attached to a policy subject.
C. Both a Reliable Messaging policy and a WS-Addressing policy cannot be attached to the same
policy subject.
D. Only one security policy can be attached to a policy subject.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Note:
*Within a SOA composite application, you must attach the Oracle WS-MTOM policy to service and
reference binding components to receive and send MTOM (MIME binary) attachments within
Oracle SOA Suite.
*Message Transmission Optimization Mechanism (MTOM)
Ensures that attachments are in MTOM format. This format enables binary data to be sent to and
from web services. This reduces the transmission size on the wire.
*ReliabilityPolicy
Supports the WS-Reliable Messaging protocol. This guarantees the end-to-end delivery of
messages.
* Addressing Policy Verifies that simple object access protocol (SOAP) messages include
WS-Addressing headers in conformance with the WS-Addressing specification. Transport-level data
is included in the XML message rather than relying on the network-level transport to convey this
information.

NO.7 Composite X invokes an outbound DB adapter to write data to a database table. You have
configured JCA at the binding component as follows:
<property name = "jca.retry.count" type = "xs:int" many = "false" override = "may" > 2</property>
<property name = "jca.retry.interval" type = "xs:int" many = "false" override = "may" > 2</property>
You have also modeled a modeled a fault policy to retry the invocation three times in case of
remoteFault as follows:
<retryCount>3<retryCount>
<retryInterval>3<retryInterval>
Which result describes what happens when the database that is being accessed by the above
binding component goes down?
A. The invocation is retrieved for a total of two times every two seconds. Fault policy retries are
ignored.
B. The invocation is retried for a total of six times every three seconds.
C. The invocation is retried for a total of six times every two seconds.
D. The fault policy retries occur within the JCA retries. So two JCA retries are executed two seconds
apart. Within each JCA retry, three fault policy retries are executed three seconds apart.
E. The JCA retries occur within the fault policy retries. So three fault policy retries are executed
three seconds apart. Within each fault policy retry, two JCA retries are executed two seconds apart.
Answer: E

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Explanation:
Note: *Global retries for any error handling are returned to the BPEL Receive activity instance, for
example, or, more generally, to the point at which the transaction started. Such a retry could occur
if there was an error such as a temporary database fault. The default retry count is by default
indefinite, or specified in the jca.retry.count property.
*Properties you can specify in the composite.xml file include:
/jca.retry.count
Specifies the maximum number of retries before rejection. Again, specifying this value is a pre-
requisite to specifying the other property values.
/jca.retry.interval
Specifies the time interval between retries (measured in seconds.)
*A remoteFault is also thrown inside an activity. It is thrown because the invocation fails. For
example, a SOAP fault is returned by the remote service.

NO.8 You expand a business rule component that a colleague added to the BPEL process. You see an
Assign element named Facts_To_Rule_Service.
Which statement is true bout this Assign element?
A. It was added automatically based on entries that your colleague made in the dialog box that
approved when the business rule component was added to the BPEL model.
B. Your colleague manually added this Assign element after adding the business rule component to
the BPEL Model.
C. This Assign element was automatically added when your colleague manually addedthe
corresponding Rule_Service_To_Facts assign to the BPEL model.
D. You can delete this Assign because it was created for documentation purposes only.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Note: *Facts_To_Rule_Service: Assigns the facts to a variable.

NO.9 Which two approaches are valid when using dynamic partner links in a BPEL process?
A. A WSDL file, which contains multiple services that use the same portType, is available at design
time, but the decision to determine which service is used can only be made at runtime.
B. When the BPEL process is designed, the endpoint URL of the WSDL file is known but the services
and port types are not known.
C. When the BPEL process is designed, the services and port types of the WSDL file are known but
the endpoint URI is not known.
D. A WSDL file, which contains multiple services that use different portTypes, is available at design
time, but the decision to determine which server us used can only be made at runtime.
Answer: A,C

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Explanation:
A (not D):How To Create a Dynamic Partner Link at Design Time for Use at Runtime
To create a dynamic partner link at design time for use at runtime:
etc
C (not B):The BPEL specification mandates that only the partner endpoint reference (EPR) can be
changed dynamically. In BPEL terms, only the partnerRole of a partner link element can have a new
value assigned. The myRole value doesn't change after the BPEL has been deployed.
Note: *Dynamic Partner Links and Dynamic Addressing During the design-time of an application,
you may need to configure certain services whose endpoints (addresses) are not known beforehand,
or it may be necessary to change an endpoint reference while the application is running. The
Dynamic Partner link feature allows you to dynamically assign an endpoint reference to the partner
link. This means that you can use onepartner link for subsequent calls to different web-services
(provided that the services use the same interface). *For successful deployment of the process, a
partner link should be completely defined. When you deploy the project, the WSDL file for the
partner link should contain and define both the abstract and the concrete information for the
partner link, including address and port, though later the concrete information can be changed
independently from the WSDL file.

