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Exam Code: 250-410
Exam Name: Administration of Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.x
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NO.1 Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 Risk Manager provides which functionality?
A. configuration assessment of IT assets
B. evaluation of procedural controls by providing automated web-based questionnaires
C. simplification of the policy management life cycle
D. a view of IT risk related to a business asset such as a business process, group, or function
Answer: D

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NO.2 What must be done to save customized settings when using the report viewer?
A. copy the customized report
B. save the customized report
C. export the customized report
D. update the customized report
Answer: C

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7. Which Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 feature facilitates the monitoring and
approval of access rights in an organization?
A. Evaluations
B. Reports
C. Dashboards
D. Entitlements
Answer: D

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8. Users can copy an Asset Group to which two locations? (Select two.)
A. Asset Group templates
B. Existing Asset group
C. Business Asset view
D. Asset System root folder
E. Assets folder
Answer: D,E

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9. To effectively and consistently manage a relative concept like risk, risk must be defined. How is
the risk modeling process used during this process?
A. to present a consolidated view of assets
B. to collect raw-data based content
C. to identify and define security objectives
D. to assess security compliance status
Answer: C

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10. What are two types of Dashboards? (Select two.)
A. Web-based
B. Static
C. Organizational
D. Tiered
E. Executive
Answer: A,D

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11. A manager at corporate headquarters questions the validity of a compliance report because
the date and time are incorrect. Which is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The Application Server is in a different timezone.
B. The Reporting Database is in a different timezone.
C. The CCS Manager in the Reporting role is in a different timezone.
D. The report was incorrectly configured.
Answer: A

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12. Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 provides a mechanism to tag and identify assets for
report and scope purposes. Tagging is a way to define an asset with which type of information?
A. keyword
B. object
C. meta
D. category
Answer: C

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13. In addition to Report Data Synchronization and Report Generation, what is another
report-related job that can be executed from the Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 console?
A. Dashboard Import job
B. Report Data Purge job
C. Report Export job
D. Dashboard Synchronization job
Answer: B

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14. Which two data connectors are used to integrate with third-party applications to import
required data? (Select two.)
A. Standards connector
B. Web Services connector
C. Policy Manager connector
D. CSV data connector
E. Policy Module connector
Answer: B,D

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15. Which two tasks should be completed prior to deploying Symantec Control Compliance Suite
11.0? (Select two.)
A. create Service Principal Names
B. install licenses
C. create certificates
D. install sites
E. create service accounts
Answer: A,E

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16. The risk calculation logic in the Risk Manager module calculates the risk score based on the
evaluation and the assessment data that is collected from checks, questions, and extended tests and
assessment procedures that are available in the reporting database for the corresponding assets.
Which job type does Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 run for Risk Manager to determine
the correct risk score?
A. Report Data Synchronization job
B. Remediation Verification job
C. Collection-Evaluation-Reporting job
D. Global Metrics and Trends Computation job
Answer: D

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NO.3 What are two features of Reporting and Analytics? (Select two.)
A. Gold Standards
B. Standards
C. Entitlements
D. Patch Management
E. Enterprise Security Manager
Answer: D,E

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NO.4 A query returns multiple rows with the same machine name. Which method should be used to
narrow the results?
A. remove the Machine Name field
B. reduce the scope
C. set primary sort to a field other than Machine Name
D. set the Sort to Suppress Records with Duplicate Key
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which field is required for manually adding a Windows asset?
A. Machine Name
B. IP Address
C. OS Major/Minor Version
D. Asset Site
Answer: A

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NO.6 The CCS Manager Service can be configured for which type of data collector?
A. historical data collector
B. evaluation data collector
C. VMware data collector
D. HTTP data collector
Answer: C

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NO.1 When manually creating an entry within the Software Catalog, the administrator needs the
Managed Delivery policy to verify that prerequisite software is installed before deploying a new
application.
What should the administrator use to execute a prerequisite check?
A. Detection Rule
B. Applicability Rule
C. Basic Inventory
D. Software Filter
Answer: B

