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Exam Code: 3108
Exam Name: Avaya Scopia Solution Implementation and Maintenance Exam
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
3108 Practice Exam Total Q&A: 66 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-10-21

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Exam Code: 6103
Exam Name: Avaya ERS 8000 and Avaya VSP 9000 Implementation Exam
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
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Last Update: 2014-10-21

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NO.1 In the current business environment everyone is being asked to do more with fewer physical
resources. Using virtualization allows the Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 to increase the
services provided.
By using VRF-Lite, what does the VSP 9000 eliminate the need for?
A. SMLT
B. RSMLT
C. Non-overlapping addresses
D. Multiple physical routers
Answer: D

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Reference:http://www.avaya.com/usa/resource/assets/factsheet/vsp%209000%20dn4535 %20final
10-10.pdf(page 3, device virtualization)

NO.2 When troubleshooting an issue with an ERS 8000, running version 7.2, a technician notices
that the "Online" LED is steady amber for longer than 3 minutes. This is an indication of a software
incompatibility.
What is the first step in resolving this issue?
A. Use the show chassis command to look for software versions running on the switch.
B. Use the show compatibility command to verify that all software running is compatible.
C. Reboot the switch using the boot flags to force the switch to auto-update the software.
D. Use the show log command to check the system log for indications of communication problems.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which multicast technology, used with the Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000, allows the
router to determine whether any group members exist on its directly connected networks and
switches?
A. IGAP
B. IGMP
C. DVMRP
D. PIM-SM
Answer: B

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Reference:http://198.152.212.23 /css/P8 /documents/100175888(page 20)

NO.4 A customer is mirroring multiple ports to a single monitor port.
What happens if the mirrored traffic exceeds the bandwidth of the monitor port?
A. The traffic will be buffered until there is available bandwidth.
B. The excess traffic will be dropped randomly.
C. The excess traffic will be dropped based upon the mirror priority of the ingress port.
D. The excess traffic will be dropped based upon the port priority of the ingress port.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Given the following command:
VSP-9012:1S show khi performance
Which Key Health Indicator is only valid for the CP modules?
A. CPU
B. buffer-pool
C. error-count
D. process
E. memory
Answer: A

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NO.6 An engineer is configuring the VSP 9000 for EDM management, and cannot connect from the
EDM computer to the VSP 9000.
Once logged into the ACLI, which show command is used to see the status of the web server?
A. show vsp edm server
B. show ip web-server
C. show sys webserver
D. show web-server
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which function does the "RS" module for the ERS 8000 provide that the "R" module does not?
A. multiple port mirroring
B. multiple port cloning
C. SMLT functionality
D. extended port monitoring
Answer: C

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NO.8 QoS is the ability to manage the performance of data flows by giving treatment to the data
flows, users, and applications.
For which two network problems would QoS be a good solution? (Choose two.)
A. interface duplex mismatch
B. slow route table convergence
C. lack of bandwidth
D. end-to-end delay
E. network loops
Answer: A,E

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Exam Code: 3108
Exam Name: Avaya Scopia Solution Implementation and Maintenance Exam
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
3108 Practice Exam Total Q&A: 66 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-10-09

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Exam Code: 6103
Exam Name: Avaya ERS 8000 and Avaya VSP 9000 Implementation Exam
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
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Last Update: 2014-10-09

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NO.1 In the current business environment everyone is being asked to do more with fewer physical
resources. Using virtualization allows the Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 to increase the
services provided.
By using VRF-Lite, what does the VSP 9000 eliminate the need for?
A. SMLT
B. RSMLT
C. Non-overlapping addresses
D. Multiple physical routers
Answer: D

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Reference:http://www.avaya.com/usa/resource/assets/factsheet/vsp%209000%20dn4535 %20final
10-10.pdf(page 3, device virtualization)

NO.2 Which multicast technology, used with the Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000, allows the
router to determine whether any group members exist on its directly connected networks and
switches?
A. IGAP
B. IGMP
C. DVMRP
D. PIM-SM
Answer: B

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Reference:http://198.152.212.23 /css/P8 /documents/100175888(page 20)

NO.3 QoS is the ability to manage the performance of data flows by giving treatment to the data
flows, users, and applications.
For which two network problems would QoS be a good solution? (Choose two.)
A. interface duplex mismatch
B. slow route table convergence
C. lack of bandwidth
D. end-to-end delay
E. network loops
Answer: A,E

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NO.4 Given the following command:
VSP-9012:1S show khi performance
Which Key Health Indicator is only valid for the CP modules?
A. CPU
B. buffer-pool
C. error-count
D. process
E. memory
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which function does the "RS" module for the ERS 8000 provide that the "R" module does not?
A. multiple port mirroring
B. multiple port cloning
C. SMLT functionality
D. extended port monitoring
Answer: C

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NO.6 When troubleshooting an issue with an ERS 8000, running version 7.2, a technician notices
that the "Online" LED is steady amber for longer than 3 minutes. This is an indication of a software
incompatibility.
What is the first step in resolving this issue?
A. Use the show chassis command to look for software versions running on the switch.
B. Use the show compatibility command to verify that all software running is compatible.
C. Reboot the switch using the boot flags to force the switch to auto-update the software.
D. Use the show log command to check the system log for indications of communication problems.
Answer: D

