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NO.1 Which three primary components form IT Strategies from Oracle (ITSO)?
A. Enterprise Technology Strategies
B. Maximum Availability Architecture
C. Enterprise Solution Designs
D. Oracle Reference Architecture
E. Oracle Enterprise Architecture Framework
F. Oracle Unified Method
Answer: A,C,D

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Explanation: ITSO is made up of three primary elements.
Enterprise Technology Strategies (ETS)
Enterprise Solution Designs (ESD)
Oracle Reference Architecture (ORA)
Reference: IT Strategies from Oracle, An Overview, Release 3.0

NO.2 Which product provides the standard communication protocols (for example, HTTPS) between
the
Client Tier and the Service Tier as well as Message Security?
A. Oracle platform Security Services
B. Oracle WebCenter
C. Application Development Framework
D. Oracle HI IP Server
Answer: A

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Explanation: Oracle Platform Security Services comprises Oracle WebLogic Server's internal
security framework and Oracle's security framework (referred to as Oracle Platform Security).
OPSS delivers security as a service within a comprehensive, standards-based security framework.
The Security Services includes SSL:Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) is a combination
of Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) with SSL/TLS protocol.
Note:Oracle Platform Security Services (OPSS) provides enterprise product development teams,
systems integrators (SIs), and independent software vendors (ISVs) with a standards-based,
portable, integrated, enterprise-grade security framework for Java Standard Edition (Java SE) and
Java Enterprise Edition (Java EE) applications.
OPSS provides an abstraction layer in the form of standards-based application programming
interfaces (APIs) that insulate developers from security and identity management implementation
details. With OPSS, developers don’t need to know the details of cryptographic key management
or interfaces with user repositories and other identity management infrastructures. Thanks to
OPSS, in-house developed applications, third-party applications, and integrated applications
benefit from the same, uniform security, identity management, and audit services across the
enterprise.
OPSS is the underlying security platform that provides security to Oracle Fusion Middleware
including products like WebLogic Server, SOA, WebCenter, ADF, OES to name a few. OPSS is
designed from the ground up to be portable to third-party application servers. As a result,
developers can use OPSS as the single security framework for both Oracle and third-party
environments, thus decreasing application development, administration, and maintenance costs.
Reference: Oracle® Fusion Middleware Security Overview, 11g Release 1, About Oracle Platform
Security Services

NO.3 Select the two layers of ORA application infrastructure from the following list:
A. Application
B. Platform
C. Abstraction
D. Computing Foundation
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 Which of the following statements are true with regard to the Service Contract as defined by
the
Oracle Reference Architecture (ORA)?
A. A Service Contract defines the contract between a service consumer and a service provider.
B. A Service Contract defines the functional and nonfunctional capabilities of the SOA ServiceiIn
human-readable terms.
C. The Web Services Description Language (WSDL) defines the Service Contract for a Web
Service.
D. A Service Contract defines the totality of what the SOA Service provides, independent of
individual service consumers.
E. A Service Contract Is an optional part of an SOA Service, providing human-readable
documentation of the SOA Service.
Answer: B

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Explanation: SOA Services include a contract that specifies the functional and
non-functional capabilities provided.
In order to support business-level composition, the SOA Service
must have a contract that is understandable to a business person.
Reference: Oracle Reference Architectureand Service Orientation, Release 3.0

NO.5 Which statements are true with regard to authorization checks being done in the Mediation
Layer?
A. Performing authorization checksin the Mediation Layer provides a centralized approach to
securing SOA Services.
B. Performing authorization checks in the Mediation Layer requires that all secured SOA Services
be accessed via the same protocol.
C. Performing authorization checks in the Mediation Layer requires that all secured SOA Services
be accessed only via the Mediation Layer.
D. Performing authorization checks in the Mediation Layer eliminates the need for role-based
authentication.
E. Performing authorization checks in the Mediation Layer requires that user authentication be
based on username and password.
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 Which statement best describes the relationship between a SOA Service and service
Infrastructure?
A. Service infrastructure is a primary part of an SOA Service.
B. Service Infrastructure exposes the Service Interface and may satisfy some capabilities of the
Service Implementation.
C. Service infrastructure fulfills the Service Contract.
D. A SOA Service depends on the service infrastructure to satisfy some required capabilities.
E. A SOA Service uses the service infrastructure to generate the Service Interface.
Answer: B

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Explanation: The Service Infrastructure side typically provides the Service enablement
capabilities
for the implementation. These capabilities may include, exposing the interface as a
Web Service, handling SLA enforcement, security, data formatting, and others. Service
infrastructure should be utilized when possible, as it reduces the burden on Service
providers, from an implementation standpoint.
Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture,SOA Foundation, Release 3.1

NO.7 Which of the following is NOT a container capability?
A. Scalability
B. High Availability
C. Management and Monitoring
D. Applications
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture, Application Infrastructure Foundation, Release 3.0

