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Exam Code: 6006.1
Exam Name: Avaya Aura(TM) Communication Manager (R5.2.1) Implementation Exam
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Exam Code: 132-S-815.1
Exam Name: Specialist Modular Messaging with Avaya Message Store Implement and Support Elective Exam
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Exam Code: 132-S-712-2
Exam Name: Specialist: Avaya Proactive Contact Solutions Design Elective Exam
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NO.1 Which two telemarketing situations would merit greater than a 2:1 line to agent ratio?
(Choose two.)
A.using unconfirmed contact data
B.using one of the call blending solutions
C.using unsolicited calling lists (cold calling individuals)
D.calling customers with multiple contact numbers (home, business, etc.)
Answer:A C

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NO.2 You are using the Avaya Solution Designer. What is the correct input on the ACD line
on the Predictive
Agent Blend software screen for an Avaya Proactive Contact System using Predictive Agent
Blending
with one ACD?
A.leave line blank
B.type in the number 1
C.leave line at the default (0)
D.type in the ACD brand name
Answer:C

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NO.3 The Avaya Proactive Contact access server provides which two functions within the
system? (Choose
two.)
A.connects calls to agents
B.manages the internal LAN
C.serves as a dial-in point for access to the digital switch and CPU
D.is the interface that supervisors and agents use on their computers
Answer:B C

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NO.4 Which feature meets the needs of customers who want to run jobs that play messages
to both phones
answered by live customers and phones answered by answering machines?
A.Autowrap
B.Virtual Agent
C.Agent Blending
D.Managed Dialing
Answer:B

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NO.5 Your customer has difficulty sorting through their current system's reports to give
supervisors
information that pertains only to their particular group. Which feature should in Avaya
Proactive Contact
meets the customer's need?
A.Shared Lists
B.Unit Work List
C.List Distribution
D.HierarchyManager
Answer:D

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NO.6 Your customer runs a collections call center. When an inbound call comes in, your
customer wants be
able to keep the customer from being called back on the outbound jobs if payment was
received on the
inbound call. Which feature automatically marks records as uncallable on outbound jobs if the
agent uses
a code indicating an inbound call resulted in a payment from the customer?
A.Do Not Call
B.Sales Verification
C.Generic Postupdate
D.Realtime Campaign Update
Answer:D

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NO.7 Which tool is new to the Editor Application in the Avaya Proactive Contact Supervisor
software?
A.verification of jobs
B.record selection reports
C.messages files and scripts
D.IVR fields in record selections
Answer:C

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NO.8 Your customer has a group of agents that handle clerical and other duties and who
handle calls only
when needed. A supervisor notifies these agents when they need to answer calls because
calls are
queueing or being abandoned. However, the response is often too late to be of much help
and the result
is many abandoned calls. Which Avaya Proactive Contact feature meets this customer's
needs?
A.Virtual Agent
B.Person to Person
C.Intelligent Call Blending
D.Native Voice & Data Transfer
Answer:B

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NO.1 Ninety (90) days after installation, if the initial Super Admin user's password is not
changed, the initial Super Admin user
A. is required to change their password before accessing both the Operations Console and Security
Console.
B. can access both the Operations Console and Security Console but is reminded to
change passwords after logon.
C. is allowed to access the Operations Console but is required to change their password
before accessing the Security Console.
D. is locked out of both the Operations Console and the Security Console until another
administrator re-sets the password and unlocks the account.
Answer: C

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NO.2 When planning an RSA SecurID system deployment, the Agents that will be required are
dependent on
A. the type of authenticator assigned to users in the system.
B. the variety and type of entry points to a given network or protected resource.
C. the total number of users that exist in all Authentication Manager Security Domains.
D. the communication (port) configurations of any firewalls separating Agent devices and
authentication servers.
Answer: B

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NO.3 If an organization's general security policy specifies that certain RSA SecurID tokens will
be used without a PIN (tokencode only), this can be accomplished by editing the
parameters
A. in the records for individual tokens.
B. in the Realm Authentication Policy.
C. in the Security Domain Token Policy.
D. in the Security Domain Password Policy.
Answer: A