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NO.7 An engineer is configuring the VSP 9000 for EDM management, and cannot connect from the
EDM computer to the VSP 9000.
Once logged into the ACLI, which show command is used to see the status of the web server?
A. show vsp edm server
B. show ip web-server
C. show sys webserver
D. show web-server
Answer: D

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NO.8 A customer is mirroring multiple ports to a single monitor port.
What happens if the mirrored traffic exceeds the bandwidth of the monitor port?
A. The traffic will be buffered until there is available bandwidth.
B. The excess traffic will be dropped randomly.
C. The excess traffic will be dropped based upon the mirror priority of the ingress port.
D. The excess traffic will be dropped based upon the port priority of the ingress port.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 132-S-712-2
Exam Name: Specialist: Avaya Proactive Contact Solutions Design Elective Exam
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Last Update: 2014-08-20

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Exam Code: 3000-2
Exam Name: ACSS Small and Medium Enterprise (SME) Communications
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Last Update: 2014-08-20

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Exam Code: 3301
Exam Name: Avaya Aura Contact Centre Maintenance & Troubleshooting Exam
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Last Update: 2014-08-20

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NO.1 Avaya Aura Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) is host to the Contact Center Security framework
certificate Store. In the procedures to Create a Certificate Store, once the store is created is also created.
A characteristic of this certificate is that it contains__________.
A. a private key that is used in private - public key encryption
B. a public key that is used in public - public key encryption
C. a private key that is used in private - private key encryption
D. a public key that is used in private - private key encryption
Answer: B

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NO.2 Where are current SIP messages logged by Contact Center Manager Server?
A. C:\Avaya\logs\CCMS\SipMessages0
B. D:\Avaya\Logs\CCMS\SGM\SipMessages0
C. D:\Avaya\Logs\CCMS\CCMS_SGM_SipMessages0
D. F:\Traces\Avaya\Logs\CCMS\SGM\SipMessagesO
Answer: D

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NO.3 An agent is configured to handle e-mail multimedia contacts. The agent is able to receive, read, and
reply to e-mails using the Avaya Aura Agent Desktop (AAAD). However, the agent cannot open
attachments in inbound e-mails.
What is a possible cause of this problem?
A. The agent ¯ s w eb b r o w se r i s no t se t f o r t he co rr ec t cha r ac t e r encod i ng .
B. .NET 3.5 Service Pack 1 is not installed on the agent ¯ s co m pu t e r.
C. Internet Explorer is not set as the default browser on the agent ¯ s co m pu t e r.
D. The agent has not been granted ° open -mail Attachments ± ri gh t s i n C on tr ac t C en t e r m u lti m ed i a
(CCMM).
Answer: A

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NO.4 At an elevated level, engineers have designed the architecture ol SH' around ttv<> varlel les of
component s.
Which SIP component is comprised of two subcomponents, where one component initiates SIP the other
component responds to requests?
A. User Agent
B. SIP Gateway Manager
C. Back to-Back User Ag
D. SIP Server
E. SIP Gateway
Answer: B

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NO.5 In Avaya Aura Contact Center (AACC), how do you create auto responses that address the most
commonly received e-mail queries?
A. Run ,1 "Contacts is Closed by Auto Suggestion, top 5" historical report from the "Multimedia" folder in
Historical Reporting on the Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) server, and auto suggestion
keywords and responses from the report to create new e-mail auto-respect.
B. Enable "Keyword Reporting" for e-mail contactsinthe "E mail" tool in Contact Center Multimedia
(CCMM) Administration, then use the "Keyword Frequency" tool to determine which keywords would be
used to trigger new auto-responses.
C. Run a "Contact Summary" report in Historical Reporting on the CCMA server and create
auto-responses based on the most frequently-occurring e-mail contact topics in the report.
D. Use the "Auto-Suggest Promotion" tool in CCMM Administration to promote auto-suggestions
auto-responses based on the percentage of contacts for which each auto-suggestion was selected.
Answer: B

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NO.6 While Investigating an Issue with an Avaya Aura Contact Center (AACC) Contact Center Manager
(CCMS), you discover that the Task Flow Executor (TFE) frequently restarts. In an effort to discover the
cause of the restarts, you decide to review the TFE log file.
Which file contains the most recent TFE logs.?
A. D:\Avaya\Logs\CCMS\TFE 1.log
B. D:\Avaya\l_ogs\CCMS_TFF 1.log
C. D:\Avaya\Logs\CCMS_TFE_5.log
D. D:\Avaya\Logs\CCMS\CCMS_TFE_1.log
Answer: C

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NO.7 The C:\WINDOWS\system32\drivers\etc\hosts file on the Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS)
contains multiple entries for each host. You have removed the duplicate entries by manually editing the
file.
What should you do next to completely resolve the issue?
A. Run the Server Configuration utility, save and apply all changes, then reboot the CCMS server.
B. Reboot the CCMS server.
C. Use the windows services utility to restart the MAS Configuration manager services.
D. Run the CCMS network Configuration utility, save and apply all changes, then reboot the CCMS
server.
Answer: B

