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Exam Code: A10
Exam Name: Measuring Performance in Purchasing and Supply
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A10 PDF VCE Total Q&A: 142 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-06-29

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NO.1 Topic 1, D
D
1. CORRECT TEXT
Q11. Identify the FIVE stages that should be followed to ensure an effective staff appraisal.
Topic 2, F
F

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NO.2 Q3. Which one of the following performance indicators is best used to assess whether there are
slow moving stock items in a store?
A. Total number of items held
B. Average number of stock issues over a period
C. Total value of stock held
D. Average number of deliveries received
Topic 3, A
A

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NO.3 THE CHARTERED INSTITUTE OF PURCHASING &SUPPLY
ADVANCED CERTIFICATE IN PURCHASING AND SUPPLY
Measuring Performance in Purchasing and Supply Management
A10
INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES
*Ensure that you have been handed the correct examination paper.
*Ensure that you have been handed the correct examination paper.
*SECTION B: Questions 11?¡ìC16 are worth 5 marks each. You are advised to spend
approximately 50 minutes on this section.
*SECTION C: Questions 17?¡ìC19 require full answers with examples where appropriate.
Question 17 is worth 20 marks. Questions 18 and 19 are worth 15 marks each. You are advised to
spend a minimum of half an hour on each question.
*Answers should be written in this answer booklet in the spaces provided. If you require
continuation paper you should request this from the invigilator. Your candidate number and
question number must be clearly marked on each sheet of continuation paper.
*All answers must be written in ink. Pencil should only be used where graphs/diagrams are
required. Cross out any work which you do not wish to be examined.
*Rough working must be shown, and crossed out.
*The use of silent, battery-operated, non-programmable calculators is permitted.

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NO.4 Q6. Which of the following tools of analysis can be used to classify stock?
A. Value chain analysis
B. ABC analysis
C. SMART analysis
D. Quantum analysis
Topic 1, D
D
NO: 8 CORRECT TEXT
Q17. An organisation wishes to review its procurement processes to try and achieve
operational benefits.
You have been asked by the senior materials manager to advise on how the
process should proceed, as follows:
(a) List THREE key tasks where buyers' performance is directly linked to the
objectives of supply management.
(b) For each of the three key tasks, give an example of how the purchaser??s
performance could be measured.
(c) Explain how a review of these key tasks could benefit an organisation.
Topic 5, B
B
9.
Q2. Which of the following is Pareto's Law?
A. The law of supply and demand
B. The law of vendor rating
C. The 80/20 rule
D. The 90/30 rule
10.
Q3. Which one of the following is a recognised measure of financial performance?
A. Stock exchange viability test
B. CLIP performance
C. Net profit before tax
D. Sales analysis

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NO.5 Advanced Certificate in Purchasing and Supply
Measuring Performance in Purchasing and Supply
A10
Senior Assessor's Report
INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES
The senior assessor??s report is written in order to provide candidates with feedback relating to
the examination. It is designed as a tool for candidates ?¡ìC both those who have sat the
examination and those who wish to use as part of their revision for future examinations.
Candidates are advised to refer to the Examination Techniques Guide (see the following link
http://www.cips.org/documents/ExaminationtechniquesguideFeb07.pdf) as well as this senior
assessor??s report.
The senior assessor??s report aims to provide the following information:
* An indication of how to approach the examination question
* An indication of the points the answer should include and how marks are allocated
* An indication of candidate performance for the examination question
APPENDIX
A syllabus matrix for the examination is included as an appendix. It highlights the learning
objectives of the syllabus unit content that each question is testing.
The unit content guides are available to download at the following link:
http://www.cips.org/studyqualify/cipsqualifications/syllabuses/
ADDITIONAL SOURCES OF INFORMATION
The Supply Management magazine is a useful source of information and candidates are advised
to include it in their reading during their study. Please see the following link to the Supply
Management website http://www.supplymanagement.com/
Analysis of Section A
Many candidates achieved moderate marks for this section. There were a few quite low scores
and very few high scores for this section, some candidates gaining 20/20 marks. Section A
questions are designed to test the candidates?? understanding of key purchasing principles and
knowledge of the syllabus.
I recommend that candidates practise questions from past papers in order to improve their
performance on this section ?¡ìC it is vital to be able to make the right decision from the four
available options, without spending too much time on the question.
SECTION B
Analysis of Section A
Many candidates achieved moderate marks for this section. There were a few quite low scores
and very few high scores for this section, some candidates gaining 20/20 marks. Section A
questions are designed to test the candidates?? understanding of key purchasing principles and
knowledge of the syllabus.
I recommend that candidates practise questions from past papers in order to improve their
performance on this section ?¡ìC it is vital to be able to make the right decision from the four
available options, without spending too much time on the question.
SECTION B
Question 11
Answer should identify FIVE of the following key points (1 mark was allocated for each correct
point) - initial briefing regarding performance areas, identification of what the organisation requires
from the employee, highlighting of any problems, is performance on track?, feedback during the
meeting, can the employer provide any assistance and have any training needs been identified.
The qualities of responses to this question were quite high and many candidates scored a good
level of marks.
Question 12
Candidates were required to LIST any FIVE of the following - increased leverage, ease of control
of fewer suppliers, greater opportunities of negotiation, increased joint development potential,
value adding initiatives may be explored, more use of supplier agreements, less transactional
activity, more use of strategic procurement.
The majority of candidates answered this question very well, with strong responses giving four or
five correct points. Weaker answers gave incorrect examples of the benefits of reducing the total
number of suppliers.
Question 13
Candidates were required to explain TWO ways in which purchasers could achieve continuous
professional development. Candidates should recognise that 2 ? marks are available for the
explanation of each 'way'. This breaks down as 1 mark available for identification of each method
with up to a further 1? marks available for the explanation of how the method used would benefit
the purchaser (or their employer). Areas that answers could include were: own study, attendance
at professional association meetings, attendance on courses/distance learning, formal training,
site visits, job rotation, or academic achievement.
The overall approach to this question could have been better. This is a key section within the
learning outcomes of this unit and many candidates performed poorly and identified areas that
were irrelevant to the context of the question. A few strong answers managed to correctly identify
two ways and briefly explained the value of the concept, in the context of purchaser's professional
development.
Question 14
Part (a) asked for THREE correctly titled key performance indicators (KPIs), for example, stockturns,
service levels, stock damage, stock accuracy, accuracy of pick rates (1 mark for each
appropriate KPI, up to 3 marks). Part (b) required candidates to explain how the use of KPIs can
improve the management of stock.
Many candidates gave incorrect KPIs for part (a), or failed to list insufficient KPIs. Many poor
answers focused on efficiency and effectiveness, rather than actually identify a KPI measure.
Following on from this part (b) was poorly answered as a result of the candidate failing to
understand the context of the question. This is a key part of the unit content and it is important that
candidates address this syllabus topic.
Question 15
Benchmarking is a key concept and allows buyers to assess the suitability or performance of a
supplier when compared to a known standard.
Part (a) required candidates to describe the purpose of supplier benchmarking. Benchmarking
provides information which may be used to select the correct supplier or motivate a potential
supplier to improve its products or overall performance.
Part (b) required candidates to list two problems that can be encountered with benchmarking.
There were many weak answers to this question and this may suggest a knowledge gap in the
candidates who sat this paper. Many responses gave a poor or inappropriate response to part (a)
and incorrect examples for part (b). Some answers gained marks for part (b) but were awarded no
marks for an incorrect answer to part (a).
Question 16
Candidates were required to explain TWO measurements that contribute to a simple vendor
measurement system. Examples that could have been explained are: quality ?¡ìC quantity of
acceptable deliveries as a percentage, deliveries ?¡ìC percentage of accurate on-time deliveries,
after sales service ?¡ìC response time set against an agreed target
Many candidates scored highly on this question by correctly identifying two measures and then
giving an appropriate explanation. A few candidates gave inappropriate answers or failed to
adequately explain what the measure was.
Topic 4, E
E