NO.8 Which statement best describes the relationship between a Service Contract and a Usage
Agreement as defined by the Oracle Reference Architecture (ORA)?
A. There is a one-to-one relationship between a Service Contract and a Usage Agreement. For
each Service Contract there is a corresponding Usage Agreement.
B. There may be multiple Usage Agreements associated with a single Service Contract.
C. There may be multiple Service Contracts associated with a single Usage Agreement.
D. There is a many-to-many relationship between Service Contracts and Usage Agreements.
E. There is no defined relationship between a Service Contract and a Usage Agreement.
Answer: B

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Explanation: The Service Contract defines what the SOA Service agrees to provide to the
environment.
The service consumer Usage Agreement defines what a particular service consumer is
entitled to consume.
Each service might have several consumers.
The Service provider must ensure that the Service will satisfy the aggregate
specifications of all related usage agreements.
Note:
The usage agreement is not part of the Service; rather it defines what a particular service
consumer is entitled to consume from the Service.
Having both a usage agreement and a service contract provides a decoupling between
the service provider and service consumer. This not only facilitates reuse but also
provides a separation of concerns. The service contract defines the totality of what the
Service guarantees to provide, and can be written and validated independent of any
knowledge of specific service consumers. The usage agreement is service consumer
specific and defines what capabilities of the Service each consumer is allowed to
consume.
Reference: Oracle Reference Architectureand Service Orientation, Release 3.0

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NO.1 Which option best describes the resource catalog?
A. A resource catalog is a file that lists all the users registered with WebCenter Spaces.
B. A resource catalog is a run-time tool that is loaded with WebCenter spaces, which allows users to
communicate with the back-end databases.
C. A resource catalog is a listing of tools and services that can be added into the page at run time.
D. A resource catalog is a dictionary that contains all the business rules required for Oracle Composer.
Answer: B

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NO.2 The Worklist service in WebCenter Spaces refreshes automatically with new messages, alerts, and
notifications every _____minutes. (This is the default.)
A. 60
B. 15
C. 30
D. 45
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which option best describes the fundamental purpose of an Enterprise portal?
A. A portal application that presents static content
B. A portal application that will have back-end connectivity with applications as well databases
C. A portal that will provide a component-based environment that would allow dynamic
customization of components as well as the application
D. A portal that is designed to host a shopping cart for purchased products and allow users to purchase
with either cash or credit card
Answer: B

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NO.4 Identify three core modules of ADF Business Components.?
A. Entity Object
B. View Object
C. Web Service
D. Application Module
E. EJB
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.5 You are using WebCenter Spaces and want to add content to a page using the Content Presenter.
On the Content Page, select the Content Source. You need to define and enter query criteria to select
content and define the order in which the content displays on the page. What do you select?
A. Content under a folder
B. Single Content Item
C. Results of a Query
D. List of items
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which option describes how to customize a wiki page component in Oracle Composer?
A. Using any editor, open the ADFComponent.xml file in the services folder, and then edit the file where
the wiki component is listed with the required customization. Save the file.
B. In the edit mode, edit the wiki page component by clicking the pencil icon and modifying the Source
parameter. Click Save.
C. Select Group Spaces. Click Settings. Click Add/Remove components. Add Wiki component.
D. Click to the Wiki page. Select the pencil icon to go into edit mode. Select the Customization tab to
make customizations. Click Save to save the changes.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which three steps are needed for using task flows with business components in multiple
applications?
A. Create the task flow in each application.
B. Create the task flow once.
C. Deploy the task flow to an ADF Library.
D. Add the ADF Library to the web (UI) project.
E. Import the task flow in each application.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.8 As a WebCenter Spaces user, when you view My Worklist items, the window refreshes and two items
no longer appear. What caused the Worklist items to be removed?
A. Any Worklist item that is no longer of the Open state is removed from the Worklist during the next
refresh.
B. Any Worklist item that is no longer of the UnRead state is removed from the Workiist during the next
refresh.
C. Any Worklist item that is no longer of the Assigned state is removed from the Worklist during the next
refresh.
D. Any Worklist item that is no longer of the Completed state is removed from the Worklist during the next
refresh.
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which two demonstrate the valid usage of the keyword synchronized?
A. interface ThreadSafe {
synchronized void doIt();
}
B. abstract class ThreadSafe {
synchronized abstract void doIt();
}
C. class ThreadSafe {
synchronized static void soIt () {}
}
D. enum ThreadSafe {
ONE, TWO, Three;
Synchronized final void doIt () {}
}
Answer: C

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NO.2 Given the code fragment:
public class DisplaValues {
public void printNums (int [] nums){
for (int number: nums) {
System.err.println(number);
}
}
}
Assume the method printNums is passed a valid array containing data. Why is this method not
producing output on the console?
A. There is a compilation error.
B. There is a runtime exception.
C. The variable number is not initialized.
D. Standard error is mapped to another destination.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Given the code fragment:
DataFormat df;
Which statement defines a new Dateformat object that displays the default date format for the UK
Locale?
A. df = DateFormat.getdatDataInstance (DateFormat.DEFAULT, Locale (UK));
B. df = DateFormat.getdatDataInstance (DateFormat.DEFAULT, UK);
C. df = DateFormat.getdatDataInstance (DateFormat.DEFAULT, Locale.UK);
D. df = new DateFormat.getdatDataInstance (DateFormat.DEFAULT, Locale.UK);
E. df = new DateFormat.getdatDataInstance (DateFormat.DEFAULT, Locale (UK));
Answer: C