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NO.8 In the Avaya Aura Contract Center (AACC) SIP environment, when a call is presented to an agent ¯ s
telephone, the Avaya Aura Agent Desktop (AAAD) also alerts the agent to the incoming call. The call may
be answered either via the telephone or AAAD.
If the agent uses the AAAD to answer the call, which protocol is used between AACC and the switch to
signal off-hook?
A. CCT
B. SIP RTP
C. TAPI
D. TR87
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 6005-1
Exam Name: Avaya Communication Server 1000 Implementation Exam
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Exam Code: 6002-1
Exam Name: Avaya Aura(TM) Communication Manager and CM Messaging (R6.0) Implementation Exam
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Exam Code: 3600
Exam Name: Avaya Ethernet Routing Switch Implementation and Maintenance Exam
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NO.1 When multiple VLANs are used, Dynamic Host Control protocol (DHCP) relay is required to get the
DHCP information from the end user VLAN to the DHCP server.
Which statement about how to enable DHCP relay for a VLAN is true?
A. The physical VLAN IP address is used as the DHCP relay agent.
B. The IP address of the DHCP relay agent is used.
C. The IP address of the core server VLAN is used
D. The virtual VLAN IP address is used as the DHCP relay agent.
Answer: D

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NO.2 The Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 supports the feature IP VPN-Lite that does not require the use
of an MPLS network.
Which function does the ERS 8600 as a Provider Edge (PE) perform for IP VPN-Lite.?
A. The PE uses the Virtual Routing Forwarding (VRF) instances to provide traffic separation
B. The PE provides route exchange with remote PE devices using OSPF.
C. The PE encapsulates the IP packets into the separate VPN-Lite VLANs for traffic separation
D. The PE incorporates Label Distribution Protocol across the core network to connect remote PE
devices.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A technician discovers that an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8300 cat5e copper link is intermittent.
The link connects a distant workstation to 8348GTX port 6/2. The cable path is undetermined at this point
and it is suspected to traverse many patch panels.
How can the ERS 8300 Time Domain reflectometer tool be of help in this situation?
A. The Virtual Circuit Test command config ethernet 6/2 vct test can detect opens, shorts, bad
terminations.
B. The virtual circuit Repair command config ethernet 6/2 vct repair can detect the bad cable pairs and
repair the cable by moving data to the good cable pairs.
C. The Virtual Circuit Echo command config ethernet 6/2 vct echo can detect the bad cable pairs only
when connected to another ERS 8300.
D. The Virtual Circuit Detect command config ethernet 6/2 vct detect can detect how many patch panels
are used between the device and switch and provide a percentage of dropped packets.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which VLAN/VLANS should be included on the Inter Switch Trunks (1ST) for a proper functioning split
Multi-Link Trunking (SMLT) configuration?
A. only VLAN 101
B. only VLAN 1 and the 1ST
C. only the VLANs that are also included on the SMLT/SLT uplinks
D. the 1ST VWN and all the vWNs that are included on all SMLT/SLT links
Answer: D

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NO.5 To confirm that routed Split Multi-Link Trunking (RSMLT) will work on a set of VLANs, which network
design aspect should be considered?
A. RSMLT is enabled on each SMLT VLAN on which the function is required.
B. RSMLT is enabled on the VLAN group
C. Router 1 always owns the network
D. RSMLT is enabled on all SMLT VLANs
Answer: A

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NO.6 When configuring a new Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 using the default interface, the attempt
to load an ACLI configuration fails because the default interface is the CLI.
How is the ACLI interface obtained?
A. Change the interface type in the config.cfg file.
B. Change the ACLI boot flag and save the boot configuration file.
C. Exit the CLI and choose ACLI at the interface manager prompt.
D. Use the abort command and enter 'no' at the default interface prompt.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Fn Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8300 configurations, which service class ensures that protocol
updates such as RIP and OSPF are able to get out of a heavily congested switch?
A. Bronze
B. Standard
C. Network Control
D. Premium Control
Answer: C

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NO.8 A technician is adding the Virtual link Aggregation Control Protocol (VLACP) configuration to a
Converged Campus Solution where all Ethernet Routing Switches (ERSs) are directly connected without
intermediary WAN transport devices.
What are two recommended configuration tasks? (Choose two.)
A. Configure all links to use the same timeout value.
B. For the Inter Switch Trunks (1ST) links, configure the long time-out value.
C. For the SMLT links, configure the long timeout value.
D. Configure all links to use a global reserved multicast MAC address for VLACP messages.
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: 6103
Exam Name: Avaya ERS 8000 and Avaya VSP 9000 Implementation Exam
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NO.1 In the current business environment everyone is being asked to do more with fewer physical
resources. Using virtualization allows the Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 to increase the
services provided.
By using VRF-Lite, what does the VSP 9000 eliminate the need for?
A. SMLT
B. RSMLT
C. Non-overlapping addresses
D. Multiple physical routers
Answer: D

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NO.2 When troubleshooting an issue with an ERS 8000, running version 7.2, a technician notices
that the "Online" LED is steady amber for longer than 3 minutes. This is an indication of a software
incompatibility.
What is the first step in resolving this issue?
A. Use the show chassis command to look for software versions running on the switch.
B. Use the show compatibility command to verify that all software running is compatible.
C. Reboot the switch using the boot flags to force the switch to auto-update the software.
D. Use the show log command to check the system log for indications of communication problems.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Given the following command:
VSP-9012:1S show khi performance
Which Key Health Indicator is only valid for the CP modules?
A. CPU
B. buffer-pool
C. error-count
D. process
E. memory
Answer: A