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NO.4 As part of the Primary server installation, the installer automatically backs up certain files
in the RSA Authentication Manager/backup/ directory. These files
A. include the system private key file.
B. hold the contents of the embedded database.
C. are used to install Replica servers and Server Nodes.
D. are deleted after the Primary services successfully start.
Answer: A

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NO.5 RSA Authentication Agents are typically installed and configured
A. only outside a corporate or internet firewall.
B. according to a general security policy and access control plan.
C. before the installation of the RSA Authentication Manager server.
D. before users have been assigned and trained on the use of RSA SecurID tokens.
Answer: B

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NO.6 To use an LDAP directory server as a source for user and group data in an RSA
Authentication Manager database,
A. an Identity Source can be mapped to the LDAP directory through the Authentication
Manager Operations Console.
B. individual data transfer jobs can be scheduled through the Scheduled Jobs function of
the Authentication Manager Security Console.
C. a data export can be initiated on the directory server to export users and groups to the
Authentication Manager database over a secure SSL connection.
D. a new LDAP schema is applied to the directory server to include the attribute
"cn=securid" to designate users to be transferred to Authentication Manager.
Answer: A

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NO.7 When using an RSA Authentication Agent for PAM, which of the following statements is
true?
A. Users designated for RSA SecurID authentication must have root privileges.
B. A user's account must specify 'sdshell' to allow RSA SecurID authentication.
C. When installing the Agent for PAM, the services file must be edited to add
"securid_pam" as a TCP service.
D. Service, rule and module information to support RSA SecurID authentication are
contained in the pam.conf file.
Answer: D

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NO.8 If the RSA RADIUS server is NOT installed at the time of the RSA Authentication
Manager software installation and the RADIUS function is needed at a later date,
(Choose two)
A. it can be added to the Authentication Manager server through the Operations Console.
B. it can be added to the Authentication Manager server using the add_rad_svr command
line utility.
C. it can be installed on a separate host and connected to the existing Authentication
Manager server.
D. Authentication Agents can be configured to proxy RADIUS transactions without the
need for a RADIUS server
E. it cannot be added to the Authentication Manager server without uninstalling then reinstalling
the server software.
Answer: C E

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Exam Code: SC0-402
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Exam Code: SC0-451
Exam Name: Tactical Perimeter Defense
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Exam Name: Enterprise Security Implementation (ESI)
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NO.1 When an OCSP responder provides a digitally signed response for each of the certificates sent to it by
the relying party in the original request, its reply consists of the certificate identifier, one of three status
values and a validity interval. What are the three status values?
A.Okay, Not Okay, Revoked
B.This Update, Next Update, Future Update
C.Good, Revoked, Unknown
D.Issuer
Public Key, Hash of the Private Key, Unknown
E.Issuer
Private Key, Thumbprint of the Public Key, Unknown
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the average size of a biometric template?
A.Between 10 and 100 KB
B.Between 100 and 500 KB
C.Less than 1 KB
D.Less than 3 bytes
E.Between 500 KB and 1 MB
Answer: C

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NO.3 What format is used to list the information that is contained in the Issuer field of an X.509 digital
certificate?
A.FQDN
B.X.500 CN
C.CA Name
D.X.500 DN
E.Position of the CA in the CA hierarchy
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which antenna type is best for extending the local range of an Access Point?
A.Yagi
B.Omni-directional
C.Di-polar
D.Parabolic
E.Mono-polar
Answer: B

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NO.5 What are the two primary types of token system?
A.Time-based
B.Passive
C.Challenge/Response
D.Active
E.Seeded
Answer: AC

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NO.6 One of the many extensions in an X.509 digital certificate is called the SubjectKeyIdentifier. What is
this extension used for?
A.The extension is used to verify the SubjectPrivateKeyInfo
B.The extension is used to match the hashes of the SubjectKeyAlgorithm
C.The extension is used only when the certificate is used for code signing from a defined Subject
D.The extension is used when matching the hash value of the public key on the certificate
E.The extension is used only if the certificate is sent from a Root CA
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following is not a category of Intellectual Property?
A.Patents
B.Trademarks
C.Copyrights
D.Manufacturing Standards
E.Trade Secrets
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following can be protected by a patent?
A.A new invention
B.A new product
C.A new process
D.A new name
E.An old product made in a new way
Answer: ABCE