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NO.4 Given:
import java.util.*;
public class AccessTest {
public static void main(String[] args) {
Thread t1 = new Thread(new WorkerThread());
Thread t2 = new Thread(new WorkerThread());
t1.start(); t2.start; // line1
}
}
class WorkPool {
static ArrayList<Integer> list = new ArrayList<>(); // line2
public static void addItem() { // line3
list.add(1); // Line4
}
}
class WorkerThread implements Runnable {
static Object bar = new Object ();
public void run() { //line5
for (int i=0; i<5000;i++) WorkPool.addItem(); // line6
}
}
Which of the four are valid modifications to synchronize access to the valid list between threads t1
and t2?
A. Replace line 1 with:
Synchronized (t2) (t1.start();) synchronized(t1) (t2.start();)
B. Replace Line 2 with:
static CopyWriteArrayList<Integer> list = new CopyWriteArrayList<>();
C. Replace line 3 with:
synchronized public static void addItem () {
D. Replace line 4 with:
synchronized (list) (list.add(1);)
E. Replace line 5 with:
Synchronized public void run () {
F. replace line 6 with:
Synchronized (this) {for (in i = 0, i<5000, i++) WorkPool.addItem(); }
G. Replace line 6 with:
synchronized (bar) {for (int i= 0; i<5000; i++) WorkPool.addItem(); }
Answer: F

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NO.5 Given a language code of fr and a country code of FR, which file name represents a resource
bundle file name that is not the default?
A. MessageBundle_fr_FR.properties
B. MessageBundle_fr_FR.profile
C. MessageBundle_fr_FR.xinl
D. MessageBundle__fr__FR.Java
E. MessageBundle__fr__FR.Locale
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which code fragment demonstrates the proper way to handle JDBC resources?
A. Try {
ResultSet rs = stmt.executableQuery (query);
statement stmt = con.createStatement();
while (rs.next()) (/* . . . */)
} catch (SQLException e) {}
B. Try {statement stmt = con.createStatement();
ResultSet rs = stmt.executableQuery (query);
while (rs.next()) (/* . . . */)
} catch (SQLException e) {}
C. Try {
statement stmt = con.createStatement();
ResultSet rs = stmt.executableQuery (query);
while (rs.next()) (/* . . . */)
} finally {
rs.close();
stmt.close();
}
D. Try {ResultSet rs = stmt.executableQuery (query);
statement stmt = con.createStatement();
while (rs.next()) (/* . . . */)
} finally {
rs.close();
stmt.close();
}
Answer: C

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NO.7 Given the existing destination file, a source file only 1000 bytes long, and the code fragment:
public void process (String source, String destination) {
try (InputStream fis = new FileInputStream(source);
OutputStream fos = new FileOutputStream(destination)
) {
byte [] buff = new byte[2014];
int i;
while ((i = fis.read(buff)) != -1) {
fos.write(buff,0,i); // line ***
}
} catch (IOException e) {
System.out.println(e.getClass());
}
}
What is the result?
A. Overrides the content of the destination file with the source file content
B. Appends the content of the source file to the destination file after a new line
C. Appends the content of the source file to the destination file without a break in the flow
D. Throws a runtime exception at line***
Answer: A

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NO.8 Given:
public class DoubleThread {
public static void main(String[] args) {
Thread t1 = new Thread() {
public void run() {
System.out.print("Greeting");
}
};
Thread t2 = new Thread(t1); // Line 9
t2.run();
}
}
Which two are true?
A. A runtime exception is thrown on line 9.
B. No output is produced.
C. Greeting is printed once.
D. Greeting is printed twice.
E. No new threads of execution are started within the main method.
F. One new thread of execution is started within the main method.
G. Two new threads of execution are started within the main method.
Answer: C,E

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NO.1 Given the element from the web application deployment descriptor:
<jsp
property
group>
<url
pattern>/main/page1.jsp</url
pattern>
<scripting
invalid>true</scripting
invalid>
</jsp property group>
And given that /main/page1.jsp contains:
<% int i = 12; %>
<b> <%= i %> </b>
What is the result?
A. <b> <b>
B. <b> l2 </b>
C. The JSP fails to execute.
D. <% int i = 12 %>
<b> <%= i % > < b>
Answer: C

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NO.2 Given: Which three EL expressions, inserted at line 16, are valid and evaluate to d ? (Choose three)
A. ${map.c}
B. ${map.[c]}
C. ${map.[ c ]}
D. ${map.map.b}
E. ${map.[map.b]}
F. ${map. (map.b)}
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.3 A web application allows the HTML title banner to be set using a context initialization parameter called
titlestr.
Which two properly set the title in the scenario.? (Choose two)
A. <title> $ {titlestr} </title>
B. <title> $ {initparam.titlestr}</title>
C. <title> $ {param [0]. titlestr} </title>
D. <title> $ {paramValues.titleStr} </title>
E. <title> $ {initParam [ titleStr ] } </title>
F. <title> $ {servletParams.titleStr} </title>
G. <title> $ {request.get ( titleStr ) } </title>
Answer: B,E