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NO.4 An engineer is configuring the VSP 9000 for EDM management, and cannot connect from the
EDM computer to the VSP 9000.
Once logged into the ACLI, which show command is used to see the status of the web server?
A. show vsp edm server
B. show ip web-server
C. show sys webserver
D. show web-server
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer is mirroring multiple ports to a single monitor port.
What happens if the mirrored traffic exceeds the bandwidth of the monitor port?
A. The traffic will be buffered until there is available bandwidth.
B. The excess traffic will be dropped randomly.
C. The excess traffic will be dropped based upon the mirror priority of the ingress port.
D. The excess traffic will be dropped based upon the port priority of the ingress port.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which multicast technology, used with the Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000, allows the
router to determine whether any group members exist on its directly connected networks and
switches?
A. IGAP
B. IGMP
C. DVMRP
D. PIM-SM
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which function does the "RS" module for the ERS 8000 provide that the "R" module does not?
A. multiple port mirroring
B. multiple port cloning
C. SMLT functionality
D. extended port monitoring
Answer: C

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NO.8 QoS is the ability to manage the performance of data flows by giving treatment to the data
flows, users, and applications.
For which two network problems would QoS be a good solution? (Choose two.)
A. interface duplex mismatch
B. slow route table convergence
C. lack of bandwidth
D. end-to-end delay
E. network loops
Answer: A,E

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Exam Code: 6207
Exam Name: Avaya Aura Contact Recording and Avaya Aura Quality Monitoring Implementation Exam
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NO.1 A technician is installing Avaya Aura Viewer on a large customer site with 500 recording channels. The
customer has an existing SQL database that they want to use.
What would be the correct option for this?
A. Put the database and Viewer on the same server.
B. Put the Viewer on a separate server.
C. Put the Avaya Contact Recording Master (with no IP recording), the TDM Recorder, the database and
the Viewer on the same server.
D. Put the database, the Viewer, and the Avaya Aura Archive on the same server.
Answer: B

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NO.2 You have just installed one Avaya Aura viewer system and have made some test calls that appear to
have been recorded successfully by the Avaya Aura Contact Recoding (Avaya CR) system. While being
recorded, one of the test calls was put on and then taken of hold. When you run a query using Avaya CR
Search and replay
you expect to __________ and when you run a query from Viewer, in the Viewer
query Results Windows you expect to _______ for the same call.
A. see two segments which can be connected by means of Universal Call ID (UCID) and you will haveto
listen to two audio files; see only one segment and you will hear only one audio file playing the whole
conversation
B. see two segments which can be connected by means of UCID and you will have to listen to two audio
files; see two segments and you will hear two audio files playing
C. see one segment and you will hear one audio file that stops playing right after the call has b-put on hold;
see only one segment and you will hear only one audio file playing the whole conversation
D. see two segments which can be connected by means of UCID and you will have to listen to two audio
files; see only one segment and you will hear only one audio file stopping right after the call has been put
on hold
Answer: A

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NO.3 It is strongly recommended to install the RedHat operating system (OS) from the kickstart file (ks.cfg).
Which three components are necessary to create a ks.cfg file using the kickstart tool? (Choose three)
A. The IP addresses of the network interfaces
B. The name of extra RedHat Package manager (RPM) packages to be installed
C. The MAC address of the Network Interface Card (NIC) Eth0
D. The IP address of the Network Time protocol (NTP) server
E. The/var partition size
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.4 While waiting to activate an Avaya Aura Contact recording (Avaya CR) license, some tests are run with
the five-day license.
Once the full license is obtained, what is the path to update the Avaya CR to the full license?
A. System > License > Change License
B. System > Manage Users > Change License
C. General Setup > Recorder > License
D. General Setup > Recorder > Key Management Server
Answer: A

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NO.5 A technician has finished installing an Avaya Aura Archive system that has been added to an existing
solution, consisting of three Avaya Aura Contact Recording (Avaya CR) servers and one Avaya Aura
Viewer system.
Before starting the Archive, what can be done to ensure that calls can be archived?
A. fromAuraarchive server, ping each of the Avaya CR servers by means of the name configured in the
"Machine Name fieldinthe"Capture Platform Information" window inside the Viewer application.
B. FromArchiveserver, ping each Avaya CR servers by means of theirIp-addresses.
C. Check that the EWareCalls database was created during archive installation.
D. Verify from the "Recorder Status/Server" window on the AvayaCR thatthe "Link to Viewer" field is
showing "UP".
Answer: A

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NO.6 A technician has successfully installed the Avaya Aura Quality Monitoring (Avaya QM) software on a
client site, and needs to configure the software. The Avaya QM solution is being deployed as a single
server solution. As part of the configuration the Voice Cards must be specified.
Which kind of voice card should be created?
A. Dialogic D/240JCT
B. Dialogic D/82JCT
C. VR1000
D. Dialogic DSE DL-300x
Answer: B

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NO.7 A technician has successfully installed the Avaya Aura Quality Monitoring (Avaya QM) software on a
client site, and needs to configure the Software.
What needs to be configured at level1?
A. Switches
B. DataConnections
C. Servers
D. Sites
Answer: D