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NO.6 CORRECT TEXT
Q16. Identify FIVE areas that should be covered when appraising the buyer's performance.
Topic 1, D
D

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NO.7 CORRECT TEXT
Q17. Microfast Foods is concerned about the cost of holding large quantities of stocks for its food
processing operation, in particular the issue of the high cost of perishable ingredients and
'waste'. The company has no formal procedure for tracking levels and usage of inventory
within its stores. The managing director of Microfast has asked you to advise him as follows:
a) Briefly explain to the managing director why it is important to continually review and
measure inventory levels.
b) Within the stores and warehouse environment there are THREE factors that need to be
examined ?¡ìC Economy, Efficiency and Effectiveness ?¡ìC in relation to performance
measures. The managing director is unsure of the detail. Provide a brief explanation of
each in the context of this business.

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NO.1 Which of the following code snippets will you use to instantiate Zend_XmlRpc_Server?
A. $server = Zend_Xml::Zend_XmlRpc_Server()
B. $server = new Zend_Xml();
C. $server = new Zend_XmlRpc_Server();
D. $server = create_new_Zend_XmlRpc_Server()
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following actions may fail if you have exceeded your quota limit?
A. addTo()
B. send()
C. addBcc()
D. appendMessage()
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following functions sets up start and end element handlers?
A. xml_parse_into_struct()
B. xml_parser_create_ns()
C. xml_set_object()
D. xml_set_element_handler()
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following are the configuration files that are used in Zend_Config?
A. Zend_Config_Server
B. Zend_Config_Xml
C. Zend_Config_Db
D. Zend_Config_Ini
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Fill in the blank with the appropriate method name.
The__________ method is used to send an email in the HTML format.
Answer: setBodyHTML()

NO.6 Celina works as a Database Administrator for Tech Mart Inc. The company uses an Oracle
database. The database contains a table named Employees. Following is the structure of the table:
EmpID NUMBER (5) PRIMARY KEY
EmpName VARCHAR2 (35) NOT NULL
Salary NUMBER (9, 2) NOT NULL
Commission NUMBER (4, 2)
ManagerName VARCHAR2 (25)
ManagerID NUMBER (5)
Celina wants to display the names of employees and their managers, using a self join. Which of the
following SQL statements will she use to accomplish this?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName FROM Employees e, Employeesm WHERE e.EmpID =
m.ManagerID;
B. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName FROM Employees e INNER JOIN Employeesm ON e.EmpID
= m.ManagerID;
C. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName FROM Employees e LEFT OUTER JOIN Employees m ON
e.EmpID = m.ManagerID;
D. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName FROM Employees e SELF JOIN Employeesm ON e.EmpID =
m.ManagerID;
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 Which of the following methods will you use to retain the identity across requests according to
the PHP session configuration?
A. isValid()
B. getIdentity()
C. Zend_Auth::authenticate()
D. getCode()
Answer: C