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NO.4 Given:
<%
request.setAttribute ( vals , new String[] { 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 });
request.setAttribute ( index , 2 );
%>
<% - - insert code here - - %>
Which three EL expressions, inserted at line 15, are valid and evaluate to 3 ? (Choose three)
A. ${vals.2}
B. ${vals [ 2 ] }
C. ${vals.index}
D. ${vals[index] }
E. ${vals} [index]
F. ${vals. (vals.index) }
G. ${vals [vals[index-1]] }
Answer: B,D,G

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NO.5 You are building a dating service web site. Part of the form to submit a client's profile is a group of radio
buttons for the person's hobbies:
<input type = radio
name = hobbyEnum
value = HIKING > Hiking <br>
<input type = radio
name = hobbyEnum
value = SKING > Sking <br>
<input type = radio
name = hobbyEnum
value = SCUBA > SCUBA <br>
<! - - and more options - - >>
After the user submits this form, a confirmation screen is displayed with these hobbies listed. Assume that
an application-scoped hobbies, holds a map between the hobby enumerated type and the display name.
Which EL code snippet will display Nth element of the user's selected hobbles?
A. ${hobbies [hobbyEnum[N]}
B. ${hobbies [paramValues.hobbyEnum[N]]}
C. ${hobbies [paramValues @ hobbyEnum
@N]
D. ${hobbies.get(paramValues.hobbyEnum[N]) }
E. ${hobbies [paramValues.hobbyEnum.get(N)] }
Answer: B

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NO.1 An existing web application uses JSPs to communicate directly to a database. Small changes to the
database result in business logic changes to many JSPs. The single JSP developer, who was also the
graphic artist, has just quit the project. In addition, the company needs to add a web services-based
interface to the application. You have been hired as the architect to refactor the web application. Which
two changes should you make to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. introduce a separate presentation layer with different views for HTML and XML
B. add an abstraction layer between the database and JSPs to encapsulate business logic
C. develop a DAO layer to encapsulate the database access that can be used by all the JSPs
D. add new JSPs for the XML and use <jsp:include> to incorporate the existing business logic
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 A company is in the business of distributing hard candies. The distribution of these candies is
automated and the system that helps track information about candy distribution is written in Java
technology. The business unit for the company has been asking the IT group to provide a flexible
reporting system to track detailed information. A large amount of data about candy is stored using a DAO
layer, but little is used. What is the best solution for the IT group to implement to provide the most flexibility
for the business unit?
A. refactor the DAOs to include additional static queries to pull information and export a
spreadsheet for the business unit to review
B. implement an ad-hoc query tool exposed using JSF that allows business units to create queries and
produce results in a given format
C. provide a JSP page, which has scriptlets that expose pre-defined queries for the business unit to
execute and display in HTML
D. create a web service that exposes fixed queries invoked by a JSP client that can pull data from the
database and export in a given format
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two characteristics are NOT important factors in the selection of a web application framework
for a large project? (Choose two.)
A. complexity of the framework
B. degree of usage in the industry
C. availability of a unit test framework
D. reusability of model and view components
E. separation of concerns afforded by the framework
F. level of integration with common logging frameworks
Answer: C,F

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NO.4 A Java EE travel agency application builds flight itineraries and needs to provide runtime
monitoring to external clients. Agency managers need to find out at any given time how many itineraries
have been started but not completed. This information should be made available to managers at runtime
using open-source or commercially available management tools. The instrumentation should be done
with a standard Java EE API. How should you instrument the application?
A. JPA
B. JMX
C. JMS
D. SNMP
Answer: B

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NO.5 You work for a small IT shop. The developers are responsible for deploying production
applications. All of the connection and resource parameters are distributed in the Java source code. Your
IT shop has a limited infrastructure so there have been few issues with pushing production applications.
Your IT shop has been purchased and is now reselling Java products to customers. You now have
dedicated development, testing, staging, and production environments. A new requirement states that
these applications must support rapid deployment to each environment. What is the best solution.?
A. refactor the Java application to use JNDI names and resource references
B. identify a build engineer that has the responsibility of modifying the constant class for each deployment
C. set your connection properties in a constants class to consolidate connection and resource parameters
D. identify the environment parameters for connection and resources and make them readily available to
developers
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which application would NOT be a good candidate for an EJB-centric implementation of the business
tier?
A. an application that transfers money between accounts
B. a news-oriented web site that receives millions of hits a day
C. an application with business logic that calls third-party web services
D. a small workflow-oriented application to provision and deprovision employee accounts
Answer: B

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NO.7 You are asked to architect an SOA solution that leverages Java web services. The architecture needs to
be flexible and allow for the SOAP 1.1, SOAP 1.2, and REST implementations. Which Java EE
technology should you use?
A. JAXP
B. JAXB
C. JAX-WS
D. JAX-RPC
Answer: C