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NO.8 A technician has just installed an Aura Contact Recording (Avaya CR) system that uses Station Bulk
Recording, the customer has provided the list of extensions, login IDs and skills that need to be recorded,
and the technician wants to try one first to validate the configuration.
Which statement describes how to verify that the system is configured correctly.?
A. Add one of the agent login IDs in the table "Station to be Recorder" under "Operation/Station Bulk|
Recording". Then verify from Recorder Status/Ports that one the recorder ports has been assigned to the
extension where the agent is logged in, and that the state shows "Connected".
B. Add one of the extensions in the table "Station to be Recorder"under Operation/Station Bulk
Recording". Then verify from Recorder Status/Ports that one of the recorder ports has been assigned to
the extension, and that the state shows "Connected".
C. No extensions in the system need to be configured as they will automatically be picked up by the
system, once the field "Filter Calls by VDN and/or Skill Hunt Group" under Operation/ Station Bulk
Recording" has been populated with the skills provided.
D. Add one of the extensions in the table "Station to be Recorder" under "Operation/Station Bulk
Recording". Then verify from Recorder Status/Ports that one of the recorder ports has been assigned to
the extension, and that the state shows "Idle".
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 3300
Exam Name: Avaya Aura® Contact Center Administration Exam
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Last Update: 2014-08-20

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Exam Code: 7004.1
Exam Name: Avaya Communication Server 1000 for Avaya Aura® Maintenance Exam
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Exam Code: 3102.1
Exam Name: Avaya Aura® Session Manager and System Manager Implementation and Maintenance Exam
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NO.1 If the call is not queued and the skillset is in service. It must be re-queued.
What is the proper script syntax to accomplish this requirement.?
A. Section wait_loop
IF NOT QUEUED THEN
IF OUT OF SERVICE SKILLSET automotive THEN
GIVE RAN out_of_service_ran_gv
DISCONNECT
END IF
END IF
GIVE RAN agts_stlll_busy_ran_gv
WAIT 30
EXECTUTE wait_loop
B. Section wait_loop
IF NOT QUEUED THEN
IF NOT OUT OF SERVICE automotive THEN
QUEUE TO SKILLSET automotive
WAIT 2
ELSE
GIVE RAN out_of_service_ran_gv
DISCONNECT
END IF E
ND IF
GIVE RAN agts_still_bu5y_ran_gv
WAIT 30
EXECTUTE wait_loop
C. Section wait_loop
IF QUEUED AND
IF OUT OF SERVICE automotive THEN
GIVE RAN out_of_service_ran_gv
DISCONNECT
END IF
END IF
GIVE RAN agts_still_busy_ran_gv
WAIT 30
EXECTUTE wait_loop
D. Section wait_loop
IF NOT QUEUED AND
IF NOT OUT OF SERVICE SKILLSET automotive THEN
GIVE RAN out_of_service_ran_gv
DISCONNECT END IF
END IF
GIVE RAN agts_still_ran_gv
WAIT 30
EXECUE walt_loop
Answer: B

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3.A customer is using the intrinsic Call Rate in & script. For what Information is the system looking when
the Call Rate Intrinsic is used?
A. the number of contacts that entered the system in the last 10 minutes
B. the total number of active calls in the system
C. the number of calls that entered the system in the last 10 minutes
D. the number of calls answered in the preceding 10 minutes
Answer: A

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NO.2 How many seconds are recommended that a script should wait after queuing a contact to a skillset?
A. WAIT 1
B. WAIT 2
C. WAIT 4
D. WAIT 8
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer with Avaya Aura Contact Center has written a script application. The Problem View Is
showing a syntax error with the following area of script: IF DAY OF WEEK EQUALS MONDAY..FRIDAY
THEN
What is the correct syntax required for this application?
A. IF DAYS OF WEEK EQUALS MONDAY..FRIDAY THEN
B. IF DAY OF WEEK EQUAI S MON..FRI THEN
C. IF DAY OF WEEK - MONDAY FRIDAY THEN
D. IF DAY OF WEEK = MONDAY..FRIDAY THEN
Answer: D

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NO.4 A customer with Avaya Aura Contact Center will use the Contact Router for all calls entering the system.
What is one function of the Contact Router?
A. It links agents to applications.
B. It links skillsets to applications.
C. It links Intrlnslcs to applications.
D. It links Control Directory Numbers (CDN) to applications.
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer with Avaya Contract Center in SIP environment would like to add voice processing
commands to an application.
Which block would be required?
A. IVR
B. Treatment
C. Output
D. Input
Answer: D

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NO.6 A supervisor with Avaya Aura Contact Center would like to create a custom Application Display The
data fields available are cumulative, fixed, and instantaneous. What is an example of a cumulative data
field?
A. Application Name
B. Average Answered Delay
C. Calls Waiting
D. Service Level Threshold
Answer: B

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NO.7 A customer with Avaya Aura Contact Center has created a loop in a script application with the following
parameters:
1. While the caller is in the loop, the customer wants an announcement to play every thirty seconds, and
the queued status of the call and the In-service status of the skillset must be evaluated
2. If the call is not queued, and if the skillset is out of service, the call will be sent to an out of service
announcement