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NO.2 What are two prerequisites for installing Out-of-Band Management? (Select two.)
A. SQL Server configured in mixed authentication mode
B. SQL Server configured in Windows authentication mode
C. Symantec Management Platform
D. SQL Analysis Service installed
E. SSL/TLS
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 A system administrator is testing the delivery of an application.
During deployment, the administrator determines that the install path of an MSI needed to be
changed without modifying the MSI.
The administrator needs to change the command line parameters of the install package.
Which policies would be affected when the default install command line of a software package is
modified in the Software Catalog?
A. policies that are assigned to a non-managed computer
B. policies that leverage Software Discovery
C. policies currently referencing the modified entry
D. policies referencing staged software updates
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are two prerequisites for installing and configuring IT Analytics? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft Reporting and Analysis Services
B. Adobe Flash
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Datamining Viewer Controls
D. Microsoft Office Web Components 11 (2003)
E. Microsoft Silverlight
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 A system administrator discovers that an unauthorized piece of software called "Solitaire
2099" has been installed on company desktops.
The software installs a browser toolbar that prevents the use of the company standard browser
toolbar and needs to be removed immediately.
The administrator has also been instructed to identify all users that are playing the game so that
they can receive a private email about the situation.
Which two capabilities of Inventory Solution will help the administrator? (Select two.)
A. Inventory Solution provides data about the number of installed instances of an
application.B.Inventory Solution automatically associates software titles to users.
B. Inventory Solution automatically determines unauthorized software titles.
C. Inventory Solution tracks how often an application isexecuted.
D. Inventory Solution identifies harmful applications stored on local hard drives.
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 An administrator receives notification of a new vulnerability threat from Symantec Deepsight
Alert Services. The alert includes the name of an executable that should be prevented from running.
Which policy should the administrator configure?
A. Malware Blocking policy
B. Application Metering policy
C. Custom Inventory policy
D. Software Inventory policy
Answer: A

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NO.7 A system administrator deployed the Inventory Solution Agent Plug-in to 15,000 endpoints
across a company. Subsequently, the administrator realizes that the performance of the Notification
Server is slower during the inventory scan times.
Which two actions can be taken within Inventory Solution to reduce the processing impact on the
Notification Server during these times? (Select two.)
A. Create multiple policies on different schedules for subsets of computers.
B. Create a custom weekly schedule instead of using the default weeklyschedule.
C. Enable the priority setting in the advanced settings of the inventory task.
D. Use the AeXRunControl.exe program to randomize the collection of inventory.
E. Use the throttling setting in the advanced settings of the inventory task.
Answer: A,E

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NO.8 The IT Security department wants to prevent all versions of a particular file sharing application
from running on company computers.
Where must the software resource be defined before it can be prevented from running?
A. Software Inventory scan
B. Software Catalog
C. Software Library
D. Software Update policy
Answer: D

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Exam Name: Administration of Symantec Management Platform 7.5
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NO.1 Which Symantec Management Platform component initiates policy-based communication?
A. Notification Server
B. Symantec Management Agent
C. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
D. Symantec Management Console
Answer: B

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NO.2 What can the administrator use to have resources assigned to specific sites without
administrative intervention and as they register with the Notification Server?
A. Automation policy
B. Active Directory import policy
C. Inventory policy
D. Custom Inventory policy
Answer: A

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NO.3 If installation of the Package Service on the Site Server is forgotten, what is the impact on a
new hierarchy implementation?
A. Replication performance is degraded.
B. Data replication stops.
C. Hierarchy installation is denied.
D. Hierarchy replication switches to HTTP .
Answer: C

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13. Which statement describes the relationship between Site Server and Notification Server?
A. Site Server assists Notification Server by providing packages and tasks to the Altiris Agent.
B. Site Server sends information, events, and data from the Inventory Rule Agent to Notification
Server.
C. Site Server assists Notification Server by running reports.
D. Site Server takes over all functions for Notification Server.
Answer: A

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14. Which two methods can an administrator use to create tasks? (Select two.)
A. clone an existing task
B. clone a task report
C. right-click a reports folder and select New -> Task
D. right-click a Jobs and Tasks Portal folder and select New -> Task
E. clone an existing patch
Answer: A,D

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15. Two administrators run the same report that displays Windows XP SP1 workstations
imported from Active Directory. The North America Symantec Administrator returns 2,500
workstations. The Marketing Manager returns 500 workstations. When they compare the results,
they find that there is an overlap of 100 workstations. Why is there an overlap in the reports?
A. Because the workstations belong to multiple organizational groups in same organizational view.
B. Because the workstations belong to organizational groups in separate organizational views
C. Because of workstation security privilege intersection
D. Because of workstation security role filters
Answer: B