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NO.8 You are architecting an online ordering application with these requirements:
Users access the system over the Internet using HTML.
An email message is sent to the user confirming the order.
Users must log in and are validated using LDAP.
The product catalog is stored in a relational database.
All orders are logged to the internal fulfillment system.
Orders must not be lost.
Which Java EE technology should be used to send orders to the fulfillment system?
A. JNDI
B. JMS
C. JAX-WS
D. RMI-IIOP
Answer: B

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NO.1 Your client would like to leverage the ACE prescreening to allow the system to automatically
sort and rank candidates who are applying to high volume positions. What type of question will you
want to avoid creating when setting up ACE prescreening for these high volume jobs?
A. Multiple Answers
B. Single Answers
C. Open Text
D. Competencies
E. Disqualification
Answer: D

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NO.2 As opposed to a general profile, which two elements are visible only on a job submission in
the candidate file?
A. Prescreening Questions
B. Attachment tab
C. Disqualification Questions
D. Referrals tab
E. History tab
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 What two elements does the Configuration profile control within the Recruiting Center?
A. Search Widget
B. Core Navigation Bar
C. Coverage Areas
D. User Types
Answer: A,D

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Explanation:
D: A center stage is selected for each configuration profile and a configuration profile is tied to each
user.
A: Users can save a search query if the feature is activated in the user's configuration profile and if
the user type permission has been granted. The fields that can be selected in the Recruiting Center
to customize a search query are set by the system administrator for each configuration profile. If a
user is not linked to a configuration profile or is linked to a configuration profile for which the
system administrator has not selected additional fields, then only the set of default fields are
displayed when customizing a search query in the Recruiting Center.

NO.4 Identify two configurations that must be selected in the user type to allow hiring managers
access to only their requisitions.
A. View Requisitions -> Only if this user is an owner of the requisitions or a collaborator
B. View Requisitions -> Only if this user is an owner of the requisition, a collaborator or if the
requisitions are associated with coverage area
C. Access "Requisitions- Section
D. View Requisitions -> Without Restriction
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 When building a Career Section, in order to preview it, which area within the Career
Section would you access?
A. Application Flow Properties
B. Career Section URL
C. Career Section Properties
D. Career Portal Pages
E. Career Section Preview
Answer: E

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Explanation:
Viewing Candidates Matching a Requisition Prerequisite A user type permission grants users access
to this feature. The requisition must be posted on a career section. Steps
1.In the requisition file, select the Posting and Sourcing tab.
2.In the Career Sections section, click Preview Matching Candidates. Result The Posting Requisitions
- Filter Matching Candidates window displays candidates matching the requisition.

NO.6 What processes can be assigned unique candidate files?
A. Viewing and editing general profiles
B. Creating candidate profiles
C. Viewing and editing job submissions
D. Segmentation of candidate capture types
E. Modifying field-level security
Answer: B

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Explanation:
The candidate file identifier is used to specify which candidate-specific information is presented in
the Candidate column of candidates lists.

NO.7 Your client would like ensure that candidates have the ability to search for jobs in a variety of
ways. They would also like to provide visibility into jobs that candidates are a match for based on
data that has been collected by the system. How would you ensure that this functionality is
available?
A. Activate the Setting Display Personal Jobs List on the Career Portal Page Settings.
B. Activate the Setting Display Personal jobs List on the Career Section Properties.
C. Activate My Jobs Page on the Career Section Portal Page settings.
D. Activate My Jobs Page on the Personal Jobs List on the Career Section Properties.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
* If the candidate's submission has expired and the requisition is still posted, the Modify link is
replaced with the Reapply link on the candidate's My Jobs page.
* candidates are entering their profile inthecareer section.

NO.8 When configuring a CSW, why is it important to designate a completion status within a step?
A. The Completion Status will allow the candidate to progress to the next step in the CSW.
B. The Completion Status will terminate the candidate selection process.
C. The Completion Status will require that all mandatory actions be completed before a hire can be
completed.
D. The Completion Status indicates that a candidate can move from one step to another even if
some activities are not completed in the step.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Actions available in the Next Action column are Candidate Selection Workflow (CSW) movements
only,either a
Move to the next step in the CSW
Change to the completion status within the current step If the current status is not a completion
status, the action displayed will be a move (change status) tothe first completion status of the
current step. If the current status is a completion status, then the action will be a move to the next
step at the initialstatus. In a one-step CSW (reference workflow), only statuses configured as a
"completion status" willshow up as next steps.

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NO.1 Examine the following statement that is used to modify the constraint on the SALES table:
SQL> ALTER TABLE SALES MODIFY CONSTRAINT pk DISABLE VALIDATE;
Which three statements are true regarding the above command? (Choose three.)
A.The constraint remains valid.
B.The index on the constraint is dropped.
C.It allows the loading of data into the table using SQL *Loader.
D.New data conforms to the constraint, but existing data is not checked.
E.It allows the data manipulation on the table using INSERT/UPDATE/DELETE SQL statements.
Answer: ABC

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NO.2 Which two statements are true about the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)? (Choose two.)
A.All AWR tables belong to the SYSTEM schema.
B.The AWR contains systemwide tracing and logging information.
C.The snapshots collected by the AWR are accessible through data dictionary views.
D.The snapshots collected by the AWR are used by self-tuning components in the database.
Answer: CD