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NO.1 Which of the following represents the final task during project close-out?
A. Reassignment of team member.
B. Verification that contractual obligations were met.
C. Transferring the deliverables to the client.
D. Completion of performance/lessons-learned records.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following is illustrated by a resource histogram?
A. The expected requirements for critical path activities.
B. The expected resource usage by time period.
C. The resource assignments by work package.
D. The resource assignments by activities.
E. All of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following are indicative of duration estimates?
A. How many hours a resource will work on an activity.
B. When an activity is expected to start.
C. How many work periods an activity is expected to last.
D. When an activity is expected to finish.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following represents the BEST process to accomplish resource
planning?
A. Identifying the required resources in the project charter
B. Identifying the available resources and allocate them to all activities in the current
phase of the project.
C. Identifying the required resources and allocate them to all project activities.
D. Identifying the resources that performed past similar projects, and allocate them to all
project activities
E. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following is the distinguishing characteristic between the network
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A. Few resources
B. Key milestones
C. Critical dates
D. Critical dependencies
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following represents a consequence to the project in the event of a
resource being added to the project team during execution?
A. Shorter project completion schedule.
B. An indeterminable effect.
C. A requirement for a scope change.
D. An increase in project quality.
Answer: B

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A. Contract close-out formalizes project completion.
B. Contract close-out includes product verification.
C. Contract close-out includes updating records with final results.
D. Administrative closure includes procurement audits.
E. None of the above.
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NO.8 When preparing the probability distribution of cost outcomes for a project, what is
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deviation ___________?
A. Above the mean.
B. Below the mean.
C. Below the median.
D. Above the median.
Answer: A

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NO.1 CORRECT TEXT
Which DOMElement property provides a reference to the list of Element's children?
Answer: childNodes

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NO.2 What is the ideal method of copying data between two opened files?
A. copy($source_file, $destination_file);
B. copy(destination_file, $source_file);
C. stream_copy_to_stream($source_file, $destination_file);
D. stream_copy_to_stream($destination_file, $source_file);
E. stream_bucket_prepend($source_file, $destination_file);
Answer: C

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NO.3 An HTML form has two buttons. After submitting the form, how could you determine with PHP which
button was clicked?
A. An HTML form may only have one button.
B. Hook up JavaScript the form to add a value to the URL depending on which button has been clicked.
C. Put the two buttons in individual form elements with different action attribute.
D. Assign name and value attributes to each button and use $_GET or $_POST to find out which button
has been clicked.
Answer: D

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NO.4 CORRECT TEXT
What is the name of the key in $_FILES['name'] that contains the number of bytes of the uploaded file?
Answer: size

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NO.5 CORRECT TEXT
Which PHP function sets a cookie whose value does not get URL encoded when sending it to the
browser?
Answer: setrawcookie()

NO.6 Which requirements need NOT be met so that file uploads work?
A. The PHP directive file_uploads must be set to on
B. The form's method attribute must be set to "post"
C. Sate mode must be turned off so that the uploaded file an be written to the server
D. The form's enctype attribute must be set to "multipart/form-data"
Answer: C

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NO.7 CORRECT TEXT
What is the output of the following code?
Answer: 2

NO.8 You'd like to use the class MyDBConnection that's defined in the
MyGreatFrarnework\GreafDatabaseAbstractionLayer namespace, but you want to minimize *as much as
possible* the length of the class name you have to type. What would you do?
A. Import the MyGreatFramework namespace
B. Import the MyGreatFrarnework\GreafDatabaseAbstractionLayer namespace
C. Alias MyGreatFrarnework\GreafDatabaseAbstractionLayer\MyDBConnection to a shorter name
D. Alias MyGreatFrarnework\GreafDatabaseAbstractionLayer to a shorter name
Answer: B

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This removes the need to prefix the class with the namespace name. You can refer to the class simply as
®M y DBC onnec ti o ¡¯