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NO.4 Refer to the Exhibit.
A target has been created with two rules: 1) 'exclude computers not in' filter Windows XP
Computers, and 2) 'include computers in' filter All Computers. There are 150 computers in the
Windows XP Computers filter. There are 200 computers in the All Computers filter. How many
computers will be in the target?
A. 50
B. 150
C. 200
D. 350
Answer: C

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NO.5 What must an administrator do to edit a sample task?
A. Clone the sample task and edit the original task
B. Right-click and select the task's properties
C. Clone the source folder of the sample
D. Clone the sample task and edit the clone
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which Symantec Management Platform component processes data sent by the Altiris Agent
and stores it in the Configuration Management Database?
A. Symantec Management Console
B. Software Management Framework
C. Notification Server
D. Site Services
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which statement is true about the Default Shared Schedules shipping with Notification Server?
A. They cannot be deleted.
B. They cannot be modified.
C. They can override maintenance windows.
D. They cannot be disabled.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A Symantec Management Platform 7.5 administrator attempts to discover all network
resources using the ping function, and none are found. After conferring with the network
administrator, it is determined that ping is blocked on all network devices for security purposes.
Which other protocol can the administrator use to discover network devices using Network
Discovery?
A. CDP
B. HIP
C. ARP
D. RIP
Answer: C

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NO.1 What should an administrator do before performing a software update of Symantec
Messaging Gateway 10.5?
A. Store backup on local server
B. Store backup on a remote location using FTP
C. Encrypt local backup
D. Purge all backups from the appliance
Answer: C

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NO.2 How does Symantec DLP communicate with Symantec Messaging Gateway (SMG) to indicate
what type of incident (if any) is related to a given message?
A. Symantec DLP uses the ICAP protocol to indicate if a message is clean,or if it violated any defined
policies.
B. Symantec DLP will add information into the message that can be interpreted by SMG and then
send it to SMG via SMTP .
C. Symantec DLP will quarantine messages that violate established policies,blocking it from SMG.
D. Symantec DLP will use TLS to send a notification message to the SMG server for any content
violations.
Answer: B

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NO.3 An administrator needs to determine whether a sending MTA is being throttled by Symantec
Messaging Gateway 10.5. Where is this information located?
A. Reputation Summary report
B. IP reputation lookup table
C. SMTP server logs
D. message audit logs
Answer: B

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6. After a configurable period of time, a suspect virus is released from the Suspect Virus
Quarantine. What happens to it next?
A. An alert is sent to the email administrator.
B. The attachment is removed and the original message is delivered to the recipient.
C. It is rescanned.
D. It is moved to quarantine.
Answer: C

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7. What is the current name of the LDAP synchronization technology used within the Symantec
Messaging Gateway?
A. Dynamic Data Cache
B. Directory Data Service
C. Active Directory
D. Domain Controller Interface (DCInterface)
Answer: B

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8. If recipient validation is configured properly, which SMTP response level is given to messages
that fail recipient validation queries at connect time?
A. 3xx - Service unavailable
B. 4xx - Temporary delivery failure
C. 5xx - Permanent delivery failure
D. 6xx - Rejected validation failure
Answer: C

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9. How should an administrator stop inbound mail using the command line interface (CLI)?
A. use mta-control
B. use mta-stop
C. use mail-control
D. use mail-stop
Answer: A

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10. Which additional Email Reports Data collection must be enabled to track Top Probe Accounts
via reports?
A. Spam and Unwanted Mail
B. Submissions
C. Sender IP connections
D. Invalid Recipients
Answer: D

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11. Which two statistics can the administrator view regarding the custom anti-spam rulesets?
(Select two.)
A. the "top-submitters" of missed spam or false positive detections
B. the "top submitters" of messages that are not valid and did not generate a custom rule
C. how many emails have been submitted for custom antispam rules
D. the effectiveness of the custom antispam rulesets compared to Symantec's rulesets
E. the top senders of messages detected by custon antispam rulesets
Answer: A,C

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12. What two actions can allowed end-users do to submit samples to Symantec and have custom
anti-spam rules created? (Select two.)
A. submit a sample to Symantec using the Email Submission Client
B. flag messages in their web-based SMG quarantine page as being spam and submitting the results
C. forward spam samples to abuse@symantec.com with a subject of "MISSED SPAM"
D. move the message into the included "Junk E-mail" folder available in Outlook
E. submit a sample to Symantec using the Email Submission Client available for Lotus Domino
Answer: A,B