NO.8 A customer with Avaya Aura Contact Center wants to see in a report the percentage of calls being
answered in the automotive skillset in 20 seconds or less.
What would need to be programmed to obtain this data?
A. Create an application threshold class, set the Level 1 %Servlce_Level_S Threshold to 20, the Level
2 %Servlce_Level_S threshold to 30, and assign the threshold class to the automotive ski 11 set.
B. Create a skillset threshold class, set the Level 1 %Service_Level_S Threshold lo 10, the Level 2%
Service_Level_S Threshold to 20 and assign the threshold class to the automotive skillset.
C. Create an application threshold class, set the Level 1 Service Level Threshold to 20, and assign the
threshold class to the automotive skillset.
D. Create a skillset threshold class, set the Level 1 Service Level Threshold to 20, and assign the
threshold class to the automotive skillset.
Answer: D

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Exam Name: Avaya Voice Portal Implementation Exam
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Exam Name: Avaya Aura Conferencing (R7.x) Implementation and Maintenance Exam
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NO.1 An administrator has a new license file for Avaya Aura® conferencing 7.
Which step should the administrator take to install the new license file?
A. Log onto the Communications Manager CDOM, then go to license and copy and paste the new
license file.
B. Log onto the Conferencing 7, then go to Element Manager and upload the new license file.
C. Log onto System Manager, then go to License and upload the new license file.
D. Log onto the System Manager CDOM, then go to Security and copy and paste the new license
file.
Answer: B

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6. The Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 system has 10 components.
Which two components are parts of the Web Server Group? (Choose two.)
A. Web Collaboration Management Server (WCMS)
B. Avaya Media Server (AMS)
C. Document Conversion Server (DCS)
D. Application Server (AS)
Answer: A,B

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7. During installation of the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 software, which prompt will the installer
receive?
A. The staging username
B. The deployment type or staging file to be used
C. The operations file be used
D. The operations file or deployment name to be used
Answer: B

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8. The conferencing moderator dialed into the conference room successfully using moderator
code,
and was also able to successfully launch Collaboration Agent. However, the web conference could
not be launched from the Collaboration Agent.
What is causing this problem?
A. During the conference user provisioning, the conference administrator did not enable the Web
Conferencing Server feature specific to this user.
B. The web conferencing URL was not added to the hosts file on the Media Server.
C. The Web Conference Server Was not added or configured in Provisioning manager.
D. The Document Conversation Server was not configured.
Answer: C

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NO.2 When viewing alarms in the browser, what is the default order that alarms appear?
A. Warning, Minor, Major, Critical
B. Major, Critical, Minor, Warning
C. Minor, Warning, Critical, Major
D. Critical, Major, Minor, Warning
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which SIP Monitoring field must be selected to allow the System Manager to manage
bandwidth
on the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 SIP Entity?
A. SIP Link Monitoring
B. Supports Call Admission Control
C. Primary Session Manager Bandwidth Association
D. SIP Domain
Answer: A

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NO.4 On the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 system, which two actions are involved in configuring the
Media Server and Media Server cluster? (Choose two)
A. Log onto Provisioning Manager and configure it under “Conference of Service”.
B. Log onto the EM console, and configure it in the sub menu “Media Server Resource” under the
Feature Server Elements.
C. Log on to Provisioning Manager and configure “Media Server Resource” under System
Management Tab.
D. Log onto WCS server and configure the Media Resource in the Collaboration Agent window.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the requirement for Avaya Media Servers to be grouped into an Avaya Media Server
Cluster?
A. They must share the system default setting.
B. They must share common power supply.
C. They must share the same physical location.
D. They must share the same server name.
Answer: A

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6006.1 Exam Tests, 132-S-815.1 Test Questions, 132-S-712-2 Practice Test

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Exam Code: 6006.1
Exam Name: Avaya Aura(TM) Communication Manager (R5.2.1) Implementation Exam
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
6006.1 Test Answers Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-30

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Exam Code: 132-S-815.1
Exam Name: Specialist Modular Messaging with Avaya Message Store Implement and Support Elective Exam
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Exam Code: 132-S-712-2
Exam Name: Specialist: Avaya Proactive Contact Solutions Design Elective Exam
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NO.1 Which two telemarketing situations would merit greater than a 2:1 line to agent ratio?
(Choose two.)
A.using unconfirmed contact data
B.using one of the call blending solutions
C.using unsolicited calling lists (cold calling individuals)
D.calling customers with multiple contact numbers (home, business, etc.)
Answer:A C

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NO.2 You are using the Avaya Solution Designer. What is the correct input on the ACD line
on the Predictive
Agent Blend software screen for an Avaya Proactive Contact System using Predictive Agent
Blending
with one ACD?
A.leave line blank
B.type in the number 1
C.leave line at the default (0)
D.type in the ACD brand name
Answer:C

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NO.3 The Avaya Proactive Contact access server provides which two functions within the
system? (Choose
two.)
A.connects calls to agents
B.manages the internal LAN
C.serves as a dial-in point for access to the digital switch and CPU
D.is the interface that supervisors and agents use on their computers
Answer:B C

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NO.4 Which feature meets the needs of customers who want to run jobs that play messages
to both phones
answered by live customers and phones answered by answering machines?
A.Autowrap
B.Virtual Agent
C.Agent Blending
D.Managed Dialing
Answer:B