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NO.1 What is the proper LUN Masking configuration for LUNs presented to an ESX Host when using the
Boot from SAN option?
A. The Boot LUN should be masked so that only one ESX Host can see the LUN, while the datastore
LUNS should be masked so that all ESX Hosts can see the LUNs
B. The Boot LUN and datastore LUNS should be masked so that all ESX Hosts can see the LUNs
C. The Boot LUN should be masked so that all ESX Hosts can see the LUN, while the datastore LUNS
should be masked so that only one ESX Host can see the LUNs
D. The Boot LUN and datastore LUNS should be masked so that only one ESX Host can see the LUNs
Answer: A

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NO.2 When configuring the Oracle Connection to work remotely with vCenter Server, which of the following
is required (Choose Two)?
A. The tnsnames.ora file must be edited with the managed host name
B. The TNS Service Name option must be configured in the ODBC DSN
C. Use the Net8 Conf iguration Utility to add the service name
D. Add the entry open_cursors = 300 to the C:.ora file
Answer: AB

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NO.3 Which of the following is a benefit of ESXi over ESX?
A. Improved Fault Isolation
B. Increased Security and Reliability
C. Dynamic Resource Allocation
D. Memory Overcommitment
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following are benefits of ESXi over ESX (Choose Two)?
A. RCLI support
B. Scripted
C. Smaller Attack Surface
D. Less Code to Patch
Answer: CD

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NO.5 When installing ESX 4.0, where is the Service Console file system located?
A. In a virtual disk on a local VMFS datastore
B. In a virtual disk on a local or shared VMFS datastore
C. On a local physical disk or on a mapped SAN LUN
D. On a local physical disk
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following are valid sub-profile configurations that may be edited with the Host Profile editor
(Choose Three)?
A. Advanced
B. Virtual Machine Options
C. Security
D. Memory Reservation
E. CPU Reservation
Answer: ACD

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NO.7 What are two reasons why a company would choose to use VMware ESXi instead of using VMware
Server 2? (Choose Two)
A. The company wants to be able to patch the servers hosting their virtual machines with zero virtual
machine downtime
B. The company is virtualizing several physical servers and wants a centralized management option
C. The company needs to access their virtual machines remotely and VMware Server 2 does not support
a remote console option
D. The company needs the ability to run dual-processor virtual machines
Answer: AB

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NO.8 An administrator is checking a HA/DRS Cluster for Compliance. Which of the following occurs if a host
profile is not attached to the cluster.?
A. The compliance check asks for a valid host profile
B. The compliance check uses the default Datacenter host profile
C. The compliance check generates an error
D. The cluster is checked for specific HA, DRS and DPM cluster requirements
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which process determines which information provisioning is required, including the
priorities?
A. Demand management
B. End user support
C. Information lifecycle management
Answer: A

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A. determining the necessary capacity for change
B. periodic consultation of the end users
C. identification of information requirements within the business process
Answer: C

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A. Information coordination
B. Information lifecycle management
C. Information portfolio management
D. Strategic information partner management
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is a result of the process Specify information requirement?
A. a functional design
B. a list of functional and non-functional demands
C. an approved test strategy
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which activities are not in a transition plan?
A. the activities that are required for a successful preparation of the implementation
B. the generic activities that have to be performed at all locations where the system is
implemented
C. the specific activities that have to be performed at a specific location during transition
Answer: A

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NO.6 Two reports that have been produced in the nightly batch processing have been damaged during
printing. This has been noticed by Operational supplier management. In which process will the end users
be informed that the reports have been damaged?
A. Business data management
B. End user support
C. Operational supplier management
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which monitoring activity belongs to Business data management?
A. monitoring of the integrity of customer data
B. monitoring whether the acceptance test data are correct
C. monitoring the accuracy of reports provided by the IT service provider
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which activity belongs to the process End user support?
A. dealing with calls about errors in the functionality
B. monitoring the usage of the information systems
C. adding new end users to a table
Answer: A

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NO.1 The Firmware Upgrade Wizard allows you to enter a reset delay time for devices that
support timed reset. How can you reset devices that do not support timed reset?
A. You cannot reset devices that do not support timed reset.
B. After selecting the devices in the table, click Start to initiate manual resets.
C. It is necessary to walk to the device to initiate a reset.
D. After closing the Firmware Upgrade Wizard, you open the Manual Device Reset
Wizard.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What service must be running to save a configuration?
A. TFTP
B. BOOTP
C. SNMP trapd
D. All of the above
Answer: A