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13. A company uses multiple control centers. What must be done to ensure legitimate NDRs are
recognized by Bounce Attack Prevention across all scanners?
A. configure the same seed value on each control center
B. configure the same administrator email address across both control centers
C. configure the same seed value on each scanner
D. configure both control centers with the same internal email hosts
Answer: A

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14. An organization would like to participate in the Symantec Probe Network without having to
manually create decoy email accounts. The organization wants to make sure that the addresses that
participate in the Symantec Probe Network are currently receiving email. Which directory data
source function should be enabled to help in this situation?
A. recipient validation
B. address resolution
C. SMTP authentication
D. LDAP routing
Answer: A

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15. What is required before attempting installation of the Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5
appliance?
A. console access to the appliance
B. DVD-ROM drive listed on hardware compatibility list
C. valid license file
D. machine account created in Active Directory
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which directory data source function must be enabled to help prevent a directory harvest
attack?
A. Active Directory connector
B. Dynamic Data Sourcing
C. LDAP authentication
D. Recipient validation
Answer: D

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NO.5 Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5 will be deployed to receive mail directly from the Internet.
In this situation, which option should be selected within the Inbound Mail Filtering - Accepted Hosts
step of the site setup wizard?
A. Enable MX lookup
B. Define a list of domains
C. Specify IP addresses/domains
D. Select all IP addresses
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which two options does an administrator use to specify if profiles can be removed from an iOS
device? (Select two.)
A. the device user can be allowed to remove a policy without specifying a password
B. the device user can be restricted from removing all policies from a device
C. the device user can be restricted from removing a specific policy from a device
D. the device user can be allowed to remove a policy by specifying a password
E. the device user can be prompted to contact the administrator to remove a policy
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 What does the acronym "GCM" stand for and how is it used?
A. Google Cloud Messaging and it is used to generate certificates
B. Google Certificate Manager and it is used to generate certificates
C. Google Cloud Messaging and it is used to push actions and commands to Android devices
D. Google Certificate Manager and it is used to push actions and commands to Android devices
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which policies are supported by Windows Phone 7.5?
A. Device restrictions for networking
B. SCEP profiles for certificates
C. iCal and POP/SMTP email
D. Only settings sent via EAS policies
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which file types are unacceptable for encrypted previews?
A. .doc, .docx
B. .xls, .xlsx
C. .pdf
D. .mp3, .mp4
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which type of content is impossible to include in and distribute through the SMM Mobile
Library?
A. PDF
B. Visio
C. spreadsheet
D. YouTube video link
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which iOS profile type allows configuration of Exchange ActiveSync account in the native iOS
email client?
A. SCEP
B. EAS
C. iCal
D. Email
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which option does an administrator apply to content without requiring a content policy?
A. Allow Offline Access
B. Fail-safe Revocation Timer
C. Auto Upgrade
D. Content Expiry
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which action must an administrator perform to install Mobile Management on a Symantec
Mobile
Management Server (Site Server)?
A. log into the Symantec Management Console from the Site Server > download the necessary
files > install Symantec Mobile Management
B. download and launch the Symantec Installation Manager from Symantec's website on the Site
Server > install Symantec Mobile Management
C. install Symantec Agent on the Site Server > rollout the install to the Site Server from the
Symantec Management Console
D. push the installer to the Site Server from the Symantec Management Console > run the
UpdateSiteServer.exe that is on the Consoles Desktop
Answer: C

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Exam Name: Administration of Symantec Management Platform 7.5
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NO.1 What defines the link between user and computer resources?
A. Resource Association
B. Resource Data Class
C. Resource Type
D. Resource Link
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which Symantec Management Platform component initiates policy-based communication?
A. Notification Server
B. Symantec Management Agent
C. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
D. Symantec Management Console
Answer: B

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NO.3 A named resource target contains 50 computers in the Sales Department. Several policies and
tasks are applied to this target. An administrator modifies one of these policies by changing this
target so that the policy now applies to 25 computers in the Engineering Department. How are the
policies and tasks affected?
A. Only the policy that the administrator changed is affected; all others only apply to the 50
computers in the Sales Department.
B. Only the policies and tasks that the administrator created are affected and apply to the 25
computers in the Engineering Department.
C. Every policy and task that applies to the target now applies to 75 computers in both the Sales and
Engineering Departments.
D. Every policy and task that applies to the target now only applies to the 25 computers in the
Engineering Department.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What can the administrator use to have resources assigned to specific sites without
administrative intervention and as they register with the Notification Server?
A. Automation policy
B. Active Directory import policy
C. Inventory policy
D. Custom Inventory policy
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which Symantec Management Platform component processes data sent by the Altiris Agent
and stores it in the Configuration Management Database?
A. Symantec Management Console
B. Software Management Framework
C. Notification Server
D. Site Services
Answer: C