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NO.8 You want to retrieve all the data from any given table. You also want to ensure that no
duplicate values are displayed. Which of the following SQL statements will you use to accomplish
the task?
A. SELECT...TOP
B. SELECT...WHERE
C. SELECT...DISTINCT
D. SELECT...ALL
Answer: C

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NO.1 An object can be counted with count() and sizeof() if it ­ ..
A. implements ArrayAccess
B. has a public__count() method
C. was cast to an object from an array
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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- It must implement the count() method (no underscores)

NO.2 Which parts of the text are matched in the following regular expression?
A. bang bong bung
B. bang bonged bung
C. big bang bong bung
D. big bang bung
Answer: C

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NO.3 Consider the following two files. When you run test.php, what would the output look like?
A. 12, 12
B. 12, 24
C. 24, 12
D. 24, 24
E. PHP Fetal error. Cannot redeclare strlen()
Answer: C

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NO.4 An HTML form has two buttons. After submitting the form, how could you determine with PHP which
button was clicked?
A. An HTML form may only have one button.
B. Hook up JavaScript the form to add a value to the URL depending on which button has been clicked.
C. Put the two buttons in individual form elements with different action attribute.
D. Assign name and value attributes to each button and use $_GET or $_POST to find out which button
has been clicked.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following rules must every correct XML document adhere to? (Choose 2)
A. It has to be well-formed.
B. It has to be valid.
C. It has to be associated to a DTD.
D. It may only contain UTF-8 encoded characters.
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 Which PHP function relieves a 1st of HTTP headers that have been sent as part of the HTTP response
or are ready to be sent?
A. header()
B. headers()
C. header_list()
D. header_sent()
E. getresponseheaders0
Answer: C

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NO.7 Assuming UTF-8 encoding, what is the value of $count?
A. false
B. 4
C. 6
D. 7
Answer: B

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NO.8 You'd like to use the class MyDBConnection that's defined in the
MyGreatFrarnework\GreafDatabaseAbstractionLayer namespace, but you want to minimize *as much as
possible* the length of the class name you have to type. What would you do?
A. Import the MyGreatFramework namespace
B. Import the MyGreatFrarnework\GreafDatabaseAbstractionLayer namespace
C. Alias MyGreatFrarnework\GreafDatabaseAbstractionLayer\MyDBConnection to a shorter name
D. Alias MyGreatFrarnework\GreafDatabaseAbstractionLayer to a shorter name
Answer: B

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This removes the need to prefix the class with the namespace name. You can refer to the class simply as
®M y DBC onnec ti o ¡¯

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NO.1 When talking about databases search query languages,commands such as
Select,Update,Insert,Grant,and Revoke would all the part of what language?
A. C++
B. SQL
C. Python
D. Perl
Answer: B

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NO.2 Mary has learned about the different ways authentication can be implemented on a web site.
Which of the following forms of authentication would consist of the most basic form
and also the less secure?
A. Digest Authentication
B. Basic Authentication
C. LDAP Authentication
D. Token Base Authentication
Answer: A

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NO.3 This document is a high level document that describes management intentions towards
security.What is the name of the document?
A. Procedures
B. Guidelines
C. Policies
D. Baselines
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following SQL script will cause the SQL server to cease operations?
A. NET STOP SQLSERVER -
B. OR 1=1; CLOSE WITHNOWAIT;
C. NET STOP SQLSERVERAGENT -
D. SHUTDOWN WITH NOWAIT;-
Answer: D

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NO.5 Yannick who is a very smart security tester has mentioned to one of his friends that he
has found a way of appending data to an existing file using the built in Windows tools
and no third party utility.
This text appended does not affect the functionality,size,or display within traditional file
browsing utilities such as dir or Internet Explorer.What is Yannick making reference to in
this case?
A. Steganography
B. Hybrid Encryption
C. Alternate Data Streams
D. Append.exe
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following are reasons why fragment-based port scans are often used by
attackers?Choose two.
A. Simple non-stateful packet filtering devices can sometimes be bypassed
B. Reassembling fragmented packets is not time or processor intensive
C. RFC 1121 requires that all routers pass fragmented packets
D. Firewalls may be configured for high throughput and thus dont reassemble and inspect
fragmented packets
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 What technology is often used by employees to get access to web sites that are blocked by
their corporate proxy server?Choose the best Answer:.
A. DNS spoofing
B. ARP poisoning
C. Anonymizers
D. BASIC web authentication
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following penetration framework is Open Source and offers features that
are similar to some of its rival commercial tools?
A. CANVAS
B. CORE IMPACT
C. METASPLOIT
D. DEEP HOLE
Answer: C

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NO.1 What is the maximum number of characters that can be entered or imported into a single record's text
field in FileMaker Pro 9?
A. 64 thousand
B. 1 million
C. 1 billion
D. 2 billion
E. Limited only by disk space
Answer: C

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NO.2 When running FileMaker Server 9 Advanced in an environment that uses a firewall, which ports, at a
minimum, need to be open for FileMaker Pro 9 and FileMaker Server Admin Console to communicate
with FileMaker Server Advanced across the firewall from an end user machine?
A. Ports 5003, 5006, 50003
B. Ports 2399, 5003, 16000
C. Ports 5003, 16000, 16001
D. Ports 16000, 16001,16004
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which three of the following are supported operating systems for FileMaker Server 9 and Filemaker
Server 9 Advanced? (Choose three.)
A. Mac OS X Server 10.4.9
B. Mac OS X Server 10.3.9
C. Windows NT Server SP4
D. Windows XP Professional SP2
E. Windows 2003 Server Standard Edition SP2
Answer: ADE