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Exam Code: 1Z1-536J
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Exadata 11g Essentials (1Z1-536日本語版))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Exadata Storage Server に保存される単 一のテーブルの異なるパーテゖションの圧縮の
様々なタ゗プを使用するためのルールは何ですか。
A. すべてのパーテゖションが圧縮または非圧縮でなければならない。
B. すべてのパーテゖ ションは OLTP 圧 縮 また は ハ ゗ ブ リ ッ ド 列 圧 縮 を 使 用 す る 必 要 が あ る 。
C. 他のパーテゖショ ンの圧縮に関係なく 、 任意のパーテゖショ ン は圧縮のどんなタ゗ プ で
も使用することができる。
D. あなたは同じテー ブルのパーテゖション間で圧縮タ゗プを混ぜることができない。
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Note 2: Oracle supports enabling any type of table compression at the partition or sub-partition
level. An OLTP application, therefore, can store historical data in partitions with Archive
Compression, while active data remains in partitions with OLTP Table Compression.
http://docs.google.com/viewer?a=v&q=cache:5Ba7DpH4aSIJ:www.oracle.com/technetwork/middle
ware/bi-foundation/ehcc-twp131254.pdf+Exadata+Storage+Server+compression+on+different+part
itions+All+partitions+must+
use+either+OLTP+compression+or+Hybrid+Columnar+Compression&hl=en&gl=in&pid=bl&srcid=
ADGEEShHOE7yI9ggVnWONVw0jAxTh57P_07j_yj298frctNhZ1lgdcqdPAVENAuDmxaDP2WU6_
TuAfb6BdwP9pADcMxognuPKygvWrvIsC9cQFin_JuIsFE6Y7ZLMV1spwle118PXIc&sig=AHIEtbS-SANt3
sk4OoCSnN7mprxM-QOgvw

NO.2 まず最初に Exadata Storage Server を設 定するとき、どんな順序で以下の Procedures を
実行する必要がありますか。
A. ALTER CELL, CREATE CELLDISK, CREATE GRIDDISK, CALIBRATE
B. ALTER CELL, CREATE GRIDDISK, CREATE CELLDISK, CALIBRATE
C. CREATE GRIDDISK, CREATE CELLDISK, CALIBRATE, ALTER CELL
D. CALIBRATE, CREATE GRIDDISK, CREATE CELLDISK, ALTER CELL
E. CALIBRATE, ALTER CELL, CREATE GRIDDISK, CREATE CELLDISK
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Note on order of the create commands: #
cellcli -e alter cell : : This CELLCLI command startup all services
CREATE CELLDISK ALL-This CELLCLI command automatically creates celldisks on all
available logical unit numbers (LUNs).
CREATE GRIDDISK ALL PREFIX=prefix-This CELLCLI command automatically creates grid
disks on all available Exadata cell disks.
Each Exadata storage cell has 12 disks.- One physical disk is called LUN and is also called cell
disk.- A grid disk is part of a cell disk.
So the Cell disk must be created before the grid disk.
http://vijaydumpa.blogspot.com/ 2011 / 01 /exadata-v2-storage-server-cell-node.html
The "calibrate" command, which is part of the Exadata storage "cellcli" interface, is used to test the
capabilites of the underlinying components of Exadata storage. The throughput and IOPS of both
the drives and Flash modules can be tested at any point to see if they are performing up to
expectations.
calibrate" command should be executed after celldisk and grid disk are created.
http://glennfawcett.wordpress.com/category/exadata/

NO.3 グリッド· デゖスクの゗ンターリーブのタ゗プをいつ指定するのですか。
A. セル· デゖ スクを作成するとき
B. グリッド· デゖスク を作成するとき
C. ASM を通じる
D. 表領域を作成する とき
Answer: A

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NO.4 あなたの顧客は、 彼らのデータで最大の圧縮を得るために Hybrid Columnar Compression
を使いたいです。 どのオプションが、 このゴールを達成するためのベストプラクテゖスを表
しますか。
A. Direct Path ロード で 圧縮されたフゔ゗ルを読み込む
B. 低い基数でコラム の着信データをソートする
C. DBFS と外部フラ゗を使用してデータをロードする
D. Data Pump を使用し てデータをロードする
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Hybrid Columnar Compressed Tables
New approach to compressed table storage
Useful for data that is bulk loaded and queried
Update activity is light
Parallel DML, INSERT /*+ APPEND */, Direct Path SQL*LDR
Data loaded using Direct Load uses Hybrid Columnar Compression
Reference: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/features/availability/ 311358-132337.pdf

