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NO.1 Which files should be acquired from a Windows 2003 Server system crash with a Dr.
Watson error?
A. drwtsn32.log
B. vmcore.log
C. core.log
D. memory.log
E. info.log
Answer: A

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NO.2 VPN debugging information is written to which of the following files?
A. FWDIR/log/ahttpd.elg
B. FWDIR/log/fw.elg
C. $FWDIR/log/ike.elg
D. FWDIR/log/authd.elg
E. FWDIR/log/vpn.elg
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which statement is true for route based VPNs?
A. IP Pool NAT must be configured on each gateway
B. Route-based VPNs replace domain-based VPNs
C. Route-based VPNs are a form of partial overlap VPN Domain
D. Packets are encrypted or decrypted automatically
E. Dynamic-routing protocols are not required
Answer: E

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NO.4 Which file provides the data for the host_table output, and is responsible for keeping a
record of all
internal IPs passing through the internal interfaces of a restricted hosts licensed Security
Gateway?
A. hosts.h
B. external.if
C. hosts
D. fwd.h
E. fwconn.h
Answer: D

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NO.5 You modified the *def file on your Security Gateway, but the changes were not applied.
Why?
A. There is more than one *.def file on the Gateway.
B. You did not have the proper authority.
C. *.def files must be modified on the SmartCenter Server.
D. The *.def file on the Gateway is read-only.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Assume you have a rule allowing HTTP traffic, on port 80, to a specific Web server in a
Demilitarized Zone (DMZ). If an external host port scans the Web server's IP address, what
information
will be revealed?
A. Nothing; the NGX Security Server automatically block all port scans.
B. All ports are open on the Security Server.
C. All ports are open on the Web server.
D. The Web server's file structure is revealed.
E. Port 80 is open on the Web server.
Answer: E

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NO.7 Which of the following types of information should an Administrator use tcpdump to
view?
A. DECnet traffic analysis
B. VLAN trunking analysis
C. NAT traffic analysis
D. Packet-header analysis
E. AppleTalk traffic analysis
Answer: D

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NO.8 NGX Wire Mode allows:
A. Peer gateways to establish a VPN connection automatically from predefined preshared
secrets.
B. Administrators to verify that each VPN-1 SecureClient is properly configured, before
allowing it access
to the protected domain.
C. Peer gateways to fail over existing VPN traffic, by avoiding Stateful Inspection.
D. Administrators to monitor VPN traffic for troubleshooting purposes.
E. Administrators to limit the number of simultaneous VPN connections, to reduce the traffic
load passing
through a Security Gateway.
Answer: C

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NO.1 How can you most quickly reset Secure Internal Communications (SIC) between a
Security
Management Server and Security Gateway?
A. Run the command fwm sic-reset to initialize the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) of the
Security
Management Server. Then retype the activation key on the Security Gateway from
SmartDashboard.
B. Use SmartDashboard to retype the activation key on the Security Gateway. This will
automatically
Sync SIC to both the Security Management Server and Gateway.
C. From cpconfig on the Gateway, choose the Secure Internal Communication option and
retype the
activation key. Next, retype the same key in the Gateway object in SmartDashboard and
reinitialize
Secure Internal Communications (SIC).
D. From the Security Management Server s command line, Type fw putkey p <shared key> <
IP Address
of security Gateway>.
Answer: C

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NO.2 The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows 2003
server as the
SmartConsole and a second server running SecurePlatform as both Security Management
Server and
the Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):
A. Unsupported configuration.
B. Hybrid Installation.
C. Distributed Installation.
D. Stand-Alone Installation.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following statements is TRUE about management plug-ins?
A. The plug-in is a package installed on the Security Gateway.
B. A management plug-in interacts with a Security Management Server to provide new
features and
support for new products.
C. Using a plug-in offers full central management only if special licensing is applied to
specific features of
the plug-in.
D. Installing a management plug-in is just like an upgrade process. (It overwrites existing
components.)
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which SmartConsole component can Administrators use to track remote administrative
activities?
A. WebUI
B. Eventia Reporter
C. SmartView Monitor
D. SmartView Tracker
Answer: D