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NO.5 Your customer has difficulty sorting through their current system's reports to give
supervisors
information that pertains only to their particular group. Which feature should in Avaya
Proactive Contact
meets the customer's need?
A.Shared Lists
B.Unit Work List
C.List Distribution
D.HierarchyManager
Answer:D

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NO.6 Your customer runs a collections call center. When an inbound call comes in, your
customer wants be
able to keep the customer from being called back on the outbound jobs if payment was
received on the
inbound call. Which feature automatically marks records as uncallable on outbound jobs if the
agent uses
a code indicating an inbound call resulted in a payment from the customer?
A.Do Not Call
B.Sales Verification
C.Generic Postupdate
D.Realtime Campaign Update
Answer:D

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NO.7 Which tool is new to the Editor Application in the Avaya Proactive Contact Supervisor
software?
A.verification of jobs
B.record selection reports
C.messages files and scripts
D.IVR fields in record selections
Answer:C

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NO.8 Your customer has a group of agents that handle clerical and other duties and who
handle calls only
when needed. A supervisor notifies these agents when they need to answer calls because
calls are
queueing or being abandoned. However, the response is often too late to be of much help
and the result
is many abandoned calls. Which Avaya Proactive Contact feature meets this customer's
needs?
A.Virtual Agent
B.Person to Person
C.Intelligent Call Blending
D.Native Voice & Data Transfer
Answer:B

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Exam Code: 3200
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Modular Messaging with Avaya Message Store Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
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Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-28

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NO.1 Which backup type is supported for the Avaya Modular Messaging Single Server?
A. Type 2 or 4 DVD RAM cartridge
B. DVD-RW disk
C. FTP/SFTP backup
D. Norton Ghost
Answer: C

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NO.2 A system can be set up to run on either S8730, S8800, or HP DL360 G7 hardware that is
configured to just SIP integration.
Which two statements are true about the number of voice channels that an individual Messaging
Application Server (MAS) can support? (Choose two.)
A. In a Single Server configuration, the MAS can support a maximum of 48 voice channels.
B. An individual MAS server can support up 120 voice channels.
C. An individual MAS server can support up to 96 voice channels.
D. An individual MAS server can allow as many possible connections as the bandwidth to the
allows
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 A customer is reporting a delay in receiving messages with their system. They have a 2
Messaging Application Server (MAS) and a Message Storage Server (MSS). The user did not
have any messages when leaving for the day. The next morning the message waiting indicator
was on, and the message was from a client that called the day before.
Which reports should be reviewed to troubleshoot this Issue?
A. Under Programs>Avaya Modular Messaging>Reporting Tools run the System Usage and U
Mailbox statistics reports.
B. Review the Administration History under Logs on the Message Store.
C. Review the Subscriber Activity log under Logs on the Message Store.
D. Review the Server Event log under Logs on the Message Store.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A technician wants to determine if Messaging is running and also the state of Internet
Messaging and Enhanced List Application Software.
On a Modular Messaging Message Storage Server (MM MSS), in which location of the Web
Administration pages can this information be found?
A. Reports -> System Evaluation
B. Server Information -> Server Status
C. Utilities -> Messaging DB Audits
D. Logs -> Messaging Start-Up
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which three statements are true about the Enhanced List Application (ELA) lists that can be
used? (Choose three.)
A. The administrator has to setup up an ELA shadow mailbox before users can send ELA
messages.
B. An ELA mailbox is like any other mailbox, allowing such operations as recording a name and a
greeting for the list, and allowing Call Answer messages to be distributed through ELA.
C. Administrators can restrict ELA lists so that users can't reply to messages they receive from the
list.
D. A Modular Messaging Message Storage Server (MSS) system supports a maximum of 250
ELA list and each ELA list can have a maximum of 250 members.
E. ELA members must be local subscribers and cannot be arbitrary e-mail addresses.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.6 A technician is installing a service pack on a system that uses an Avaya Message Storage Server
(MSS) in a private Windows domain.
To ensure that the updates for the MSS are successfully Installed, on the Messaging Application
Server (MAS), which account should the installer log in as?
A. Corporate Domain User
B. Exchange Administrator
C. Domain Administrator
D. Local Administrator
Answer: D

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NO.7 A customer had a catastrophic failure, and has just finished reloading a system. They would
like to restore all their data horn an ftp/sftp backup. Which statement described the first Step to
restoring their data in this manner?
A. Stop the voice system processing.
B. Install the latest service pack and patches.
C. Administer the TCP/IP settings
D. Reboot the Messaging Storage Server (MSS).
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer is migrating from Modular Messaging 3.0 on a S3400 server to Modular Messaging
5.2. Which two pieces of information must be obtained to successfully complete this migration?
(Choose two.)
A. the PBX translations
B. the original planning forms for the system that runs on release 3.0
C. the latest analyzed DCT file for the system
D. the private Messaging Application Server (MAS) and Messaging Storage Server (MSS)
NetBIOS name
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 An installer is manually configuring an Avaya Message Storage Server (MSS). When setting up
the network addressing, the installer must enter a host name for the MSS.
What would be a valid MSS host name in an implementation that uses the Aria TUI?
A. MM52mss-corp
B. MM52mss[corp\]
C. MM52mss_corp
D. MM52mss@corp
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 An installer is implementing a Modular Messaging Single Server configuration.
Which kind of file can the installer use to pre-populate data such as networking information in the
pre-installation web pages?
A. DCT
B. EPW
C. MSI
D. OVF
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 6104
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Wireless LAN Implementation Exam)
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Total Q&A: 61 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-28