NO.5 あなたの顧客は 、 複数の既存の Oracle データベースを統合するために彼らのオラクル
Exadata データベース· マシンを使用したいと考えています。 彼らは問題を見つけました。 こ
れらのデータベースの一部は、現在 RAC を 使用しますが、他のものはそうしませんから。
どのようにこの潜在的な問題に対処する必要がありますか。
A. Oracle Exadata Database Machine には、す べての RAC があり、ま たは RAC データベース が
ない必要があるから、これは RAC にすべて のデータベースをゕップグレードするための素
晴らしい時間であることを示唆する。
B. Oracle Exadata Database Machine を 2 つの 同等のパーテゖションに分かれて、一つは RAC
のために、他の一つは彼らのシングル· ゗ンスタンス· データベースのために使用される。
C. あなたは、 データベースが RAC または単一 の゗ンスタンスであるかどうかにかかわらず、
どんな方法でもデータベース? サーバにデータベースを割り当てることができる。
D. 彼らはいつも Oracle Exadata Database Machine の上で優れたパフ ォーマンスを提供するか
ら、単一の゗ンスタンス· データベースにすべてのデータベースを移行する。
Answer: C

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NO.6 どの Exadata Storage Server ユーザーが 、 Exadata セルオブジ ェクトだけを見ることがで
きるのですか。
A. ルート
B. Celladmin
C. セルモニタ
D. CellCLI
Answer: C

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Explanation:
The cellcli utility works from the root, celladmin and cellmonitor (read-only) users.
http://www.pythian.com/news/17905 /physical-disk-cell-disk-grid-disk-and-asm-disk-in-exadata/

NO.7 あなたの顧客は、それらがフルラッ ク にハーフラックへク オ ーターラックから自 分 の
Exadata Database Machine をゕップグレード する必要があるとき、マシンの全体的なパフォ
ーマンスが 減少す るこ とを心配し ていま す。 この問題にどの よう に対処する 必要が あり ま
すか。
A. 彼 ら がよ り 多く のス ト レ ー ジを 必 要と する と き 、 基盤 に ある ハー ド ウ ェ ゕが 速 くな るの
で、心配する必要はないことを顧客に知らせる。
B. 彼らは常により良 いパフォーマンスのために SAS ストレージに SATA ストレージから移動
することができることを顧客に知らせる。
C. 若干のパフォーマ ンスの低下はどんな ゕ ーキテクチャでも避 け られないことを顧客 に 知
らせる。
D. Exadata Storage Server のバランスのよいハードウェゕの構成がこれが起こるのを防ぐこと
を顧客に知らせる。
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Oracle lets you upgrade from quarter rack to half rack or a full rack, but again its not cheap.
The only gotcha I've seen is you cannot simply add storage to the solution, you need to by exadata
servers and software and might also need to buy additional database servers depending upon your
storage requirement. So when you budget your system, ensure that you forecast your growth
thoroughly.
http://techsatwork.com/blog/?p=743

NO.8 Database Resource マネージャ· プランはどの三つの属性を含みますか。
A. データベース名、レベルと割り当て
B. データベース名、 レベルとリソース· グループ
C. データベース名、 割当てとリソース· グループ
D. データベ ース名、 リソースグループとカテゴリー
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Resource plans specify the resource consumer groups belonging to the plan and contain directives
for how resources are to be allocated among these groups. You use the
DBMS_RESOURCE_MANAGER package to create and maintain these elements of the Database
Resource Manager: resource plans, resource consumer groups, and resource plan directives. Plan
information is stored in tables in the data dictionary. Several views are available for viewing plan
data.
How resources are allocated to resource consumer groups is specified in resource allocation
directives. The Database Resource Manager provides several means of allocating resources.
Note: The main goal of the Database Resource Manager is to give the Oracle Database server more
control over resource management decisions, thus circumventing problems resulting from
inefficient operating system management.