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NO.6 Refer to the Exhibit.
An administrator is attempting to set up a replication rule. When the administrator right-clicks the
replication folder, the menu in the exhibit appears. What does the administrator need to do to
create a replication rule?
A. enable Replication
B. access one of the Replication subfolders
C. access the resource and select Replicate Now
D. create a subfolder and access it there
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which two tabs are used to modify security roles in the Symantec Management Console?
(Select two.)
A. Permissions
B. Privileges
C. Rights
D. Security
E. Membership
Answer: B,E

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NO.8 What must an administrator do to edit a sample task?
A. Clone the sample task and edit the original task
B. Right-click and select the task's properties
C. Clone the source folder of the sample
D. Clone the sample task and edit the clone
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 251-312
Exam Name: Admin of Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers
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NO.1 Which three versions of Microsoft SQL does Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers support?
(Choose three.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server Desktop Edition (MSDE) 2000
B. Microsoft SQL 2005 Express Edition
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 SP2
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 SP3a or later
E. Microsoft SQL Server 7.0
F. Microsoft SQL 2005
Answer: BDF

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NO.2 A medium-sized paper company with several remote offices deploys Symantec Backup Exec 12 for
Windows Servers Central Admin Server Option (CASO) in their data center. The company's SLA requires
that the backup environment be restored to an alternate location in the event of a data center outage.
Which CASO catalog location option meets this company's SLA?
A. Centralized Catalog
B. Distributed Catalog
C. Replicated Catalog
D. Exported Catalog
Answer: C

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NO.3 A global company must use a "follow-the-sun" backup strategy, which means that the backup servers
are constantly performing backups. The SLA requires that both DHCP and Active Directory remain
available.
Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component is required in order to meet the SLA?
A. Data Protection Option
B. Advanced Open File Option
C. Central Admin Server Option
D. Agent for Enterprise Vault Option
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component manages devices and media?
A. Advanced Device and Media Manager
B. Media Operations Manager
C. Enterprise Media Manager
D. Advanced Tape Device Manager
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which two Calendar Schedule settings can you use to schedule a job to run on the first and fifteenth of
every month? (Choose two.)
A. Specific Dates
B. Recurring Week Days
C. Recurring Days of the Month
D. Day Interval
E. Time Window
Answer: AC

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NO.6 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers agent/option provides Microsoft Virtual Server
support?
A. Shadow Copy
B. Virtual Machine
C. System State
D. Remote Agent
Answer: D

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NO.7 Refer to the Exhibit.
Which method provides the most current restore point?
A. tape replication
B. tape backup
C. system rebuild
D. system deduplication
Answer: B

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NO.8 What does the Backup Exec Environment Check utility verify to ensure that the installation process can
complete successfully? (Choose two.)
A. Is a previous version of Backup Exec installed?
B. Is there enough storage space for disk-based backups?
C. Is an SMTP Server available?
D. Are there Microsoft SQL database account privileges?
E. Are there sufficient logon account privileges?
Answer: AE

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NO.1 A user requests the restore of files from the backup of a different server. The administrator performs a
redirected restore to the user's folder. Which "Restore site list and item level permissions" option must the
administrator select so the user can use the restored files?
A. restore only the NTFS permissions
B. restore files with the NTFS permissions of the destination folder
C. restore files without their NTFS permissions
D. restore files with their NTFS partitions
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which two behaviors of the Symantec Backup Exec 2012 Agent for Applications and Databases apply
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A. It is installed as a separate add-on component.
B. Windows Active Directory database can be backed up while online.
C. It is a system service that runs on remote Windows servers where active directory is installed.
D. Granular restore of individual Active Directory objects and attributes is unsupported.
E. It requires Agent for Windows to be running on the domain controller.
Answer: B,E

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NO.3 An administrator needs to restore a mailbox to an Exchange 2010 Database Availability Group. Which
server must have an installed Agent for Windows in order to restore from a GRT enabled backup of
Exchange?
A. the Edge Transport server
B. the Active Mailbox server
C. the Client Access server
D. the Passive Mailbox server
Answer: C