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NO.4 For FileMaker Pro 9 files that are opened (i.e. to resolve a relationship) and where the window
remains hidden, which statement is true about a script set to perform when opening this file?
A. It will not execute.
B. It will execute as soon as the file is opened.
C. It will execute as soon as the file's first window is drawn.
D. It will execute when the file is opened only if the script has the run script with full access privileges
option enabled.
Answer: C

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NO.5 In order to retain FileMaker Pro 6 database behavior, FileMaker Pro 9 may insert a Select Window
script step after which two of the following script steps as the file is converted? (Choose two.)
A. Open File
B. Go To Layout
C. Perform Script
D. Refresh Window
E. Go to Related Record
Answer: CE

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NO.6 A layout showing records from a People table has the Save record changes automatically check box
disabled in the Layout Setup dialog.
Which two actions cause FileMaker Pro 9 to display a dialog asking whether or not you want to save
changes to the current record? (Choose two.)
A. Importing records into the People table
B. Editing a field value on the layout and attempting to commit the record
C. Running a script that navigates to that layout, changes a field value, and performs a Commit
Records/Requests[No Dialog] script step
D. Running a script that navigates to that layout, changes a field value, and performs a Commit
Records/Requests[Skip data entry validation] script step
Answer: BD

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NO.7 Which elements of a FileMaker file should be reviewed for behavior consistency after converting from
FileMaker Pro 6 to FileMaker Pro 9? (Choose four.)
A. Record locking
B. Repeating fields
C. Calculation results
D. Instant Web Publishing settings
E. Scripts set to perform When opening this file in File Options
Answer: ACDE

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NO.8 Which two of the following are true about the Data Viewer in FileMaker Pro 9 Advanced? (Choose two.)
A. It always displays the values of all global variables defined in a file.
B. It can only be accessed by users with the [Full Access] privilege set.
C. It can be used to manually change the value of a variable during debugging of a script.
D. It automatically displays the values of fields referenced by calculations used in the currently running
script.
Answer: CD

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NO.1 Which of the following correctly describes the DOM (Level 2) Node interface?
A. The Node interface can be used to change the value (nodeValue) of the DOM element node (Element)
B. The Node interface can be used to change the name (nodeName) of the DOM element node (Element)
C. The Node interface can be used to change the value (nodeValue) of the DOM attribute node (Attr)
D. The Node interface can be used to change the name (nodeName) of the DOM attribute node (Attr)
Answer: C

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NO.2 Push the Exhibit Button to load the referenced "XML document".
[XML Document]
<root><data>lmnop</data></root>
Assume that the "XML Document" is changed to the "Results XML Document." Select which XSLT style
sheet correctly performs the transformation.
Note that the XSLT processor can output transformation results as a document.
[Results XML Document]
<ZZZ><YYY>lmnop</YYY></ZZZ>
A. <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform">
<xsl:include href="exam.xsl" />
<xsl:template match= " / " >
<xsl:apply-templates select= " root " />
</xsl:template>
<xsl:template match= " root " >
<AAA><BBB><xsl:value-of select= " data " /></BBB></AAA>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
[exam.xsl]
<xsl:stylesheet version= " 1.0 " xmlns:xsl= " http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform " >
<xsl:template match= " //root " >
<ZZZ><YYY><xsl:value-of select= " data " /></YYY></ZZZ>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
B. <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform">
<xsl:import href="exam.xsl" />
<xsl:template match= " / " >
<xsl:apply-templates select= " root " />
</xsl:template>
<xsl:template match= " root " >
<AAA><BBB><xsl:value-of select= " data " /></BBB></AAA>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
[exam.xsl]
<xsl:stylesheet version= " 1.0 " xmlns:xsl= " http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform " >
<xsl:template match= " //root " >
<ZZZ><YYY><xsl:value-of select= " data " /></YYY></ZZZ>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
C. <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform">
<xsl:include href="exam.xsl" />
<xsl:template match= " / " >
<xsl:apply-templates select= " root " />
</xsl:template>
<xsl:template match= " root " >
<AAA><BBB><xsl:value-of select= " data " /></BBB></AAA>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
[exam.xsl]
<xsl:stylesheet version= " 1.0 " xmlns:xsl= " http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform " >
<xsl:template match= " root " >
<ZZZ><YYY><xsl:value-of select= " data " /></YYY></ZZZ>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
D. <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform">
<xsl:import href="exam.xsl" />
<xsl:template match= " / " >
<xsl:apply-templates select= " root " />
</xsl:template>
<xsl:template match= " root " >
<AAA><BBB><xsl:value-of select= " data " /></BBB></AAA>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
[exam.xsl]
<xsl:stylesheet version= " 1.0 " xmlns:xsl= " http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform " >
<xsl:template match= " root " >
<ZZZ><YYY><xsl:value-of select= " data " /></YYY></ZZZ>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
Answer: A

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NO.3 Select which of the following correctly describes WSDL. (WSDL 1.1)
A. WSDL assumes SOAP as the message transmission form
B. When WSDL is defined by a combination of style="rpc" and use="encoded", then
encodingStyle="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/" must be designated
C. When WSDL is defined by a combination of style="rpc" and use="encoded", then the encodingStyle
attribute cannot be designated
D. WSDL may be defined by a combination of style="rpc" and use="literal"
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following describes the most correct call order of the ContentHandler interface methods
when parsing the following "XML Document" using a non-validating SAX parser? This question reflects
line feeds within the XML document.
[XML Document]
<a>
<b>
c
</b>
</a>
A. startDocument - startElement - characters - startElement - characters - characters - characters -
endElement - characters - endElement - endDocument
B. startDocument - startElement - ignorableWhitespace - startElement - ignorableWhitespace -
characters - ignorableWhitespace - endElement - ignorableWhitespace - endElement - endDocument
C. startDocument - startElement - startElement - characters - endElement - endElement - endDocument
D. startDocument - startElement - startElement - characters - characters - endElement - endElement -
endDocumentW
Answer: A