NO.9 ハードドラ゗ブ がストレージ? セルから削除された場合、 あなたは何をしなければなり
ませんか。
A. 無。
B. セルはリブートさ れなければならない。
C. それを警告するた めに ASM を変更しな ければならない。
D. ラ゗ブを使用する 任意のグリッド· デゖスクを再作成しなければならない。
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Automatic addition of replacement disk to the disk group: All the required Exadata operations to
re-create the disk groups, and add the grid disks back to the original disk group are now performed
automatically when a replacement disk is inserted after a physical disk failure.
Automatic cell restart: Grid disks are automatically changed to online when a cell recovers from a
failure, or after a restart.
http://webcache.googleusercontent.com/search?q=cache:1jN0wMz6f34J:vishalgupta.com/oracle/
Docs/ExadataV2 /doc.112 /e13861 /whatsnew.htm+oracle+exadata+when+a+physical+disk+is+repl
aced+in+a+storage+cell&cd=8&hl=en&ct=clnk&gl=in&source=www.google.co.in
http://forums.oracle.com/forums/thread.jspa?threadID=2207219&tstart=0

NO.10 Intra データベー ス? リソース管理を可能にするために、 どんなタスクを実行しなければ
なりませんか。
A. IORM パラメータを TRUE に設定する
B. 手動で、 ALTER SYSTEM ステートメントで RESOURCE_MANAGER_PLAN パラメーターを設 定
する
C. 標的 Exadata セルの それぞれで IORMPLAN をゕクテゖブにする
D. ASM のために IORMPLAN をゕクテゖブに する
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Resources are allocated to users according to a resource plan specified by the database
administrator.
The ALTER SYSTEM SET RESOURCE_MANAGER_PLAN statement is used to dynamically activate,
change, or deactivate resource plans.
http://download.oracle.com/docs/cd/B10500_01 /server.920/a96524 /c10rsmgr.htm

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NO.1 Assume that !p means sending message p and ?p receiving it. In the exhibit, what is true about Mneg?
A. Neither p nor q should be sent between a and b.
B. <!p, ?q, ?p, !q> is an invalid trace according to Mneg.
C. p and q should not be sent concurrently from a to b.
D. <!p, !q, ?p, ?q> is an invalid trace according to Mneg.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What does a circle with an X in it (as depicted in the exhibit) represent inside UML 2.0 activity
diagrams?
A. initial nodes
B. activity final nodes
C. merges
D. forks
E. joins
F. decisions
G. flow final nodes
Answer: G

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NO.3 What indicates an artifact instance in UML notation? (Choose two)
A. class box with two smaller rectangles on its left side
B. <<artifact>> keyword
C. memo box
D. single sheet icon with a folded-over corner
E. syntactically well-formed file name
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 What situation results from performing a CreateObjectAction on an abstract class?
A. arbitrary object of one of its subclasses being created
B. undefined behavior
C. object of the specified class being created
D. error log entry being created
E. exception being raised
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is a combined fragment?
A. more than one interaction combined in an interaction overview diagram
B. an interaction occurrence covering more than one lifeline
C. the combination of decomposed lifelines
D. a construct with interaction operands and an interaction operator
Answer: D

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NO.6 When an object invokes a ReadSelfAction, what will it retrieve?
A. name of the invoking activity
B. class name of the invoking object
C. invoking object
D. attribute values and links for the invoking object
E. attribute values for the invoking object
Answer: B

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NO.7 When either a message m or a message q is to be sent-but not both-what kind of operator for combined
fragment would be used?
A. opt
B. par
C. alt
D. break
E. var
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is true when invoking a CreateObjectAction?
A. State machine transitions can be triggered.
B. The classifier cannot be an association class.
C. The classifier cannot be abstract.
D. Initial expressions can be evaluated.
E. Behaviors can be executed.
Answer: C

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NO.9 For what does an interaction operator define semantics?
A. a particular interaction fragment
B. a particular interaction
C. a particular message
D. a particular combined fragment
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is NOT a correct assertion?
A. Stereotypes extending a model element can be retracted at any time.
B. Un-applying a profile from a model deletes all related stereotypes extending the model.
C. Stereotypes extending a model element are immutable.
D. A model element can be extended by several stereotypes at the same time.
Answer: C

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NO.11 What statement is true if a port delegates to multiple ports on subordinate components?
A. multiple delegation is not allowed
B. subordinate ports must collectively offer the delegated functionality of the delegating port
C. subordinate ports must be type compatible with the delegating port
D. at execution time, signals will be delivered from the subordinate ports to the delegating port
Answer: B

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NO.12 What characteristic does a behavior port possess?
A. owns the behavior of the classifier that owns the port
B. defines the behavior that the owning classifier must realize
C. has its own behavior that is distinct from the behavior of the classifier
D. relays any incoming messages directly to the behavior of the owning object
E. must have a protocol state machine
F. is a kind of behavior
Answer: D