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NO.4 A backup job failed with an access denied error message. Which option in the backup job property can
be used to set the correct permissions?
A. verify credentials
B. user account credentials
C. validate credentials
D. test/edit credentials
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which Symantec Backup Exec 2012 default global scheduling option allows jobs to be cancelled
without manual intervention?
A. job auto cancel after 'x' hours after its scheduled start time
B. kill the job if it is still running 'x' hours after its scheduled start time
C. terminate the job if it is still running 'x' hours if no data has incremented
D. cancel the job if it is still running 'x' hours after its scheduled start time
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which tool should be used to collect debug logs for a failing backup of a remote server.?
A. BEUtility.exe
B. Ramcmd.exe
C. VxMon.exe
D. SGMon.exe
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which two options are supported by the Checkpoint Restart feature of Symantec Backup Exec 2012?
(Select two.)
A. FAT32 volumes
B. NTFS volumes
C. Linux computers
D. Cluster Shared Volumes (CSV)
E. VSS
Answer: B,E

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NO.8 Which Symantec Backup Exec 2012 troubleshooting tool should an end user use before contacting
Symantec for additional support?
A. VxGather
B. Collect Debug Output
C. Symantec Backup Exec Support Tool
D. BEDiag
Answer: C

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NO.1 Lifeline Supply Company wants to reduce or eliminatethe HelpDesk callsthey receivedue to end users
modifying, moving, or deleting configuration files.
Which component of Symantec Endpoint Protection will allow the IT administrator to prevent users from
altering configuration files?
A. TruScan ProactiveThreat Scan
B. Device Control
C. Application Control
D. Host Integrity
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is one reason for disabling learned applications?
A. Learned applications can often expose usernames and passwords.
B. Learned applications require promiscuous mode.
C. Learned applications are often legitimate programs.
D. Learned applications are illegal in some countries.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Refer to the exhibit.
Inheritance is turned on for groups LLSCO, Group A, Laptops, and Group 2 (outlined).
Without turning inheritance off, which top level group must be modified to affect users in the Laptop
group?
A. Desktops
B. Laptops
C. Group 1
D. Group A
Answer: C

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NO.4 A company has a large sales force who travel with laptops. They want to block USB
access on the laptops when they are disconnected from the corporate network.
Which two things are required to achievethis? (Choose two.)
A. multiple sites
B. multiple locations
C. firewall policy
D. device control policy
E. host integrity policy
Answer: BD

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NO.5 THE DISCLOSURE TO YOU OF THIS EXAMINATION ("THE EXAM") AND ANY
ACCOMPANYING EXAMINATION MATERIALS AND ANY DERIVATIVES THEREOF
(COLLECTIVELY REFERRED TO AS THE "EXAM MATERIALS") IS SUBJECT TO THE
TERMSAND CONDITIONS OF THE SYMANTEC CORPORATION CONFIDENTIALITY
AGREEMENT PROVIDED HEREIN. BY CLICKING ON THE "START" BUTTON IN
RESPONSE TO THE ACCEPTANCE QUERY, OR BY OTHERWISE TAKING THE
EXAMINATION, YOU ARE CONSENTING TO BE BOUND BY THIS AGREEMENT. BY
CLICKING ON THE "EXIT" BUTTON, YOU CHOOSE NOT TO AGREE AND WILL BE LET OUT OF THE
EXAM.
IF THESE TERMSARE CONSIDERED AN OFFER, ACCEPTANCE IS EXPRESSLY
LIMITED TO THESE TERMS.
SYMANTEC CORPORATION CONFIDENTIALITY AGREEMENT
This is an agreement ("Agreement") between You and Symantec Corporation that sets forth the terms and
conditions of your use and disclosure of the Exam Materials.
You hereby understand, acknowledge, and agree:
1.That Symantec Corporation spends substantial sums of time and money in developing and
administering its Exam Materials and labs and carefully guards their integrity and
confidentiality;
2.That the questions and answers of the Exam are the exclusiveand confidential property of Symantec
Corporation and are protected by Symantec Corporation's intellectual property rights;
3.That You may not disclose the Exam questions or answers or discuss any of the content of the Exam
Materials with any person, without prior written approval of Symantec Corporation;
4.Not toremovefromtheexamination roomany ExamMaterialsof any kind providedto Youor
any other material related to the Exam, including, without limitation, any notes or calculations;
5.Not to copy or attempt to make copies (written, photocopied, or otherwise) of any Exam
Material, including, without limitation, any exam questions or answers;
6.Not to sell, license, distribute, giveaway, or obtain from any other source other Symantec
Corporation the Exam materials, questions or answers.
You hereby acknowledge and agree that violation of any of these provisions will cause
irreparable harm to Symantec Corporation for which monetary remedies may be inadequate, and that
Symantec Corporation shall be entitled, without waiving any other rights or remedies, to take all
appropriate actions to remedy or prevent such disclosure or misuse, including obtaining an immediate
injunction. Neither this Agreement nor any right granted hereunder shallbe assignable or otherwise
transferableby You. ThisAgreement maybe modifiedonlyby a writing signed by both parties. This
Agreement shall be construed in accordance with the laws of the State of California, without giving effect
to any choice of law rule. This Agreement represents the entire Agreement of the parties hereto pertaining
to the subject matter of this Agreement, and supersedes any and all prior oral discussions and/or written
correspondence or agreements between the parties with respect thereto. If you ACCEPT the termsand
conditions of this Agreement, click 'Yes, I agree.', and begin this exam. If you DO NOT ACCEPT this
Agreement, you must click 'No, I do not agree.', and will not be able to proceed with this exam.
Answer. pending