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NO.3 Device Manager provides all of the following, EXCEPT
A. Graphic representation of a device
B. Configuration file upload/download
C. System level configuration
D. Broadcast Suppression configuration
Answer: C

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NO.4 The Goto symbol is used as a navigational tool to jump to another map.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.5 With SNMPv3, the message is encrypted
A. to prevent disclosure of sensitive information while en route
B. to make sure the user has permission to access the device
C. to verify the message was not modified en route
D. to read or to modify subsets of the target data
E. Both A and C
Answer: A

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NO.6 What benefits are gained with SNMPv3?
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B. Encrypted messages
C. Fast table retrieval
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.7 In the context of Policy Manager, a Role is a
A. Feature set that is assigned after authentication exchange and the port is available
B. Feature used to assign access control and/or class of service to network traffic based
on its OSI layer
C. Feature used to enforce the default role on a port
D. Feature used to combine classification rules to implement permission and denial to
network resources
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following configuration files can you view while comparing archives in
Inventory Manager?
A. All archived configuration files
B. Only files in which a difference in configurations is found
C. All archived database files
D. A and C
Answer: B

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NO.1 You are designing a new VMAX array. The customer requires high performance for their random
write-intensive application. Which RAID protection should you recommend?
A. RAID-5
B. RAID-6
C. RAID-1
D. RAID-S
Answer: C

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NO.2 A Symmetrix VMAX has been configured with Dynamic Cache Partitions.
What is a criterion that must be met for a cache slot to be eligible for donation?
A. The fall through time must be greater than the donation age
B. The fall through time must be less than the donation age
C. The cache slot must belong to a static partition
D. There must be available cache slots in the default partition
Answer: A

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NO.3 You are designing a new VMAX array. The customer's primary concern is maximizing capacity
available to the host. What RAID protection should you recommend?
A. RAID-5 (7+1)
B. RAID-6 (6+2)
C. RAID-1/0
D. RAID-5 (3+1)
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer is interested in utilizing SRDF/AR to generate a remote copy of an application with an RPO
of six hours. In order for you to calculate the bandwidth requirements you will need to run Change Tracker.
To which should you set the reset interval length for DeltaMark?
A. 21600
B. 86400
C. 32400
D. 10800
Answer: D

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NO.5 Prior to starting an implementation, which tool should be used to automate the data collection on a UNIX
host?
A. EMCGrab
B. EMCReports
C. E-Lab Advisor
D. Change Tracker
Answer: A

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NO.6 A Symmetrix VMAX hosts four applications. Each application is assigned a named dynamic cache
partition. Two of the partitions are static and two are flexible. The write pending limit for each partition is
set to 60%.
What will happen if an application running in a flexible partition reaches the write pending limit set for that
partition?
A. Host write activity to that partition will be throttled
B. Cache will be borrowed from the other flexible partition
C. Cache will be borrowed from the default partition
D. The write pending limit of the partition will be raised until it reaches 80%
Answer: A

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NO.7 A major telecommunications operator is planning to consolidate multiple mid-tier storage arrays to a
single Symmetrix VMAX solution. Their existing environment includes IBM AIX servers, HP-UX Servers
and Windows 2003 Servers.
When documenting the existing Server environment, which command can be used on the HP-UX Servers,
to list the software modules installed?
A. swlist
B. lslpp
C. pkginfo
D. pkgchk
Answer: A

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NO.8 You are designing a new disaster recovery solution with VMAX arrays. During the initial project kick-off
meeting, the customer reports their environment can tolerate five minutes or less of data recovery
following a disaster but have not yet determined the maximum allowable downtime for their applications.
The customer asks which remote replication methods you recommend for their environment.
What do you recommend?
A. Defer making a recommendation until the application RTO is known.
B. Recommend the disaster recovery solution as described in the Sales Order.
C. Defer making a recommendation until the application RPO in known.
D. Recommend the disaster recovery solution described in the Statement of Work.
Answer: A