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NO.13 What does a loop node consist of?
A. clauses
B. partitions
C. parameters
D. bodyPart nodes
E. behaviors
F. guards
Answer: D

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NO.14 Triggers on two different transitions originating from two states at different levels of the same state are
simultaneously enabled (as shown in the exhibit). What does this mean?
A. The state machine is not well-formed.
B. The less deeply nested transition takes precedence over those with more depth.
C. More deeply nested transitions take precedence over those with less depth.
D. Both transitions are taken in arbitrary order.
Answer: C

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NO.15 What kinds of arrows connect to central buffers?
A. control flows
B. unidirectional associations
C. object flows
D. state transitions
E. message passing
F. dependencies
Answer: C

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NO.16 What does reaching the terminating pseudostate mean?
A. The final state has been reached.
B. The enclosing region is completed.
C. The "do" activity of the current state has completed.
D. A completion transition has occurred.
E. The context object of the state machine is terminated.
Answer: E

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NO.17 What is NOT true of a CreateObjectAction?
A. classifier must be abstract
B. classifier cannot be abstract
C. classifier cannot be an association class
D. output pin has multiplicity [1..1]
E. type of the output pin is the classifier.
F. output pin has multiplicity [1..*]
Answer: A,F

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NO.18 What is the difference between a stereotype and a metaclass?
A. A metaclass is a limited kind of a stereotype that can only be used in conjunction with one of the
stereotypes it limits.
B. Stereotypes can be specialized, but metaclasses cannot be specialized.
C. Metaclasses can be specialized, but stereotypes cannot be specialized.
D. A stereotype is a specialization of a metaclass that can be used by itself, whereas a metaclass must be
used with a stereotype.
E. A stereotype is a limited kind of a metaclass that can be only be used in conjunction with one of the
metaclasses it extends.
Answer: E

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NO.19 Which relationships would make the model in the exhibit ill-formed.?
A. SpecialOrder and Order are related to each other via an association.
B. SpecialOrder is a subtype of Order.
C. Order is a subtype of SpecialOrder.
D. SpecialOrder and Order are related to each other via a dependency.
Answer: C

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NO.20 What kind of element is a central buffer?
A. activity
B. control node
C. action
D. object node
E. state
F. behavior
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 050-690
Exam Name: Novell (Novell network management;netware 6.5)
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Total Q&A: 192 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 You just deleted the DATA volume from your NetWare 6.5 server. You realize that this was a
mistake and you need to restore it. By default, how long do you have before the volume is
automatically purged?
A.12 hours
B.36 hours
C.48 hours
D.72 hours
E.96 hours
F.It's too late, the volume has been purged. You must recreate it and restore data from a back up device.
Correct:E

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NO.2 In which container is the organizational CA object found in your eDirectory tree?
A.KAP
B.NMAS
C.[ROOT]
D.Security
E.The same container where the server has been installed.
Correct:D

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NO.3 You want to upgrade a NetWare 6 server with Support Pack 2 to NetWare 6.5. The server
hardware uses a Pentium III 500 MHz Celeron CPU, 512 MB RAM, an 8 GB hard disk drive with a
200 MB DOS partition, and a USB mouse. Can this server be upgraded?
A.Yes, the server meets all prerequisite requirements.
B.No, NetWare 6.5 requires a PIII 750 MHz CPU or later.
C.No, NetWare 6.5 isn't compatible with Celeron processors.
D.No, the server's CPU is too slow and the hard disk drive is too small.
E.No, the server's DOS partition is too small and USB mice aren't supported.
F.No, the server doesn't have enough RAM and must have Support Pack 3 or later applied.
G.No, the server's DOS partition is too small and must have Support Pack 3 or later applied.
Correct:G

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NO.4 In Public Key Cryptography, the _____________ key is used to decrypt an encrypted
transmission. Answer:
A.PRIVATE
Correct:A

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NO.5 What is another name for the server certificate?
A.WEP key
B.Key material object
C.Certificate authority
D.Certificate signing request
Correct:B

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NO.6 Which command will enable Transition Tracking System (TTS) on an NSS volume named DATA?
A.TTS
B.NSS /TTS=DATA
C.TTS VOLUME=DATA
D.NSS /TRANSACTION=DATA
E.NSS /TRANSACTIONTRACKING=DATA
Correct:D

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NO.7 Which parameter allows you to set the location in your eDirectory tree where user accounts
exist, allowing older versions of the Novell Client that aren't directory-aware to authenticate to the
server?
A.User Context
B.Primary Server
C.Bindery Context
D.Preferred Server
E.Emulation Context
F.Compatibility Mode Driver
G.NetWare 3 Emulation Mode
Correct:C