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NO.5 During which step in the installation process is it necessary to note the fingerprint for
first-time
verification?
A. When establishing SIC between the Security Management Server and the Gateway
B. When configuring the Security Management Server using cpconfig
C. When configuring the Security Gateway object in SmartDashboard
D. When configuring the Gateway in the WebUl
Answer: B

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NO.6 The customer has a small Check Point installation, which includes one Linux
Enterprise 3.0 server
working as the SmartConsole, and a second server running Windows 2003 as both Security
Management
Server running Windows 2003 as both Security Management Server and Security Gateway.
This is an
example of a(n).
A. Stand-Alone Installation
B. Distributed Installation
C. Hybrid Installation
D. Unsupported configuration
Answer: D

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NO.7 You are running the Security Gateway on SecurePlatform and configure SNX with
default settings. The
client fails to connect to the Security Gateway. What is wrong?
A. The routing table on the client does not get modified.
B. The client has Active-X blocked.
C. The client is configured incorrectly.
D. The SecurePlatform Web User Interface is listening on port 443.
Answer: D

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NO.8 When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management
Server with which
other Check Point architecture component?
A. SecureClient
B. Security Gateway
C. SmartConsole
D. None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself
Answer: B

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NO.1 What is the primary benefit of using the command upgrade_export over either backup or
snapshot?
A. The commands backup and snapshot can take a long time to run whereas upgrade_export will
take a much shorter amount of time.
B. upgrade_export will back up routing tables, hosts files, and manual ARP configurations, where
backup and snapshot will not.
C. upgrade_export has an option to back up the system and SmartView Tracker logs while backup
and snapshot will not.
D. upgrade_export is operating system independent and can be used when backup or snapshot is
not available.
Answer: D

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NO.2 In order to have full control, you decide to use Manual NAT entries instead of Automatic NAT
rules. Which of the following is NOT true?
A. When using Static NAT, you must enter ARP entries for the Gateway on all hosts that are using the
NAT Gateway with that Gateway's internal interface IP address.
B. When using Static NAT, you must add proxy ARP entries to the Gateway for all hiding addresses.
C. If you chose Automatic NAT instead, all necessary entries are done for you.
D. When using Dynamic Hide NAT with an address that is not configured on a Gateway interface,
you need to add a proxy ARP entry for that address.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which component functions as the Internal Certificate Authority for R76?
A. Security Gateway
B. Management Server
C. Policy Server
D. SmartLSM
Answer: B

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NO.4 A digital signature:
A. Provides a secure key exchange mechanism over the Internet.
B. Automatically exchanges shared keys.
C. Guarantees the authenticity and integrity of a message.
D. Decrypts data to its original form.
Answer: C

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NO.5 For which service is it NOT possible to configure user authentication?
A. FTP
B. Telnet
C. HTTPS
D. SSH
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following methods will provide the most complete backup of an R75
configuration?
A. Execute command upgrade_export
B. Database Revision Control
C. Policy Package Management
D. Copying the directories $FWDIR\conf and $CPDIR\conf to another server
Answer: A

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NO.7 In SmartDashboard, Translate destination on client side is checked in Global Properties. When
Network Address Translation is used:
A. VLAN tagging cannot be defined for any hosts protected by the Gateway.
B. The Security Gateway's ARP file must be modified.
C. It is not necessary to add a static route to the Gateway's routing table.
D. It is necessary to add a static route to the Gateway's routing table.
Answer: C

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NO.8 How do you configure the Security Policy to provide user access to the Captive Portal
through an external (Internet) interface?
A. Change the Identity Awareness settings under Global Properties to allow Captive Portal access on
all interfaces.
B. Change the Identity Awareness settings under Global Properties to allow Captive Portal access for
an external interface.
C. Change the gateway settings to allow Captive Portal access via an external interface.
D. No action is necessary. This access is available by default.
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which of the following statement is true regarding SmartEvent Intro? SmartEvent Intro:
A. requires no license, only a contract
B. has been discontinued
C. is free, and therefore requires no license
D. only view events from one blade
Answer: D