NO.6 Which Network Threat Protection technologies of the SymantecEndpoint Protection client provide the
primary protection layers against network attacks?
A. ProactiveThreat Protection and Network Access Control
B. ProactiveThreat Protection and Client Firewall
C. Intrusion Prevention and Client Firewall
D. Client Firewall and Network Access Control
Answer: C

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NO.7 What are the three configurable actions in TruScan ProactiveThreat Scan? (Choose three.)
A. log suspect process only
B. set a public SNMP trap
C. quarantine suspect process
D. terminate the suspect process
E. generate dump of system state
F. suspend the suspect process
Answer: ACD

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NO.8 The Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager supports the use of which database solutions?
(Choose two.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server 2000
B. MySQL Server 2005
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
D. Oracle Database 11g
E. Oracle Database 9i
Answer: AC

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Exam Name: Symantec Data Loss Prevention 10.5 (STS)
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NO.1 Which two alert category types can be disabled? (Choose two.)
A. Warning alerts
B. Attention Required alerts
C. Error alerts
D. E-mail Failure alerts
E. Informational alerts
Answer: AE

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NO.2 Which compression type produces the least network traffic in a multi-server backup environment?
A. compression with de-duplication
B. software compression
C. hardware compression
D. compression with encryption
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two Calendar Schedule settings can you use to schedule a job to run on the first and fifteenth of
every month? (Choose two.)
A. Specific Dates
B. Recurring Week Days
C. Recurring Days of the Month
D. Day Interval
E. Time Window
Answer: AC

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NO.4 Which three versions of Microsoft SQL does Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers support?
(Choose three.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server Desktop Edition (MSDE) 2000
B. Microsoft SQL 2005 Express Edition
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 SP2
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 SP3a or later
E. Microsoft SQL Server 7.0
F. Microsoft SQL 2005
Answer: BDF

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NO.5 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component manages devices and media?
A. Advanced Device and Media Manager
B. Media Operations Manager
C. Enterprise Media Manager
D. Advanced Tape Device Manager
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which two Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Server agents/options support remote installation
from an existing media server? (Choose two.)
A. Active Directory Recovery Agent
B. Advanced Open File Option
C. Desktop and Laptop Option
D. Library Expansion Option
E. Shared Storage Option
Answer: BC

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NO.7 Refer to the exhibit.
Annual accounting history must be archived for 120 days and marketing history must be archived for 90
days.
Which setting allows reporting for marketing and accounting history?
A. change Keep alert history to 90 days
B. change Keep job logs to 120 days
C. change Keep job history selection for keep job history to match current OPP
D. change Keep job history for selected number of days to 120
Answer: C

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NO.8 What does the Backup Exec Environment Check utility verify to ensure that the installation process can
complete successfully? (Choose two.)
A. Is a previous version of Backup Exec installed?
B. Is there enough storage space for disk-based backups?
C. Is an SMTP Server available?
D. Are there Microsoft SQL database account privileges?
E. Are there sufficient logon account privileges?
Answer: AE

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