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NO.3 Which two statements about the background process of the database writer are true? (Choose two.)
A.It is possible to have multiple database writers in an Oracle instance.
B.It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files whenever a checkpoint occurs.
C.It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files whenever a transaction commits.
D.It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files before the log writer (LGWR) writes.
Answer: AB

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NO.4 Open the database.
Identify the correct sequence of steps?
A.1, 2, 4, 3, 5, 6
B.2, 4, 3, 5, 6; 1 not required
C.4, 5, 6, 2, 3; 1 not required
D.5, 2, 3, 4; 1 and 6 not required
Answer: A

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6. Note the following points describing various utilities in Oracle Database 11g:
1. It enables the high-speed transfer of data from one database to another.
2: It provides a complete solution for the backup, restoration, and recovery needs of the entire database.
3: It enables the loading of data from an external file into an Oracle database.
4: It provides a tape backup management for the Oracle ecosystem.
Which point describes Oracle Secure Backup?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
E.1, 2, and 4
F.1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: D

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NO.5 View the Exhibit and identify the component marked with a question mark.
A.Checkpoint (CKPT)
B.Process Monitor (PMON)
C.Archiver Processes (ARCn)
D.Recoverer Process (RECO)
E.Memory Manager process (MMAN)
Answer: A

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NO.6 You have executed this command to change the size of the database buffer cache:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_CACHE_SIZE=2516582;
System altered.
To verify the change in size, you executed this command:
SQL> SHOW PARAMETER DB_CACHE_SIZE
NAME TYPE VALUE
------------------- ----------- ------------------
db_cache_size big integer 4194304
Why is the value set to 4194304 and not to 2516582?
A.because 4194304 is the granule size
B.because 4194304 is the standard block size
C.because 4194304 is the largest nonstandard block size defined in the database
D.because 4194304 is the total size of data already available in the database buffer cache
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NO.7 Note the following functionalities of various background processes:
1. Record the checkpoint information in data file headers.
2: Perform recovery at instance startup.
3: Cleanup unused temporary segments.
4: Free the resources used by a user process when it fails.
5: Dynamically register database services with listeners.
6: Monitor sessions for idle session timeout.
Which option has the correct functionalities listed for a background process?
A.Archiver Process (ARCn): 1, 2, 5
B.System Monitor Process (SMON): 1, 4, 5
C.Process Monitor Process (PMON): 4, 5, 6
D.Database Writer Process (DBWn): 1, 3, 4
Answer: C

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NO.8 View the Exhibit and examine the attributes of an undo tablespace.
In an OLTP system, the user SCOTT has started a query on a large table in the peak transactional hour
that performs bulk inserts. The query runs for more than 15 minutes and then SCOTT receives the
following error:
ORA-01555: snapshot too old
What could be the reason for this error?
A.The query is unable to get a read-consistent image.
B.There is not enough space in Flash Recovery Area.
C.There is not enough free space in the flashback archive.
D.The query is unable to place data blocks in undo tablespace
Answer: A

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NO.1 A developer needs to deliver a large-scale enterprise application that connects developer
chooses an EJB 3.1-compliant application server, which three are true about the EJB business
component tier? (Choose three.)
A. Load-balancing is NOT a guarantee for all EJB 3.1 containers.
B. Clustering is guaranteed to be supported by the EJB 3.1 container.
C. Thread pooling can be optimized by the Bean Provider programmatically.
D. Bean Providers are NOT required to write code for transaction demarcation.
E. Support for server fail-over is guaranteed for an EJB 3.1-compliant application server.
F. EJB 3.1 compliant components are guaranteed to work within any Java EE 6 application server
Answer: A,C,F

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Explanation:
The EJB tier hosts the business logic of a J2EE application and provides system-level services to the
business componentsproblems include state maintenance, transaction management, and
availability to local and remote clients.
The EJB 3.1 specification does not address "high-end" features like clustering (not B), load-balancing
(A) and fail-over (not E).
F: The target platform for EJB is Java EE.

NO.2 public void setValue (int i) {value = i; }

NO.3

NO.4 }
Assuming there is not an ejb-jar.xml file, which code can be inserted into Lines 4-6 below to define
the bean with the ejb name of BarBean?
1.package acme;
2.import javax.ejb.*;
3.import java.io.*;
4.

NO.5 A stateful session bean contains a number of instance variables. The types of instance
variables A and B are serializable. Instance variable B is a complex type which is populated by many
business calls, and can, therefore, not be refilled by the client without starting all over. A helper
instance variable C is defined as having a Serializable type, and can hold all the information which is
in variable B.
for example, B is of type XML-DOM tree and C of Type String.
Which two solutions, when combined, maintain the state of the session bean over a passivation and
activation by the container? (Choose two.)
A. The value of helper variable C is used to create the value of Instance variable B in the beans
no-arg constructor.
B. The value of helper variable C is used to create the value of instance variable B in a @postcreate
annotated method.
C. The value of helper variable C is used to create the value of instance variable B in a @postActivate
annotated method.
D. Instance variable A must be made null and instance variable B must be converted to a Serializable
type and assigned to another instance variable in a @preDestroy annotated method.
E. Instance variable A must be defined transient. Instance variable B must be converted to a
Serializable type, set to null, and assigned to the instance variable C in a @PrePassivate annotated
method.
Answer: C,E