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NO.2 Who is best able to provide the justification for allowing access to some higher risk
applications?
A. The Help Desk
B. The Security Administrator
C. The User
D. The Group Manager
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following actions applies to a Risk Level of 3 - Medium?
A. Potentially not business related
B. Can cause data leakage or malware infection without user knowledge
C. Can be misused and cause data leakage or malware infection
D. Can bypass security or hide identities
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following actions applies to a Risk Level of 1 - Very Low?
A. Can cause data leakage or malware infection without user knowledge
B. Can bypass security or hide identities
C. Potentially not business related
D. Usually business related, with low risk
Answer: D

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C. YouTube
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B. Can bypass security or hide identities
C. Potentially not business related
D. Can be misused and cause data leakage or malware infection
Answer: A

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B. Can bypass security or hide identities
C. Can be misused and cause data leakage or malware infection
D. Can cause data leakage or malware infection without user knowledge
Answer: A

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C. Can be misused and cause data leakage or malware infection
D. Can cause data leakage or malware infection without user knowledge
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which of these statements describes the Check Point IPS software blade?
A. Blocks or limits usage of web applications
B. A worldwide collaborative security network
C. Prevents vulnerability exploits
D. Controls access to web sites based on category
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the minimum amount of RAM needed for a Threat Prevention Appliance?
A. 4 GB
B. It depends on the number of software blades enabled.
C. 2 GB with GAiA in 32-bit mode, 4 GB with GAiA in 64-bit mode
D. 6 GB
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of these is a Check Point Firewall attribute?
A. Malicious P2P application protection
B. Buffer overflow prevention
C. Worm injection blocking
D. Granular access control
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which software blades are characteristic to a Threat Prevention Appliance?
A. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, IPS, Identity Awareness
B. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, IPS, URL Filtering, Identity Awareness
C. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, IPS, Application Control, URL Filtering, Identity Awareness
D. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, IPS, URL Filtering, Identity Awareness, SmartEvent
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which TCP ports allow LDAP users to communicate with the Account Unit?
A. 689 clear, or 336 encrypted
B. 636 clear, or 389 encrypted
C. 336 clear, or 689 encrypted
D. 389 clear, or 636 encrypted
Answer: D

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NO.6 Check Point Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) is available in two deployment methods, as a
blade and also a dedicated appliance. What is the dedicated appliance called?
A. InterSpect Appliance
B. IPS-1 Sensor
C. Smart-1 Appliance
D. Power-1 Appliance
Answer: B

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NO.7 Can the Anti-Bot software blade be enabled on a Secure Web Gateway as well?
A. Yes, this is an optional blade for the Secure Web Gateway.
B. No, Anti-Bot needs to be part of the Threat Prevention Appliance.
C. Yes, it can be enabled if IPS is enabled as well.
D. Yes, Anti-Bot is always enabled together with Identity Awareness.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of these statements describes the Check Point ThreatCloud?
A. A worldwide collaborative security network
B. Prevents vulnerability exploits
C. Controls access to web sites based on category
D. Blocks or limits usage of web applications
Answer: A

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NO.1 In ClusterXL, which of the following are defined by default as critical devices?
A.Security Policy status
B.fw.d
C.protect.exe
D.PROT_SRV.EXE
Answer:A

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NO.2 A security audit has determined that your unpatched web application server is revealing the fact that it
accesses a SQL server. You believe that you have enabled the proper SmartDefense setting but would
like to verify this fact using SmartView Tracker. Which of the following entries confirms the proper blocking
of this leaked information to an attacker?
A."Fingerprint Scrambling: Changed [SQL] to [Perl]"
B."HTTP response spoofing: remove signature [SQL Server]"
C."Concealed HTTP response [SQL Server]. (Error Code WSE0160003)"
D."ASCII Only Response Header detected: SQL"
Answer:C

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NO.3 When launching SmartDashboard, what information is required to log into VPN-1 NGX R65?
A.User Name, Password, SmartCenter Server IP
B.User Name, SmartCenter Server IP, certificate fingerprint file
C.Password, SmartCenter Server IP, LDAP Server
D.Password, SmartCenter Server IP
Answer:B

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NO.4 When a user selects to allow Hotspot, SecureClient modifies the Desktop Security Policy and/or Hub
Mode routing to enable Hotspot registration. Which of the following is NOT true concerning this
modification?
A.The modification is restricted by time.
B.The number of IP addresses accessed is not restricted.
C.IP addresses accessed during registration are recorded.
D.Ports accessed during registration are recorded.
Answer:B