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NO.5 Push the Exhibit Button to load the referenced "XML Document".
Select which of the following correctly describes the output results of an XSLT transformation of the "XML
Document" using the "XSLT Style Sheet".
Note that the XSLT processor can output transformation results as a document. Line feeds and indents
are not reflected.
A. <record>
<data>100</data>
</record>
B. <record xmlns="urn:xmlmaster:test">
<data>100</data>
</record>
C. <record xmlns="urn:xmlmaster:test">
<data xmlns= "" >100</data>
</record>
D. <record>
<data>100</data>
<data>70</data>
</record>
E. <record xmlns="urn:xmlmaster:test">
<data>100</data>
<data>70</data>
</record>
F. <record xmlns="urn:xmlmaster:test">
<data xmlns= "" >100</data>
<data xmlns= "" >70</data>
</record>
Answer: F

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NO.6 Push the Exhibit Button to load the referenced "XML Document".
[XML Document]
<TestML xmlns="urn:xmlmaster:testml">
<record level="1" data="100" />
<record level="2" data="250" />
</TestML>
Choose the XML Schema Document that does not correctly define the structure of the "XML Document".
A. <xs:schema
xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"
targetNamespace="urn:xmlmaster:testml"
xmlns:tns="urn:xmlmaster:testml" >
<xs:element name="TestML" type=" tns:testmlType " />
<xs:complexType name="testmlType">
<xs:sequence>
<xs:element ref=" tns:record " maxOccurs="unbounded" />
</xs:sequence>
</xs:complexType>
<xs:element name="record" type=" tns:recordType " />
<xs:complexType name="recordType">
<xs:attribute name="level" type="xs:int" />
<xs:attribute name="data" type="xs:int" />
</xs:complexType>
</xs:schema>
B. <xs:schema
xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"
targetNamespace="urn:xmlmaster:testml"
xmlns="urn:xmlmaster:testml" >
<xs:element name="TestML" type=" testmlType " />
<xs:complexType name="testmlType">
<xs:sequence>
<xs:element ref=" record " maxOccurs="unbounded" />
</xs:sequence>
</xs:complexType>
<xs:element name="record" type=" recordType " />
<xs:complexType name="recordType">
<xs:attribute name="level" type="xs:int" />
<xs:attribute name="data" type="xs:int" />
</xs:complexType>
</xs:schema>
C. <xs:schema
xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"
targetNamespace="urn:xmlmaster:testml" >
<xs:element name="TestML" type=" testmlType " />
<xs:complexType name="testmlType">
<xs:sequence>
<xs:element ref=" record " maxOccurs="unbounded" />
</xs:sequence>
</xs:complexType>
<xs:element name="record" type=" recordType " />
<xs:complexType name="recordType">
<xs:attribute name="level" type="xs:int" />
<xs:attribute name="data" type="xs:int" />
</xs:complexType>
</xs:schema>
D. <schema
xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"
targetNamespace="urn:xmlmaster:testml"
xmlns:tns="urn:xmlmaster:testml">
<element name="TestML" type="tns:testmlType" />
<complexType name="testmlType">
<sequence>
<element ref="tns:record" maxOccurs="unbounded" />
</sequence>
</complexType>
<element name="record" type="tns:recordType" />
<complexType name="recordType">
<attribute name="level" type="int" />
<attribute name="data" type="int" />
</complexType>
</schema>
Answer: C

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NO.7 Push the Exhibit Button to load the referenced "XML Document 1" and "XML Document 2," and process
XML using "DOM Processing."
Select which of the following is the most appropriate expression of the results under XML 1.0. Line feeds
and/or indents are not reflected in the results.
A. <root2 xmlns="urn:xmlmaster:EX2">
<data xmlns= " urn:xmlmaster:EX1 " >string value</data>
</root2>
B. <root2 xmlns="urn:xmlmaster:EX2">
<data>string value</data>
</root2>
C. <root2 xmlns="urn:xmlmaster:EX2">
<data xmlns= " urn:xmlmaster:EX1 " />
</root2>
D. <root2 xmlns="urn:xmlmaster:EX2">
<data/>
</root2>
Answer: A

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NO.8 Push the Exhibit Button to load the referenced "XML Document".
[XML Document]
<root><data>lmnop</data></root>
Assume that the "XML document" is changed to the "Results XML Document." Select which XSLT style
sheet correctly performs the transformation.
Note that the XSLT processor can output transformation results as a document.
[Results XML Document]
<lmnop/>
Or
<lmnop></lmnop>
A. <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform">
<xsl:template match= " / " >
<xsl:apply-templates select= " root/data " />
</xsl:template>
<xsl:template match= " data " >
<xsl:element name="<xsl:value-of select='.'/>"/>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
B. <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform">
<xsl:template match= " / " >
<xsl:apply-templates select= " root/data " />
</xsl:template>
<xsl:template match= " data " >
<xsl:element name="{ . }"/>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
C. <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform">
<xsl:template match= " / " >
<xsl:apply-templates select= " root/data " />
</xsl:template>
<xsl:template match= " data " >
<xsl:element name="."/>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
D. <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform">
<xsl:template match= " / " >
<xsl:apply-templates select= " root/data " />
</xsl:template>
<xsl:template match= " data " >
<xsl:text disable-output-escaping="no"><</xsl:text>
<xsl:value-of select="."/>
<xsl:text disable-output-escaping="no">/></xsl:text>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
Answer: B