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NO.8 Which time server type adjusts its clock 50% per polling interval?
A.Master
B.Primary
C.Secondary
D.Reference
E.Single reference
F.Secondary reference
Correct:B

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NO.9 Which statements are true regarding subordinate reference replicas? (Choose 2)
A.There can be multiple subordinate references per partition.
B.Subordinate references must reside on every server in the tree.
C.Subordinate references link a parent partition with its child partition.
D.Subordinate references can be changed to be a master replica without losing any information.
E.Subordinate references should be removed to help reduce traffic across the communication channel.
Correct:A C

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NO.10 In a time provider group, which server carries the most weight when voting on a time?
A.Master
B.Primary
C.Reference
D.Secondary
E.Single reference
Correct:C

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NO.11 Click the Point and Click button to begin. Click the Server Management Console management
task you would use to recover a forgotten pass phrase.
Correct:

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NO.12 Your organization is implementing an e-commerce web site where external customers can shop
for and purchase products. It's imperative that you establish a secure web site to do this. Which
type of certificate authority should you use?
A.Public Certificate Authority
B.Internal Certificate Authority
C.External Certificate Authority
D.Integrated Certificate Authority
Correct:C

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NO.13 You recently completed a Remote Upgrade to NetWare 6.5 on a server located in your
organization's Baltimore, MD. office. You realize that you forgot to install MySQL on the server
during the upgrade. Which NetWare utilities can you use to remotely install this product? (Choose
2)
A.iMonitor
B.iManager
C.ConsoleOne
D.Deployment Manager
E.NetWare Administrator
F.NetWare GUI Install utility using Remote Manager
Correct:D F

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NO.14 You are a regional network administrator remotely upgrading a NetWare 5.1 server to NetWare
6.5. The NetWare 5.1 server has 512 MB of RAM, a 180 GB RAID 5 disk array with a 1 GB DOS
partition, and Support Pack 6 installed. Your user object has the Supervisor right to the container
where the server resides and the Browse right to the root of the tree. Will the upgrade be
successful?
A.No, the DOS partition is too small.
B.No, the server doesn't have enough RAM.
C.Yes, the system meets all prerequisite requirements.
D.No, you must have the Supervisor right to the root of the tree.
E.No, you must first install Support Pack 7 on the NetWare 5.1 server.
F.No, you can't remotely upgrade a server that uses a RAID disk array.
G.No, you can't perform a Remote Upgrade on a NetWare 5.1 server. You must use an In-Place Upgrade.
Correct:D

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NO.15 You are upgrading a NetWare 6.0 server to NetWare 6.5. What command should you use to
mount the NetWare 6.5 Operating System CD as a volume on your NetWare 6.0 server?
A.CD MOUNT ALL
B.LOAD NTFS.NLM
C.LOAD NTFS.NSS
D.LOAD CDROM.NSS
E.LOAD CD9660.NSS
F.LOAD CD9660.NLM
G.LOAD ISO9660.NSS
H.LOAD ISO9660.NLM
I.MOUNT -T ISO9660
Correct:E

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NO.16 You're configuring an SLP Directory Agent on your NetWare 6.5 server. You want to statically
configure your server to communicate with another Directory Agent whose IP address is 10.0.0.4.
This server resides on a different network segment than your server. Which of the following is the
correct command to enter in the SLP.CFG file to accomplish this?
A.DA=10.0.0.4
B.SLPDA=10.0.0.4
C.DA IPV4 10.0.0.4
D.DA IPV4, 10.0.0.4
E.SLPDA IPV4 10.0.0.4
F.SLPDA IPV4, 10.0.0.4
Correct:D

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NO.17 Which statements about using both SLP and configured lists for time synchronization are true?
(Choose 2)
A.Using both adds extra traffic on the network.
B.Using both provides fault tolerance for time synchronization.
C.Time doesn't synchronize if both SLP and configured lists are used.
D.Using both allows IP and IPX servers to synchronize with each other.
E.Using both shortens the amount of time it takes to synchronize time throughout the network.
Correct:A B

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NO.18 Which is an example of the single reference time synchronization method for a network that
has 15 NetWare 6 servers?
A.1 primary time server and 14 secondary time servers
B.2 primary time servers and 13 secondary time servers
C.1 single reference time server and 14 secondary time servers
D.2 single reference time servers and 13 secondary time servers
E.1 reference time server, 2 primary time servers, and 12 secondary time servers
F.1 single reference time server, 1 primary time server, and 13 secondary time servers
Correct:C