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NO.1 An Microsoft Exchange administrator has recently encountered an issue with one of the databases in
their Exchange 2007 environment. The decision was made to perform a partial restore of only the single
database.
Based on EMC and Microsoft best practice, what are the proper ordered steps needed to complete this
task?
A.1) Dismount all databases in the storage group. 2) Restore the database replica. 3) Remove the .chk
file from the system path folder. 4) Remount all databases in the storage group.
B.1) Remove the .chk file from the system path folder. 2) Dismount all databases in the storage group. 3)
Restore the database replica. 4) Remount all databases in the storage group.
C.1) Dismount all databases in the storage group. 2) Remove the .chk file from the system path folder. 3)
Restore the database replica. 4) Remount all databases in the storage group.
D.1) Dismount all databases in the storage group. 2) Remove the .chk file from the system path folder. 3)
Remount all databases in the storage group. 4) Restore the database replica.
Answer:A

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NO.2 A customer is migrating their Microsoft Exchange 2007 server from a NAS back end to a new
Symmetrix V-Max SE array. As illustrated in the exhibit, perfmon was used to create a log view of an
average day's activity against the database LUN of the busiest datastore in the Exchange environment.
This will serve as the performance benchmark for all other database LUNs. There are an additional four
mailbox databases on this server.
How many RAID 1-protected 15k rpm spindles are required to satisfy the performance needs of the
customer for all the mailbox databases on this server?
A.10
B.26
C.38
D.50
Answer:D

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NO.3 As reflected in the exhibit, a customer has a Cascaded SRDF/Star environment. Site B fails and they
undertake a reconfiguration to provide remote data protection between Sites A and C.
What is used to determine the invalid tracks that must be moved from Site A to Site C?
A.Inclusive OR of two SDDF bitmaps at Site A
B.Inclusive OR of two SDDF bitmaps at Site A and a bitmap at Site C
C.Inclusive OR of two SDDF bitmaps at Site B
D.Inclusive OR of two SDDF bitmaps at Site C
Answer:A

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NO.4 Group Name Services (GNS) is enabled in an SRDF/Star solution. What is a benefit of GNS in a
SRDF/Star environment?
A.Facilitates management of SRDF/Star when there are multiple management hosts at each location
B.Distributes the Star internal definition file to the Symmetrix arrays at both target locations
C.Propagates the composite group definitions over SRDF links
D.Restarts the SRDF daemon in the event it stops unexpectedly
Answer:A

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NO.5 In the event of a physical disk spindle failure, how would a customer with Microsoft SQL Server
maximize availability?
A.Logs should be on RAID 1 volumes with data volumes on separate RAID 6 volumes
B.Logs should be on RAID 1 volumes with data volumes on separate RAID 5 volumes
C.Logs and data files should be on separate RAID 5 volumes
D.Logs and data files should be on separate RAID 1-protected volumes
Answer:A

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NO.6 A customer wants to use TimeFinder/Exchange Integration Module (TF/EIM) to create daily local
replicas of a critical Microsoft Exchange 2007 mailbox server. Using Terminal Services, they connect
remotely to the backup server and execute the following command:
exbackup2007 -v -vss -s [servername\] -preestablish
The command runs up until the point where TF/EIM attempts to mount the volumes, then it fails. Why is
the process unable to complete?
A.Exbackup is not supported using a terminal session
B.Correct VSS Provider was not installed
C."copyonly" switch must be specified the first time a backup is run
D.Exbackup does not have the permissions needed to run on the backup host
Answer:A

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NO.7 A customer's SQL database has been experiencing performance degradation every time a particular
query is run. When designing the storage layout, all user databases were properly sized according to
EMC best practices.
Which storage configuration could be the source of the problem?
A.Tempdb and user databases are sharing spindles
B.MDF and LDF files are not sharing spindles
C.RAID 5 protection has been used for Tempdb
D.Data files are spread over striped metavolumes
Answer:A

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NO.8 A Microsoft SQL Server database administrator wants to execute backups using Solutions Enabler SRM
functionality. Which ODBC variable(s) needs to be set to enable the symioctl and symrdb command set?
A.SYMCLI_RDB "CONNECT" and "TYPE" environment variables
B.SYMCLI_RDB "NAME" and "TYPE" environment variables
C.Only the SYMCLI_RDB "Connect" to the database "username/password"
D.Only the SYMCLI_RDB "TYPE" variable to "sqlserver"
Answer:A