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NO.5 How do you block some seldom-used FTP commands, such as CWD, and FIND from passing through
the Gateway?
A.Use FTP Security Server settings in SmartDefense.
B.Add the restricted commands to the aftpd.conf file in the SmartCenter Server.
C.Configure the restricted FTP commands in the Security Servers screen of the Global properties.
D.Enable FTP Bounce checking in SmartDefense.
Answer:A

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NO.6 Which operating system is not supported by SecureClient?
A.MacOS X
B.Windows XP SP2
C.Windows 2003 Professional
D.IPSO 3.9
Answer:D

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NO.7 When configuring VPN High Availability (HA) with MEP, which of the following is correct?
A.The decision on which MEP Security Gateway to use is made on the remote gateway's side (non-MEP
side).
B.MEP Gateways must be managed by the same SmartCenter Server.
C.MEP VPN Gateways cannot be geographically separated machines.
D.If one Gateway fails, the synchronized connection fails over to another Gateway and the connection
continues.
Answer:A

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NO.8 When upgrading to NGX R65, which Check Point products do not require a license upgrade to be
current?
A.None, all versions require a license upgrade
B.VPN-1 NGX (R64) and later
C.VPN-1 NGX (R60) and later
D.VPN-1 NG with Application Intelligence (R54) and later
Answer:C

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NO.1 Ann is a VPN-1/FireWall-1 Security Administrator. Her organization's solution for remote-access
security is SecureClient. Ann's organization is undergoing a security audit. The auditor is concerned,
because static passwords, such as VPN-1 & FireWall-1 and operating system passwords are cached on
the desktop, and users are not required to re-authenticate. Which of the following explanations addresses
the auditor's concerns?
A. The auditor has incorrect information. SecureClient caches all passwords. A strong encryption
algorithm
protects the proprietary database used for password caching, so there is never a need to purge cached
passwords.
B. The auditor has incorrect information. SecureClient never cached passwords. SecureClient users are
forced
to re-authenticate for each new connection, regardless of the type of password used.
C. Cached passwords are purged when SecureClient receives Policy and Topology updates. Most
installation
update Security Policies frequently, so cached passwords are rarely stored for longer than six to eight
hours.
Renaming the userc.C file to userc.old will also purge the password cache.
D. Cached passwords are purged at an interval specified in the Desktop Security Policy. As long as the
user.C
file is encrypted, users cannot tamper with the interval setting. The interval time is in seconds from the
time to
SecureClient software is launched.
E. Cached passwords are purged when SecureClient is stopped, when a connect mode is disconnected,
and
when the computer is rebooted. SecureClient users can manually purge the cache, by choosing the Erase
Passwords option from the Passwords menu.
Answer: E

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NO.2 When you upgrade VPN-1/FireWall-1, what components are carried over to the new
version? (Choose two)
A. Licenses
B. VPN-1/FireWall-1 database
C. OPSEC database
D. Backward Compatibility
E. Rule Base
Answer: A, B

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NO.3 Which of the following is NOT a method used to configure SIP?
A. With SIP Proxies.
B. With a SIP Gatekeeper to a network without a proxy.
C. From a network without a proxy to a network with a proxy.
D. With a proxy for internal communications.
E. Without SIP Proxies.
Answer: B

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NO.4 The
_______ algorithm determines the load of each physical server and requires a Load Measuring
Agent be installed on each server.
A. Server Load
B. Server Relay
C. Round Robin
D. Domain
E. Round Trip
Answer: A