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NO.19 Click the Exhibit button. You've configured your NetWare 6.5 server to function as a Dynamic
NAT router between two network segments, as shown in the exhibit. The workstations on the
private segment are running Windows 2000. The workstations on the public segment are running
Windows XP. A user on the public segment whose IP address is 209.5.1.2 wants to access a
shared folder on a workstation installed on the private segment whose IP address is 10.0.0.2. Will
the user be able to accomplish this?
A.No, Dynamic NAT doesn't support Windows shared folders.
B.No, Dynamic NAT isn't supported by Windows 2000 systems.
C.No, you must issue the SET ALLOW DYNAMIC PASSTHRU=ON command on the server first.
D.Yes, Dynamic NAT routing allows bi-directional shared folder access between segments.
E.No, Dynamic NAT doesn't allow hosts on the public segment to access hosts on the private segment.
Correct:E

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NO.20 Deployment Manager fails when run from the NetWare 6.5 Operating System CD on your
Windows 2000 Professional workstation with Novell Client 4.83 installed. What is the cause?
A.Deployment Manager requires Windows XP Home edition.
B.Deployment Manager is not compatible with Novell Client 4.83.
C.You must upgrade to Internet Explorer 6.0 or later on the workstation.
D.Deployment Manager is not compatible with Windows 2000 Professional.
E.Deployment Manager must be installed on the workstation before running the program.
F.The version of Deployment Manager on the Operating System CD only runs on Windows 95/98
workstations.
Correct:B

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Exam Code: 50-683
Exam Name: Novell (Desktop Management with ZENworks for )
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Total Q&A: 129 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What can the user package Novell iPrint policy do? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Set a printer as a default printer.
B. Install NIPP.EXE on the workstation.
C. Configure a printer for a workstation.
D. Install the iPrint client on a workstation.
Answer:A, D

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NO.2 Which tool can you use to remotely manage a workstation?
A. NWAdmin
B. RCONJ.EXE
C. DESKTOP4.EXE
D. Application explorer/launcher
E. The remote management agent
Answer:C

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NO.3 Which ZENworks for Desktops 4 (ZfD4) policies are cumulative policies? (Choose
two)
A. Windows Group policies
B. Dynamic Local User polices
C. Computer Extensible policies
D. Windows Desktop Preferences polices
Answer:A, C

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NO.4 To configure user-defined policies using the ADM files for workstation objects,
which policy do you configure?
A. Remote control
B. Scheduled action
C. Computer extensible
D. Workstation imaging
E. ZENworks for Desktops management agent
Answer:C

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NO.5 Which object can you associate with a workstation package?
A. User
B. Printer
C. Security
D. Container
E. Computer
Answer:D

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NO.6 HOTSPOT
Click the option in ConsoleOne you use to get real-time information about device
drivers on the
controlled workstation.
Answer:

NO.7 Which eDirectory design guidelines for NetWare should you follow when implementing
ZENworks for
Desktops? (Choose two)
A. Tier design guidelines
B. Tree design guidelines
C. Policy design guidelines
D. Server design guidelines
E. Replica design guidelines
Answer:B, E

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NO.8 You have a critical application that is being deployed to workstations and you
want to receive notification
if any workstation fails to install the application. You also want a list of
workstations that the application
is delivered to.
Which service location package policies should you configure to receive this
information? (Choose two)
A. XSLT policy
B. SMTP host policy
C. SNMP trap targets policy
D. ZENworks database policy
Answer:B, C

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NO.9 You are using ZENworks for Desktop 4.
Which HTML file must be configured for remote users to access applications through
their browsers?
A. APPS
B. DOCS
C. INDEX
D. MYAPPS
E. MYDOCS
Answer:D

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NO.10 Which utility do you use to access the Remote Operator Wizard?
A. StartX
B. iMonitor
C. iManager
D. ConsoleOne
Answer:D

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NO.11 .By default, which policy package has highest precedence?
A. A policy package associated with a group object.
B. A policy package associated with the root object.
C. A policy package associated with an organization (O) object.
D. A policy package associated with an organization unit (OU) object.
Answer:A

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NO.12 Which server package policy should you use to automatically place and name
workstation objects in the
eDirectory tree?
A. Rollup policy
B. Wake-on-LAN policy
C. Imaging server policy
D. Workstation import policy
Answer:D

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NO.13 Which policy can have multiple instances for the same user policy package?
A. Novell iPrint policy
B. Remote control policy
C. User extensible policy
D. Scheduled action policy
E. Dynamic local user policy
Answer:D