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NO.1 Examine the following statement that is used to modify the constraint on the SALES table:
SQL> ALTER TABLE SALES MODIFY CONSTRAINT pk DISABLE VALIDATE;
Which three statements are true regarding the above command? (Choose three.)
A.The constraint remains valid.
B.The index on the constraint is dropped.
C.It allows the loading of data into the table using SQL *Loader.
D.New data conforms to the constraint, but existing data is not checked.
E.It allows the data manipulation on the table using INSERT/UPDATE/DELETE SQL statements.
Answer: ABC

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NO.2 Which two statements are true about the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)? (Choose two.)
A.All AWR tables belong to the SYSTEM schema.
B.The AWR contains systemwide tracing and logging information.
C.The snapshots collected by the AWR are accessible through data dictionary views.
D.The snapshots collected by the AWR are used by self-tuning components in the database.
Answer: CD

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NO.3 Which two statements about the background process of the database writer are true? (Choose two.)
A.It is possible to have multiple database writers in an Oracle instance.
B.It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files whenever a checkpoint occurs.
C.It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files whenever a transaction commits.
D.It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files before the log writer (LGWR) writes.
Answer: AB

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NO.4 Open the database.
Identify the correct sequence of steps?
A.1, 2, 4, 3, 5, 6
B.2, 4, 3, 5, 6; 1 not required
C.4, 5, 6, 2, 3; 1 not required
D.5, 2, 3, 4; 1 and 6 not required
Answer: A

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6. Note the following points describing various utilities in Oracle Database 11g:
1. It enables the high-speed transfer of data from one database to another.
2: It provides a complete solution for the backup, restoration, and recovery needs of the entire database.
3: It enables the loading of data from an external file into an Oracle database.
4: It provides a tape backup management for the Oracle ecosystem.
Which point describes Oracle Secure Backup?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
E.1, 2, and 4
F.1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: D

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NO.5 View the Exhibit and identify the component marked with a question mark.
A.Checkpoint (CKPT)
B.Process Monitor (PMON)
C.Archiver Processes (ARCn)
D.Recoverer Process (RECO)
E.Memory Manager process (MMAN)
Answer: A

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NO.6 You have executed this command to change the size of the database buffer cache:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_CACHE_SIZE=2516582;
System altered.
To verify the change in size, you executed this command:
SQL> SHOW PARAMETER DB_CACHE_SIZE
NAME TYPE VALUE
------------------- ----------- ------------------
db_cache_size big integer 4194304
Why is the value set to 4194304 and not to 2516582?
A.because 4194304 is the granule size
B.because 4194304 is the standard block size
C.because 4194304 is the largest nonstandard block size defined in the database
D.because 4194304 is the total size of data already available in the database buffer cache
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NO.7 Note the following functionalities of various background processes:
1. Record the checkpoint information in data file headers.
2: Perform recovery at instance startup.
3: Cleanup unused temporary segments.
4: Free the resources used by a user process when it fails.
5: Dynamically register database services with listeners.
6: Monitor sessions for idle session timeout.
Which option has the correct functionalities listed for a background process?
A.Archiver Process (ARCn): 1, 2, 5
B.System Monitor Process (SMON): 1, 4, 5
C.Process Monitor Process (PMON): 4, 5, 6
D.Database Writer Process (DBWn): 1, 3, 4
Answer: C

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NO.8 View the Exhibit and examine the attributes of an undo tablespace.
In an OLTP system, the user SCOTT has started a query on a large table in the peak transactional hour
that performs bulk inserts. The query runs for more than 15 minutes and then SCOTT receives the
following error:
ORA-01555: snapshot too old
What could be the reason for this error?
A.The query is unable to get a read-consistent image.
B.There is not enough space in Flash Recovery Area.
C.There is not enough free space in the flashback archive.
D.The query is unable to place data blocks in undo tablespace
Answer: A

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NO.1 A developer needs to deliver a large-scale enterprise application that connects developer
chooses an EJB 3.1-compliant application server, which three are true about the EJB business
component tier? (Choose three.)
A. Load-balancing is NOT a guarantee for all EJB 3.1 containers.
B. Clustering is guaranteed to be supported by the EJB 3.1 container.
C. Thread pooling can be optimized by the Bean Provider programmatically.
D. Bean Providers are NOT required to write code for transaction demarcation.
E. Support for server fail-over is guaranteed for an EJB 3.1-compliant application server.
F. EJB 3.1 compliant components are guaranteed to work within any Java EE 6 application server
Answer: A,C,F

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Explanation:
The EJB tier hosts the business logic of a J2EE application and provides system-level services to the
business componentsproblems include state maintenance, transaction management, and
availability to local and remote clients.
The EJB 3.1 specification does not address "high-end" features like clustering (not B), load-balancing
(A) and fail-over (not E).
F: The target platform for EJB is Java EE.

NO.2 public void setValue (int i) {value = i; }

NO.3

NO.4 }
Assuming there is not an ejb-jar.xml file, which code can be inserted into Lines 4-6 below to define
the bean with the ejb name of BarBean?
1.package acme;
2.import javax.ejb.*;
3.import java.io.*;
4.