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NO.5 Mark is preparing to install VPN-1/FireWall-1 and has created the installation plan below.
1. Perform the following operations below in sequential order.
2. Install the operating system.
3. Configure routing and IP forwarding.
4. Configure name resolution.
5. Patch the operating system.
6. Set $FWDIR and $CPDIR environment variables.
7. Install VPN-1/FireWall-1.
8. Patch VPN-1/FireWall-1,
Which step in Mark's installation plan is NOT necessary?
A. Operating-system patches should not be applied, until after VPN-1/FireWall-1 is installed. Applying
operating-system patches before VPN-1/FireWall-1 is installed will result in an unsecured system.
B. VPN-1/FireWall-1 configures name resolution automatically. Name resolution should not be part of the
installation plan.
C. There is nothing wrong with Mark's installation plan.
D.
Routing and IP Forwarding should be configured after VPN-1/FireWall-1 is installed. Configuring routing
and
IP forwarding before VPN-1/FireWall-1 is installed will result in an unstable system.
E. VPN-1/FireWall-1 configures environment variables automatically. Configure environment variables
should
not be part of the installation plan.
Answer: E

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NO.6 Ken us assisting a user whose SecurityClient password has expired. The SecureClient user can no
longer
access resources in the VPN Domain. Which of the following solutions is likely to resolve the issue?
A. Ken must ask the VPN-1/FireWall-1 Security Administrator to change the setting Password Expires to a
date
in the future. Users cannot adjust their SecureClient passwords.
B. Ken should as the user to change his password, using the New Password option on SecureClient's
Passwords
menu. The user can change his password, then stop and start SecureClient.
C. If the SecureClient password is allowed to expire, the software will no longer function. Ken should help
the
user uninstall and reinstall SecureClient. The user will be prompted to supply a new password during
installation.
D. When the SecureClient password expires while a session is in progress, the session will not exit
properly.
Ken should ask the user to shut down and restart his computer. The user will be prompted to supply a
new
password after login.
E. The user must edit the userc.C file, to change the expiration date on his password. Ken should help the
user
make the necessary modifications to the userc.C file, using a text editor that does not insert Unicode
characters.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Diffie-Hellman uses which type of key exchange?
A. Static
B. Dynamic
C. Symmetric
D. Asymmetric
E. Adaptive
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following statements about IKE Encryption are TRUE? (Choose three
)
A. The final packet size is increased after it is encrypted.
B. TCP and IP headers are encrypted, along with the payload.
C. IKE uses in-place encryption.
D. IKE can use the FWZ1 encryption algorithm.
E. IKE uses tunneling encryption.
Answer: A, B, E

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NO.1 Once you have installed Secure Internal Communcations (SIC) for a host-node
object and issued a certificate for it. Which of the following can you perform?
Choose two.
A. Rename the object
B. Rename the certificate
C. Edit the object properties
D. Rest SIC
E. Edit the object type
Answer: A, C

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NO.2 Which of the following statements about Client Authentication is FALSE?
A. In contrast to User Authentication that allows access per user. Client Authentication
allows access per IP address.
B. Client Authentication is more secure than User Authentication, because it allows
multiple users and connections from an authorized IP address or host.
C. Client Authentication enables Security Administrators to grant access privileges to a
specific IP address, after successful authentication.
D. Authentication is by user name and password, but it is the host machine (client) that is
granted access.
E. Client Authentication is not restricted to a limited set of protocols.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What function does the Audit mode of SmartView Tracker perform?
A. It tracks detailed information about packets traversing the Enforcement Modules.
B. It maintains a detailed log of problems with VPN-1/FireWall-1 services on the
SmartCenter Server.
C. It is used to maintain a record of the status of each Enforcement Module and
SmartCenter server.
D. It maintains a detailed record of status of each Enforcement Module and SmartCenter
Server.
E. It tracks changes and Security Policy installations, per Security Administrator,
performed in SmartDashboard.
Answer: E

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NO.4 You are a Security Administrator attempting to license a distributed
VPN-1/Firwall-1 configuration with three Enforcement Modules and one
SmartCenter Server. Which license type is the BEST for your deployemenet?
A. Discretionary
B. Remote
C. Central
D. Local
E. Mandatory
Answer: C