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NO.14 What is the benefit of implementing a search policy?
A. It allows you to search eDirectory for a specified user.
B. It limits how fat up the tree ZENworks looks for effective polices.
C. It allows outdated workstations to be easily located and removed.
D. It allows you to monitor events from outside the organization's network.
Answer:B

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NO.15 Which statements are true regarding ZENworks for Desktops 4 (ZfD 4) policies?
(Choose two)
A. Policies are stored on the workstation.
B. Policies are grouped according to functional area.
C. Policies allow you to assign file system rights to users.
D. ZfD 4 allows the same type of policy to perform various actions according to a
specified schedule.
Answer:B, D

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NO.16 For an application to be distributed to a workstation, what defines the
information required to distribute it?
A. The application object
B. The application's .INI file
C. The application container
D. Novell application launcher (NAL)
Answer:A

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NO.17 Exhibit.
What will happen if you select the Use as top of configuration tree box?
A. NAL will walk the tree all the way to the root object.
B. NAL will not walk the tree under the child container.
C. NAL will search eDirectory until it finds all container polices.
D. NAL will stop searching eDirectory for launcher configuration when it reaches
this container.
E. NAL will stop searching eDirectory for applications or polices when it reaches
this container.
Answer:D

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NO.18 Which object can a service location package be associated with? (Choose one)
A. User object
B. Root object
C. Group object
D. Server object
E. Country object
F. Workstation object
G. Organizational unit object
Answer:G

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NO.19 You created a server policy package and associated it with a server object.
Where are the polices applied?
A. To all ZENworks for Desktops back-end servers-
B. To all objects in the tree that are valid types for the package.
C. To all objects on the server that are valid types for the package.
D. To all objects in the container that are valid types for the package.
Answer:C

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NO.20 What objects can you use to set security parameters for remote management? (Choose
2.)
A. Alias
B. User
C. Group
D. Workstation
E. Server package
Answer:B, D

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NO.21 .In relation to ZENworks for desktop 4, which tool is used to assign the necessary
rights for a user to remotely control a workstation?
A. Help desk wizard
B. Remote control wizard
C. Remote operator wizard
D. Remote management wizard
Answer:C

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NO.22 When configuring a Workstation package, policies are available under 6 categories.
General, Win95-98,
WinNT-2000-XP, WinNT, Win2000, and WinXP.
What policies can be configured under the General polices category? (Choose two)
A. Help Desk
B. Client Config
C. Remote Control
D. Workstation Imaging
E. Computer Extensible
Answer:C, D

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NO.23 Which is true concerning ZENworks for Desktop 4 application folders? (Choose
three)
A. They can be created as a template object.
B. They can be created using an application object.
C. They can be created as an application folder object.
D. They are used to organize and distribute workstation images.
E. They are used to organize the applications you distribute to users through
Novell application launcher
(NAL).
Answer:B, C, E

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NO.24 DRAG DROP
Rank the default precedence of each policy package in order, from highest to
lowest.
Answer:

NO.25 Which configurations can be easily set using policies in the user package? (Choose
two)
A. Deploying applications across various LAN locations.
B. Tracking various types of hardware used in your organization.
C. Providing a full-access workstation environment for administrators.
D. Maintaining a workstation environment for users with special needs.
Answer:C, D

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NO.26 Which of the following describes the ZENworks for Desktop 4 application browser?
A. A distributed application icon that is displayed in the system tray.
B. A web browser view that displays icons for distributed applications.
C. A standalone window that displays icons for distributed applications.
D. A distributed application icon that is displayed on the Windows desktop.
Answer:C

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Not B.Its not a web application

NO.27 The ZENworks for Desktop 4 web services architecture eliminates the need for which
component?
A. Firewall
B. Novell Client
C. ZENworks middle tier
D. ZENworks back-end server
Answer:B

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NO.28 In relation to a Windows group policy, which feature allows you to change the
policy preference to ensure that
workstation policies take precedence over user polices?
A. ZEN policy loopback
B. User policy loopback
C. Group policy loopback
D. Workstation policy loopback
Answer:C

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NO.29 What is the NetWare console command to verify that automatic workstation import
(AWI) is working
correctly?
A. JAVA -SHOW
B. ZENWSIMPORT
C. JAVA -ZENWSIMPORT
D. SHOW -ZENWSIMPORT
Answer:A

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NO.30 Which remote management utility can you use to run applications on the managed
workstation from the
administrator workstation?
A. Diagnostics
B. File Transfer
C. Remote View
D. Remote Execute
E. Remote Wake Up
Answer:D

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