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NO.6

NO.7 }
A. @Stateful
public class BarEJB implements Bar {
public void bar () {}
B. @Stateful (name = "Bar")
public class Barbean implements Bar {
public void bar () {}
C. @Stateful
public class BarBean implements Serializable, Bar {
public void bar () {}
D. @Stateful (name = "bar")
public class BarBean implements Serializable, Bar {
public void bar () throws java.rmi.RemoteException {}
Answer: C

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7. A developer creates a stateful session bean that is used by many concurrent clients. The clients
are written by other development team; and it is assumed that these clients might not remove the
bean when ending their session. The number of concurrent sessions will be greater than the defined
bean cache size.
The developer must consider that the state of the session bean can be influenced by either
passivation or timeout.
Which three actions should the developer take to make the bean behave correctly in passivation
and timeout situations? (Choose three.)
A. Release references to resources in a @Remove annotated method.
B. Re-establishreferences to resources in an @Init annotated method.
C. Release references to resources in a @PreDestroy annotated method.
D. Release references to resources in a@PrePassivate annotated method.
E. Re-establish references to resources in a @PostActivate annotated method.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.8 A developer examines a list of potential enterprise applications and selects the most
appropriate technologies to use for each application.
For which two applications is EJB an appropriate solution? (Choose two.)
A. To render a GUI for mobile clients.
B. As a container for web-tier components including JSP .
C. As a Web service endpoint accessed by non-Java clients.
D. To receive and respond to HTTP Post requests directly from a web browser.
E. As an online shopping cart which can persist across multiple sessions with a single client.
Answer: C,E

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NO.1 What are two valid facts about WS-I? (Choose two.)
A. The I-Stack is a great development tool.
B. The WS-I promotes and supports generic protocols for the interoperable exchange of
messages.
C. The WS-I governs languages and protocols such as SOAP, WSDL, and UDDI.
D. The WS-I specifies specific rules that address either weaknesses in component specifications
or issues of how to combine the collected
technology.
E. The WS-I has been a guiding force in creating StAX.
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 Where can a developer specify confidentiality or integrity constraints on communications with
a Enterprise Bean exposed as a JAX-RS root resource?(Choose one)
A. As annotations on the EJB exposed as a root resource.
B. In the deployment descriptor for the EJB exposed as a root resource.
C. In the deployment descriptor for the web application that is hosting the JAX-RS resource.
D. In the vendor-specific configuration file for the container that is hosting the JAX-RS resource.
Answer: C

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NO.3 HTTP clients can provide authentication information to the server via the "Authorization"
header in the HTTP request. Choose the alternative, if any, that would serve as the definition for a
resource method that would allow a JAX-RS resource to obtain this authentication data (Choose
one):
A. It is impossible for a JAX-RS resource to obtain this information, since low-level HTTP data is
not presented to the JAX-RS application layer.
B. @GET @Path("/authInfo")
public String getAuthInfo( String authenticate ) {
return authenticate;
}
C. @GET @Path("/authInfo/{AUTHENTICATE}")
public String getAuthInfo(
@PathParam("Authorization") String auth ) {
return authenticate;
}
D. @GET @Path("/authInfo")
public String getAuthInfo(
@HeaderParam("Authorization") String auth ) {
return authenticate;
}
Answer: D

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NO.4 A developer needs to write a Web service that supports user sessions that timeout after 120
seconds. Which configuration file is correct for the developer use? (Choose one)
A. web.xml
B. server.xml
C. ejb-jar.xml
D. service-config.xml
Answer: A

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NO.5 When working directly with SOAP, which two statements are true about the encoding of
compound values? (Choose two.)
A. Compound values cannot be encoded.
B. A compound value may NOT contain other compound values.
C. Members of a compound value are encoded as accessor elements.
D. Accessors with names that are local to their containing types have unqualified names.
Answer: C,D

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NO.1 During the installation of 110 PRO, you receive an error message.What is the first task you do when
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A.Log a Sev 1 Service request.
B.Look in the Knowledge base for known issues.
C.Look in patches and updates to see if there is a patch to download to resolve the issue.
D.Create a forum post asking other clients and support representatives for clues or steps to be taken to
resolve the issue.
Answer: B