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NO.5 In the SmartView Tracker, what is the difference between the FireWall-1 and
VPN-1 queries? Choose three.
A. A VPN-1 query only displays encrypted and decrypted traffic.
B. A FireWall-1 query displays all traffic matched by rules, which have logging
activated.
C. A FireWall-1 query displays all traffic matched by all rules.
D. A FireWall-1 query also displays encryption and decryption information.
E. Implied rules, when logged, are viewed using the VPN-1 query.
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.6 What are the advantages of central licensing? Choose three.
A. Only the IP address of a SmartCenter Server is needed for all licences.
B. A central licence can be removed from one Enforcement Module, and installe don
another Enforcement Module.
C. Only the IP address of an Enforcement Module is needed for all licences.
D. A central license remains valid, when you change the IP address of an Enforcemente
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E. A central license can be converted into a local license.
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.7 Network attacks attempt to exploit vulnerabilities in network applications, rather
than targeting firewalls directly.
What does this require of today's firewalls?
A. Firewalls should provide network-level protection, by inspecting packets all layers of
the OSI model.
B. Firewall should not inspect traffic below the Application Layer of the OSI model,
because such inspection is no longer relevant.
C. Firewalls should understand application behavior, to protect against application
attacks and hazards.
D. Firewalls should provide separate proxy processes for each application accessed
through the firewall.
E. Firewalls should be installed on all Web servers, behind organizations' intranet.
Answer: C

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NO.8 You are a Security Administrator preparing to implement Hide NAT. You must
justify your decision. Which of the following statements justifies implementing a
Hide NAT solution? Choose two.
A. You have more internal hosts than public IP addresses
B. Your organization requires internal hosts, with RFC 1918-compliant addresses to be
assessable from the Internet.
C. Internally, your organization uses an RFC 1918-compliant addressing scheme.
D. Your organization does not allow internal hosts to access Internet resources
E. Internally, you have more public IP addresses than hosts.
Answer: A, C

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NO.1 VPN communities

NO.2 SmartView Tracker audit logs

NO.3 Implied Rules

NO.4 SIC certificates

NO.5 Gateway licenses
A.3, 4, 5, 6, 9, 12, 13
B.5, 6, 9, 12, 13
C.1, 2, 8, 10, 11
D.2, 4, 7, 10, 11
Answer: B

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3. You believe Phase 2 negotiations are failing while you are attempting to configure a site-to-site VPN
with one of your firm's business partners.Which SmartConsole application should you use to confirm your
suspicions?
A.SmartDashboard
B.SmartView Tracker
C.SmartUpdate
D.SmartView Status
Answer: C

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4. You are running a R71 Security Gateway on SecurePlatform, in case of a hardware failure.You have a
server with the exact same hardware and firewall version Installed.What backup method could be used to
quickly put the secondary firewall into production?
A.Upgrade_export
B.Manual backup
C.Snapshot
D.Backup
Answer: C

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5. Your company is still using traditional mode VPN configuration on all Gateways and policies.Your
manager now requires you to migrate to a simplified VPN policy to benefit from the new features.
This needs to be done with no downtime due to critical applications which must run constantly.How would
you start such a migration?
A.This cannot be done without downtime as a VPN between a traditional mode Gateway and a simplified
mode Gateway does not work.
B.You first need to completely rewrite all policies in simplified mode and then push this new policy to all
Gateways at the same time.
C.This can not be done as it requires a SIC- reset on the Gateways first forcing an outage.
D.Convert the required Gateway policies using the simplified VPN wizard, check their logic and then
migrate Gateway per Gateway.
Answer: D

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6. What physical machine must have access to the User Center public IP address when checking for new
packages with smartUpdate?
A.SmartUpdate GUI PC
B.SmartUpdate Repository SQL database Server
C.A Security Gateway retrieving the new upgrade package
D.SmartUpdate installed Security Management Server PC
Answer: A

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7. In SmartView Tracker, which rule shows when a packet is dropped due to anti-spoofing?
A.Blank field under Rule Number
B.Rule 0
C.Cleanup Rule
D.Rule 1
Answer: B

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8. The URL Filtering Policy can be configured to monitor URLs in order to:
A.Log sites from blocked categories.
B.Redirect users to a new URL.
C.Block sites only once.
D.Alert the Administrator to block a suspicious site.
Answer: A

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9. The Customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows XP workstation as
SmartConsole, one Solaris server working as security Management Server, and a third server running
SecurePlatform as Security Gateway.This is an Example of a (n):
A.Stand-Alone Installation.
B.Unsupported configuration
C.Distributed Installation
D.Hybrid Installation.
Answer: C