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NO.1 A technician working for a multinational company is using the Captive Portal (CP) features to
localize the welcome screen that company guests see at each location.
What must be done to ensure the correct welcome screen appears at a given site?
A. Copy the correct image to the central http/https server for the Mobility Domain.
B. Customize welcome screen of CP on each Wireless Controller.
C. Set the Remote Authentication Dial in User Service (RADIUS) session-display attribute in the
Guest
group profile to return the configured value of the image file.
D. Set the local database on the wireless Controller to present the image to all unauthenticated
users.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A client calls and says that an employee disconnected his laptop docking station and
connected a
wireless router to the LAN using the station's Ethernet cable, and the 8100 system did not detect
the
presence of this unmanaged Access Point (AP). The client has globally enabled RF scanning.
Which two statements describe why the fit no system is behaving in this manner? (Choose two.)
A. The AP deployment is too sparse to allow successful triangulation on the router.
B. The outer is successfully mimicking a known managed AP.
C. The APs are operating at maximum load.
D. The deployment does not include WIDS/WIPS APs.
E. The APs are not configured to scan all channels.
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 Which two DHCP options are required for a Wireless LAN client? (Choose two)
A. DHCP option 3 - Router (Default Gateway)
B. DHCP option 6 - DNS Server D C) DHCP option 12 - Host Name
C. DHCP option 15 - DNS name
D. DHCP option 43 - Vendor specified option for switch discovery
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 A technician is performing an initial configuration on a Wireless Controller (WC).
Which command will accurately set the IP address to 10.127.4S.20 with a 24 bit network mask on a
network with no default gateway.?
A. ip address 10.127.45.20/24 default-gateway none
B. ip address 10.127.45.20.255.255.0 0.0.0.0
C. ip address 10.127.45.20 255.255.255.0 default-gateway 0.0.0.0
D. ip address 10.127.45.20/24 default-gateway 0.0.0.0
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which two DHCP configuration stops must be accomplished for an Access Point (AP) to
identify a
Wireless Controller (WC) to manage it? (Choose two.)
A. The sub-option 08 with value "AVAYA AP" must he Included before other sub options.
B. The prefix "AVAYA-AP" must be included before the list of IP addresses.
C. The IP address of the Active Mobility Domain Controller (AMDC) and Backup Mobility Domain
Controllers (BMDC) must be provided in the 43 field. The AMDC will ensure the AP gets assigned to
the
correct WC.
D. The IP address of any WC in the domain may be provided in the option 43 field. APs will get
assigned
to the correct WC even if it isn t the same IP address as listed in the option 43 field.
E. If the AP needs to be managed by a particular WC, the IP address of that specific controller in the
option 43 field must be specified.
Answer: A,E

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NO.6 A technician is replacing a failed WLAN Management System (WMS) server and wants to
import a
saved configuration onto the new server. The new Access Point (AP) license has already been
installed
on the new WMS and everything is working.
What is the best way to import a previously saved configuration?
A. Put the backup configuration files in C:\Program Files\Avaya\WMS\conf and restart WMS.
B. Manually add all WC(s) in the domain, and then sync the policies from the Active Mobility
Domain
Controller (AMDC).
C. Put the backup configuration files in C:\Program Files\Avaya\WMS\backup and then in WMS go
to
configuration to Database Backup and choose the file to be imported.
D. Load the backup configuration directly into MySQL.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A customer has deployed an Avaya WLAN 8l00 system with minimal coverage and has placed
all of the Access Points (APs) in operational mode.
Assuming that the customer has deployed no other wireless security measures, which behavior
should
their technicians expect when they enable rogue AP threat mitigation?
A. The APs will send de authentication messages to all rogue APs and their associated clients with
Basic
Service Set Identifications (BSSIDs) different from their own.
B. The APs will scan the legal channels, build a rogue mitigation list, and send de-authentication
messages to the rogue APs.
C. The APs will send de authentication messages to the clients associated to rogue APs operating on
the
same channel as the managed AP.
D. The APs will scan all channels, build a rogue mitigation list, and send de-authentication messages
to
all rogue APs and their associated clients.
Answer: D

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NO.8 With WLAN management System (WMS) user role as ROLE_ADMIN , which actions can be
performed?
A. Create new users, create configuration, monitor
B. Create new users, monitor
C. Create configuration, monitor
D. Create new users, create configuration
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which statement describes the relationships between AP profile, radio profiles, and network
profiles?
A. Radio profiles refer to AP profile, which in turn refer to network profiles.
B. The AP profile refer to AP profiles for radio specific settings and network profiles for SSID specific
settings.
C. Network profiles refer to AP profiles for mapping SSIDs to APs, and AP profiles refer to radio
profiles
for radio specific settings.
D. The three are linked together in the configuration by mobility profiles which logically map them
to each
other.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which statement describes the WLAN 8180 controller AC/DC power specification?
A. It operates only on AC power: 110 - 120 VAC / 60 Hz.
B. The maximum power consumption is 190 Watts.
C. Power over Ethernet (Pot) is supported on the ports in front panel.
D. Wireless Controller (WC) 8180 does not support dual power supply.
Answer: B

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