NO.5 A stateful session bean contains a number of instance variables. The types of instance
variables A and B are serializable. Instance variable B is a complex type which is populated by many
business calls, and can, therefore, not be refilled by the client without starting all over. A helper
instance variable C is defined as having a Serializable type, and can hold all the information which is
in variable B.
for example, B is of type XML-DOM tree and C of Type String.
Which two solutions, when combined, maintain the state of the session bean over a passivation and
activation by the container? (Choose two.)
A. The value of helper variable C is used to create the value of Instance variable B in the beans
no-arg constructor.
B. The value of helper variable C is used to create the value of instance variable B in a @postcreate
annotated method.
C. The value of helper variable C is used to create the value of instance variable B in a @postActivate
annotated method.
D. Instance variable A must be made null and instance variable B must be converted to a Serializable
type and assigned to another instance variable in a @preDestroy annotated method.
E. Instance variable A must be defined transient. Instance variable B must be converted to a
Serializable type, set to null, and assigned to the instance variable C in a @PrePassivate annotated
method.
Answer: C,E

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NO.6

NO.7 }
A. @Stateful
public class BarEJB implements Bar {
public void bar () {}
B. @Stateful (name = "Bar")
public class Barbean implements Bar {
public void bar () {}
C. @Stateful
public class BarBean implements Serializable, Bar {
public void bar () {}
D. @Stateful (name = "bar")
public class BarBean implements Serializable, Bar {
public void bar () throws java.rmi.RemoteException {}
Answer: C

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7. A developer creates a stateful session bean that is used by many concurrent clients. The clients
are written by other development team; and it is assumed that these clients might not remove the
bean when ending their session. The number of concurrent sessions will be greater than the defined
bean cache size.
The developer must consider that the state of the session bean can be influenced by either
passivation or timeout.
Which three actions should the developer take to make the bean behave correctly in passivation
and timeout situations? (Choose three.)
A. Release references to resources in a @Remove annotated method.
B. Re-establishreferences to resources in an @Init annotated method.
C. Release references to resources in a @PreDestroy annotated method.
D. Release references to resources in a@PrePassivate annotated method.
E. Re-establish references to resources in a @PostActivate annotated method.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.8 A developer examines a list of potential enterprise applications and selects the most
appropriate technologies to use for each application.
For which two applications is EJB an appropriate solution? (Choose two.)
A. To render a GUI for mobile clients.
B. As a container for web-tier components including JSP .
C. As a Web service endpoint accessed by non-Java clients.
D. To receive and respond to HTTP Post requests directly from a web browser.
E. As an online shopping cart which can persist across multiple sessions with a single client.
Answer: C,E

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NO.1 What are two valid facts about WS-I? (Choose two.)
A. The I-Stack is a great development tool.
B. The WS-I promotes and supports generic protocols for the interoperable exchange of
messages.
C. The WS-I governs languages and protocols such as SOAP, WSDL, and UDDI.
D. The WS-I specifies specific rules that address either weaknesses in component specifications
or issues of how to combine the collected
technology.
E. The WS-I has been a guiding force in creating StAX.
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 Where can a developer specify confidentiality or integrity constraints on communications with
a Enterprise Bean exposed as a JAX-RS root resource?(Choose one)
A. As annotations on the EJB exposed as a root resource.
B. In the deployment descriptor for the EJB exposed as a root resource.
C. In the deployment descriptor for the web application that is hosting the JAX-RS resource.
D. In the vendor-specific configuration file for the container that is hosting the JAX-RS resource.
Answer: C

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NO.3 HTTP clients can provide authentication information to the server via the "Authorization"
header in the HTTP request. Choose the alternative, if any, that would serve as the definition for a
resource method that would allow a JAX-RS resource to obtain this authentication data (Choose
one):
A. It is impossible for a JAX-RS resource to obtain this information, since low-level HTTP data is
not presented to the JAX-RS application layer.
B. @GET @Path("/authInfo")
public String getAuthInfo( String authenticate ) {
return authenticate;
}
C. @GET @Path("/authInfo/{AUTHENTICATE}")
public String getAuthInfo(
@PathParam("Authorization") String auth ) {
return authenticate;
}
D. @GET @Path("/authInfo")
public String getAuthInfo(
@HeaderParam("Authorization") String auth ) {
return authenticate;
}
Answer: D

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NO.4 A developer needs to write a Web service that supports user sessions that timeout after 120
seconds. Which configuration file is correct for the developer use? (Choose one)
A. web.xml
B. server.xml
C. ejb-jar.xml
D. service-config.xml
Answer: A

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NO.5 When working directly with SOAP, which two statements are true about the encoding of
compound values? (Choose two.)
A. Compound values cannot be encoded.
B. A compound value may NOT contain other compound values.
C. Members of a compound value are encoded as accessor elements.
D. Accessors with names that are local to their containing types have unqualified names.
Answer: C,D

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NO.1 During the installation of 110 PRO, you receive an error message.What is the first task you do when
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A.Log a Sev 1 Service request.
B.Look in the Knowledge base for known issues.
C.Look in patches and updates to see if there is a patch to download to resolve the issue.
D.Create a forum post asking other clients and support representatives for clues or steps to be taken to
resolve the issue.
Answer: B