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10. You want to implement Static Destination NAT in order to provide external, Internet users access to an
internal Webserver that has a reserved (RFC 1918) IP address You have an unused valid IP address on
the network between your Security Gateway and ISP router.You control the router that sits between the
external interface of the firewall and the Internet.What is an alternative configuration if proxy ARP cannot
be used on your Security Gateway?
A.Place a static host route on the firewall for the valid IP address to the internal Web server.
B.Place a static ARP entry on the ISP router for the valid IP address to the firewall s external address.
C.Publish a proxy ARP entry on the ISP router instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
D.Publish a proxy ARP entry on the internal Web server instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
Answer: B

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11. The third-shift Administrator was updating Security Management Server access settings in global
properties.He managed to lock all of the administrators out of their accounts.How should you unlock these
accounts?
A.Login to SmartDashboard as the special cpconfig_admin user account, right click on administrator
object and select Unlock.
B.Type fwm lock_admin -ua from the command line of the Security Manager server.
C.Reinstall the Security Management Server and restore using upgrade_import.
D.Delete the file admin.lock in the $fwDIR/tmp/ directory of the Security Management server.
Answer: B

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12. You find a suspicious connection from a problematic host.You decide that you want to block everything
from that whole network, not just the problematic host.You want to block this for an hour while you
investigate further, but you do not want to add any rules to the Rule Base.How do you achieve this?
A.Add a °t e mpor ar ¡± rule usi ng Smar t Dashboard and sel ect hi de ru.
B.Create a Suspicious Activity Rule in SmartView Monitor
C.Use dbedit to script the addition of a rule directly into the Rule Bases_5_0.fws configuration file.
D.Select block intruder from the tools menu in SmartView Tracker.
Answer: B

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13. The Check Point Security Gateway's virtual machine (kernel) exists between which two layers of the
OSI model?
A.Session and Network layers
B.Application and Presentation layers
C.Physical and Data link layers
D.Network and Data link layers
Answer: D

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NO.6 Phase 1 uses________.
A.Conditional
B.Sequential
C.Asymmetric
D.Symmetric
Answer: C

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NO.7 Secure Platform WebUI Users

NO.8 If you check the box Use Aggressive Mode in the IKE Properties dialog box, the standard:
A.three-packet IKE Phase 2 exchange Is replaced by a six-packet exchange
B.three-packet IKE Phase 2 exchange is replaced by a two-packet exchange
C.six-packet IKE Phase 1 exchange is replaced by a three-packet exchange
D.three-packet IKE Phase 1 exchange is replaced by a six-packet exchange
Answer: C

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NO.1 Exhibit:
KillTest tries to configure Directional VPN Rule Match in the Rule Base. But the
Match column does not have the option to see the Directional Match. KillTest sees
the screen displayed in the exhibit.
What is the problem?
A. Jack must enable directional_match(true) in the object_5_0.c file on SmartCenter server.
B. Jack must enable Advanced Routing on each Security Gateway
C. Jack must enable VPN Directional Match on the VPN Advanced screen, in Global properties.
D. Jack must enable a dynamic-routing protocol, such as OSPF, on the Gateways.
E. Jack must enable VPN Directional Match on the gateway object's VPN tab.
Answer: C

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NO.2 You want only RAS signals to pass through H.323 Gatekeeper and other H.323
protocols, passing directly between end points. Which routing mode in the VoIP
Domain Gatekeeper do you select?
A. Direct
B. Direct and Call Setup
C. Call Setup
D. Call Setup and Call Control
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which operating system is NOT supported by VPN-1 SecureClient?
A. IPSO 3.9
B. Windows XP SP2
C. Windows 2000 Professional
D. RedHat Linux 8.0
E. MacOS X
Answer: A

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NO.4 Assume an intruder has compromised your current IKE Phase 1 and Phase 2 keys.
Which of the following options will end the intruder's access, after the next Phase 2
exchange occurs?
A. Phase 3 Key Revocation
B. Perfect Forward Secrecy
C. MD5 Hash Completion
D. SH1 Hash Completion
E. DES Key Reset
Answer: B