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NO.2 You maintain a single UPK Developer Library that includes content for the entire organization.You
have created an outline that includes all of the content for the current project.However, some of the
content is sensitive and should be visible only to the Human Resources group.
Which process enables you to maintain this library of content and deliver it to the organization without
exposing the sensitive content to the entire organization?
A.Duplicate the outline and remove the Human Resources topics from the duplicate.Deliver the full outline
to the Human Resources group and the duplicate outline to the entire organization.
B.Create a new outline and link all of the existing modules with the exception of the Human Resources
module.Deliver the full outline to the Human Resources group and the smaller outline to the entire
organization.
C.Create a Role named "Sensitive." Add this Role to all of the Human Resources content.Publish the
outline and use Roles to filter the content appropriately based on the user's role.
D.Create a State named Human Resources" Add this State to the Human Resources content.Use
"Publish by State" to publish one outline with and one outline without the Human Resources State.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A content author requests your help.
The UPK Developer does not correctly recognize objects and action areas while recording a target
application.The author provides you with a sample topic to review.You notice that the target application
appears in a VMware Player virtual machine window in the screenshots.The action areas cover the entire
virtual machine window, and the objects in the target application cannot be recognized.
How can you fix this problem?
A.The author should disable automatic recording, because it degrades object recognition when used with
a virtualization software.
B.The author should maximize the VMware Player window during recording so that the UPK Developer
can recognize the objects in the application.
C.The UPK Developer should be installed in the virtual machine, and the target application should be
recorded inside the virtual machine.
D.Exact Match is disabled by default for VMware Player in "Target Application Configuration" in the
Options dialog box.This setting must be enabled.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Your client has deployed the UPK Developer on a Citrix server, so content authors can access it remotely
in Citrix seamless windows.The target application was also installed on the same server.The authors are
unable to record content.
Choose three actions that you would take to help discover the problem.
A.Ensure that the "Time to hide recorder window before screen capture" setting in the Options dialog box
is Increased to at least three seconds.
B.Ensure that the target application (the web browser for web applications) runs in the same Citrix
session as the Developer.
C.Ensure that keyboard shortcuts are not recorded automatically.
D.Ensure that the screen shot capture key is changed from the default.
E.Ensure that the sound is correctly set up in Citrix.
Answer: B,D,E Explanation: Remote and Virtual Environments The Developer can operate in remote and
virtual environments such as Citrix and VMware.The following are known issues when operating the
Developer in these environments:
Citrix: *(B)When recording a target application running in a Citrix session, then Developer must be
running in the same Citrix session.
*(E)Sound output will likely be choppy.
* (D)Citrix does not pass the [PrintScreen] key to applications running in seamless windows.The
Developer uses the [PrintScreen] key as the default key for recording topics.Therefore, the Recorder will
not properly recognize the [PrintScreen] key in a Citrix seamless window.The recording key can be
changed in the Options dialog box in the Developer.
Reference: OracleUser Productivity Kit, Installation And Administration Release 11.0,Remote and Virtual
Environments

NO.5 You have defined a number of customizations for the Knowledge Center user interface.However, when
you test them, the customizations are not displayed.You have verified that the modified files have all been
placed in the proper directories.
What might be the reason your customizations are not appearing?
A.The local browser cache on the client system accessing the Knowledge Center must be cleared for the
customizations to appear.
B.You may be using an unsupported browser.Test your customizations in Internet Explorer version 8 or 9.
C.You may not have restarted the Web services on the Knowledge Center server.This will reload the.lng
and .cus files on the web server.
D.It you logged in to the Knowledge Center before you performed your customization, you will need to log
in as a new user to see the customizations.
Answer: C

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NO.6 UPK Developer requires Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5.Some of the machines in the organization
where Developer will be installed already have .NET Framework 3.5 installed, but most do
not.Organizational policy dictates that ALL of the machines where Developer will be installed DO NOT
have access to the internet for security reasons.The UPK installer comes packaged with a "bootstrap"
installer for .NET Framework 3.5, which connects to the Internet to install .NET Framework 3.5 from there.
Identify the method that would ensure that UPK Developer is installed securely with its .NET Framework
3.5 requirement.
A.Temporarily allow all machines access to the Internet during the duration of the distribution of the
installation, so that the "bootstrap" installer can connect properly.
B.Embed the full .NET Framework 3.5 installer package within the UPK installer, allowing the UPK
installer to use that package Instead of "bootstrap."
C.Ensure force installation of .NET Framework 3.5 on ALL machines before the installation of UPK
Developer.
D.Install only to the machines with .NET Framework 3.5 already installed; delay installation on other
machines until they have been updated with .NET Framework 3.5.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the first step to set up an unattended installation of the Knowledge Center?
A.Run the executable silently.
B.Record the parameter file by using the /r parameter.
C.Log a support ticket.
D.Use a third-party program to record the installation options.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Your client needs to reclaim space on their server.To reclaim the space, they want to purge the deleted
documents found in the library.Your client expressed concern that some of the documents may still be
referenced by other documents in the library.These documents may need to be recovered in the future.
Which action do you need to take to purge only the documents that are no longer being used?
A.Open the Related Documents pane from the View menu.Scroll through the documents in the Deleted
documents view, purging only those with no links in, as displayed in the lower panel.
B.Open the Related Documents pane from the View menu.Scroll through the documents in the Deleted
documents view, purging only those with no links to, as displayed in the upper panel.
C.Open the Brokenlinks panefrom the View Menu.Scroll through the documents in the Deleted
documents view, purging only those with no broken links in.
D.Open the Lost Document view.Because this shows only the document with no links in, you can purge all
deleted files from view.
E.Select all files in the deleted Document view and purge them, because those documents that are linked
to by nondeleted documents will be purged.
Answer: A

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