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NO.2 You maintain a single UPK Developer Library that includes content for the entire organization.You
have created an outline that includes all of the content for the current project.However, some of the
content is sensitive and should be visible only to the Human Resources group.
Which process enables you to maintain this library of content and deliver it to the organization without
exposing the sensitive content to the entire organization?
A.Duplicate the outline and remove the Human Resources topics from the duplicate.Deliver the full outline
to the Human Resources group and the duplicate outline to the entire organization.
B.Create a new outline and link all of the existing modules with the exception of the Human Resources
module.Deliver the full outline to the Human Resources group and the smaller outline to the entire
organization.
C.Create a Role named "Sensitive." Add this Role to all of the Human Resources content.Publish the
outline and use Roles to filter the content appropriately based on the user's role.
D.Create a State named Human Resources" Add this State to the Human Resources content.Use
"Publish by State" to publish one outline with and one outline without the Human Resources State.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A content author requests your help.
The UPK Developer does not correctly recognize objects and action areas while recording a target
application.The author provides you with a sample topic to review.You notice that the target application
appears in a VMware Player virtual machine window in the screenshots.The action areas cover the entire
virtual machine window, and the objects in the target application cannot be recognized.
How can you fix this problem?
A.The author should disable automatic recording, because it degrades object recognition when used with
a virtualization software.
B.The author should maximize the VMware Player window during recording so that the UPK Developer
can recognize the objects in the application.
C.The UPK Developer should be installed in the virtual machine, and the target application should be
recorded inside the virtual machine.
D.Exact Match is disabled by default for VMware Player in "Target Application Configuration" in the
Options dialog box.This setting must be enabled.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Your client has deployed the UPK Developer on a Citrix server, so content authors can access it remotely
in Citrix seamless windows.The target application was also installed on the same server.The authors are
unable to record content.
Choose three actions that you would take to help discover the problem.
A.Ensure that the "Time to hide recorder window before screen capture" setting in the Options dialog box
is Increased to at least three seconds.
B.Ensure that the target application (the web browser for web applications) runs in the same Citrix
session as the Developer.
C.Ensure that keyboard shortcuts are not recorded automatically.
D.Ensure that the screen shot capture key is changed from the default.
E.Ensure that the sound is correctly set up in Citrix.
Answer: B,D,E Explanation: Remote and Virtual Environments The Developer can operate in remote and
virtual environments such as Citrix and VMware.The following are known issues when operating the
Developer in these environments:
Citrix: *(B)When recording a target application running in a Citrix session, then Developer must be
running in the same Citrix session.
*(E)Sound output will likely be choppy.
* (D)Citrix does not pass the [PrintScreen] key to applications running in seamless windows.The
Developer uses the [PrintScreen] key as the default key for recording topics.Therefore, the Recorder will
not properly recognize the [PrintScreen] key in a Citrix seamless window.The recording key can be
changed in the Options dialog box in the Developer.
Reference: OracleUser Productivity Kit, Installation And Administration Release 11.0,Remote and Virtual
Environments

NO.5 You have defined a number of customizations for the Knowledge Center user interface.However, when
you test them, the customizations are not displayed.You have verified that the modified files have all been
placed in the proper directories.
What might be the reason your customizations are not appearing?
A.The local browser cache on the client system accessing the Knowledge Center must be cleared for the
customizations to appear.
B.You may be using an unsupported browser.Test your customizations in Internet Explorer version 8 or 9.
C.You may not have restarted the Web services on the Knowledge Center server.This will reload the.lng
and .cus files on the web server.
D.It you logged in to the Knowledge Center before you performed your customization, you will need to log
in as a new user to see the customizations.
Answer: C

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NO.6 UPK Developer requires Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5.Some of the machines in the organization
where Developer will be installed already have .NET Framework 3.5 installed, but most do
not.Organizational policy dictates that ALL of the machines where Developer will be installed DO NOT
have access to the internet for security reasons.The UPK installer comes packaged with a "bootstrap"
installer for .NET Framework 3.5, which connects to the Internet to install .NET Framework 3.5 from there.
Identify the method that would ensure that UPK Developer is installed securely with its .NET Framework
3.5 requirement.
A.Temporarily allow all machines access to the Internet during the duration of the distribution of the
installation, so that the "bootstrap" installer can connect properly.
B.Embed the full .NET Framework 3.5 installer package within the UPK installer, allowing the UPK
installer to use that package Instead of "bootstrap."
C.Ensure force installation of .NET Framework 3.5 on ALL machines before the installation of UPK
Developer.
D.Install only to the machines with .NET Framework 3.5 already installed; delay installation on other
machines until they have been updated with .NET Framework 3.5.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the first step to set up an unattended installation of the Knowledge Center?
A.Run the executable silently.
B.Record the parameter file by using the /r parameter.
C.Log a support ticket.
D.Use a third-party program to record the installation options.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Your client needs to reclaim space on their server.To reclaim the space, they want to purge the deleted
documents found in the library.Your client expressed concern that some of the documents may still be
referenced by other documents in the library.These documents may need to be recovered in the future.
Which action do you need to take to purge only the documents that are no longer being used?
A.Open the Related Documents pane from the View menu.Scroll through the documents in the Deleted
documents view, purging only those with no links in, as displayed in the lower panel.
B.Open the Related Documents pane from the View menu.Scroll through the documents in the Deleted
documents view, purging only those with no links to, as displayed in the upper panel.
C.Open the Brokenlinks panefrom the View Menu.Scroll through the documents in the Deleted
documents view, purging only those with no broken links in.
D.Open the Lost Document view.Because this shows only the document with no links in, you can purge all
deleted files from view.
E.Select all files in the deleted Document view and purge them, because those documents that are linked
to by nondeleted documents will be purged.
Answer: A

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