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NO.5 You work a network administrator for KillTest .com. You configure a Check Point QoS Rule Base with
two rules: an H.323 rule with a weight of 10, and the Default
Rule with a weight of 10. The H.323 rule includes a per-connection guarantee of 384
Kbps, and a per-connection limit of 512 Kbps. The per-connection guarantee is for
four connections, and no additional connections are allowed in the Action
properties. If traffic passing through the QoS Module matches both rules, which of
the following is true?
A. Neither rule will be allocated more than 10% of available bandwidth.
B. The H.323 rule will consume no more than 2048 Kbps of available bandwidth.
C. 50% of available bandwidth will be allocated to the H.323 rule.
D. 50% of available bandwidth will be allocated to the Default Rule
E. Each H.323 connection will receive at least 512 Kbps of bandwidth.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Exhibit:
KillTest is using a mesh VPN Community to create a site-to-site VPN. The VPN
properties in this mesh Community is displayed in the exhibit.
Which of the following statements are true?
A. If Jack changes the settings, "Perform key exchange encryption with" from "3DES" to
"DES", she will enhance the VPN Community's security and reduce encryption overhead.
B. Mrs Bill must change the data-integrity settings for this VPN Community. MD5 is incompatible with
AES.
C. If KillTest changes the setting "Perform IPSec data encryption with" from
"AES-128" to "3DES", Jack will increase the encryption overhead.
D. Her VPN Community will perform IKE Phase 1 key-exchange encryption, using the
longest key VPN-1 NGX supports.
Answer: C

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NO.7 You are preparing to configure your VoIP Domain Gatekeeper object. Which two other object should you
have created first?
A. An object to represent the IP phone network, AND an object to represent the host on
which the proxy is installed.
B. An object to represent the PSTN phone network, AND an object to represent the IP
phone network
C. An object to represent the IP phone network, AND an object to represent the host on
which the gatekeeper is installed.
D. An object to represent the Q.931 service origination host, AND an object to represent
the H.245 termination host
E. An object to represent the call manager, AND an object to represent the host on which
the transmission router is installed.
Answer: C

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NO.8 KillTest .com has many VPN-1 Edge gateways at various branch offices, to allow
VPN-1 SecureClient users to access KillTest .com resources. For security reasons,
KillTest .com's Secure policy requires all Internet traffic initiated behind the
VPN-1 Edge gateways first be inspected by your headquarters' VPN-1 Pro Security
Gateway. How do you configure VPN routing in this star VPN Community?
A. To the Internet an other targets only
B. To the center and other satellites, through the center
C. To the center only
D. To the center, or through the center to other satellites, then to the Internet and other
VPN targets
Answer: D

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NO.1 Addresses allocated from an IP pool remain allocated for a configurable period, even after
all connections to that address are closed. What is the default time before the address is
returned to the pool?
A. 120 mins
B. 180mins
C. 30 mins
D. 60 mins
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is true about detecting "blocked connection port scanning"?
A. It requires less memory than general port scanning
B. It is less secure than general port scanning
C. It is more secure than general port scanning
D. It requires more memory than general port scanning
Answer: A, B

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NO.3 Which of the following should be disabled in a Windows NT platform when installing
FW-1?
A. WINS
B. RPC
C. NetBIOS
D. All of them
E. DHCP relay
Answer: D

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NO.4 When making changes to users in an LDAP server using the policy editor
usermanager, when will the changes take effect?
A. After the user database is downloaded
B. When you log out of policy editor
C. After a policy download
D. When cache times out
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.5 By default a Windows NT platform enables both TCP/IP and IPX. What does FW-1 do
with any IPX traffic?
A. Logs it, then drops it
B. Allows it through without being inspected
C. Drops all traffic regardless
D. Inspects the traffic and decide whether to allow it through
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the maximum limit to the number of secondary management modules allowed?
A. No limit
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
E. 8
Answer: A

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NO.7 If CPMAD terminates, how can you restart it?
A. By using the GUI log client
B. It automatically starts itself
C. By using fw cpmadstart
D. By using fwstop/fwstart
Answer: D

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NO.8 You can tell if CPMAD is enabled because you see the message
"FireWall-1: Starting cpmad (Malicious Activity Detection)"
whenyou perform a fwstart. True of false?
A. False
B. True
Answer: A

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