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NO.1 What type of attack is shown in the following diagram?
A. Man-in-the-Middle (MiTM) Attack
B. Session Hijacking Attack
C. SSL Spoofing Attack
D. Identity Stealing Attack
Answer: A

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NO.2 Lori is a Certified Ethical Hacker as well as a Certified Hacking Forensics Investigator working as an IT
security consultant. Lori has been hired on by Kiley Innovators, a large marketing firm that recently
underwent a string of thefts and corporate espionage incidents. Lori is told that a rival marketing company
came out with an exact duplicate product right before Kiley Innovators was about to release it. The
executive team believes that an employee is leaking information to the rival company. Lori questions all
employees, reviews server logs, and firewall logs; after which she finds nothing. Lori is then given
permission to search through the corporate email system. She searches by email being sent to and sent
from the rival marketing company.
She finds one employee that appears to be sending very large email to this other marketing company,
even though they should have no reason to be communicating with them. Lori tracks down the actual
emails sent and upon opening them, only finds picture files attached to them. These files seem perfectly
harmless, usually containing some kind of joke. Lori decides to use some special software to further
examine the pictures and finds that each one had hidden text that was stored in each picture.
What technique was used by the Kiley Innovators employee to send information to the rival marketing
company?
A. The Kiley Innovators employee used cryptography to hide the information in the emails sent
B. The method used by the employee to hide the information was logical watermarking
C. The employee used steganography to hide information in the picture attachments
D. By using the pictures to hide information, the employee utilized picture fuzzing
Answer: C

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NO.3 More sophisticated IDSs look for common shellcode signatures. But even these systems can be
bypassed, by using polymorphic shellcode. This is a technique common among virus writers ?it basically
hides the true nature of the shellcode in different disguises.
How does a polymorphic shellcode work?
A. They encrypt the shellcode by XORing values over the shellcode, using loader code to decrypt the
shellcode, and then executing the decrypted shellcode
B. They convert the shellcode into Unicode, using loader to convert back to machine code then executing
them
C. They reverse the working instructions into opposite order by masking the IDS signatures
D. They compress shellcode into normal instructions, uncompress the shellcode using loader code and
then executing the shellcode
Answer: A

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NO.4 Jack Hacker wants to break into Brown Co.'s computers and obtain their secret double fudge cookie
recipe. Jack calls Jane, an accountant at Brown Co., pretending to be an administrator from Brown Co.
Jack tells Jane that there has been a problem with some accounts and asks her to verify her password
with him ''just to double check our records.'' Jane does not suspect anything amiss, and parts with her
password. Jack can now access Brown Co.'s computers with a valid user name and password, to steal
the cookie recipe. What kind of attack is being illustrated here?
A. Reverse Psychology
B. Reverse Engineering
C. Social Engineering
D. Spoofing Identity
E. Faking Identity
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following countermeasure can specifically protect against both the MAC Flood and MAC
Spoofing attacks?
A. Configure Port Security on the switch
B. Configure Port Recon on the switch
C. Configure Switch Mapping
D. Configure Multiple Recognition on the switch
Answer: A

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NO.6 What does ICMP (type 11, code 0) denote?
A. Source Quench
B. Destination Unreachable
C. Time Exceeded
D. Unknown Type
Answer: C

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NO.7 If a competitor wants to cause damage to your organization, steal critical secrets, or put you out of
business, they just have to find a job opening, prepare someone to pass the interview, have that person
hired, and they will be in the organization.
How would you prevent such type of attacks?
A. It is impossible to block these attacks
B. Hire the people through third-party job agencies who will vet them for you
C. Conduct thorough background checks before you engage them
D. Investigate their social networking profiles
Answer: C

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NO.8 Jimmy, an attacker, knows that he can take advantage of poorly designed input validation routines to
create or alter SQL commands to gain access to private data or execute commands in the database.
What technique does Jimmy use to compromise a database.?
A. Jimmy can submit user input that executes an operating system command to compromise a target
system
B. Jimmy can gain control of system to flood the target system with requests, preventing legitimate users
from gaining access
C. Jimmy can utilize an incorrect configuration that leads to access with higher-than expected privilege of
the database
D. Jimmy can utilize this particular database threat that is an SQL injection technique to penetrate a target
system
Answer: D

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