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Exam Code: 640-822
Exam Name: Cisco (Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 350 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-18

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NO.1 Refer to the exhibit. The ports that are shown are the only active ports on the switch. The MAC
address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch.
What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.)
A.The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC address table.
B.The MAC address of 0000.00dd.dddd will be added to the MAC address table.
C.The frame will be forwarded out port fa0/3 only.
D.The frame will be forwarded out fa0/1, fa0/2, and fa0/3.
E.The frame will be forwarded out all the active ports.
Answer:AD

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NO.2 Refer to the topology and switching table shown in the graphic. Host B sends a frame to Host C. What
will the switch do with the frame?
A.drop the frame
B.send the frame out all ports except port 0/2
C.return the frame to Host B
D.send an ARP request for Host C
E.send an ICMP Host Unreachable message to Host B
F.record the destination MAC address in the switching table and send the frame directly to Host C
Answer:B

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NO.3 From which IP address class can 15 bits be borrowed to create subnets?
A.A
B.B
C.C
D.D
E.E
Answer:A

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NO.4 Refer to the exhibit.
Host A is sending a packet to Host B for the first time. What destination MAC address will Host A use in
the ARP request?
A.192.168.0.1
B.172.16.0.50
C.00-17-94-61-18-b0
D.00-19-d3-2d-c3-b2
E.ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff
F.255.255.255.255
Answer:E

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NO.5 Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
A.There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B.A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C.Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D.In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media
before transmitting.
E.The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.
Answer:ABE

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NO.6 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator replaced the 10/100 Mb NIC in a desktop PC with a 1 Gb NIC
and now the PC will not connect to the network. The administrator began troubleshooting on the switch.
Using the switch output shown, what is the cause of the problem?
A.Speed is set to 100Mb/s.
B.Input flow control is off.
C.Encapsulation is set to ARPA.D.The port is administratively down.
E.The counters have never been cleared.
Answer:A

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NO.7 Refer to the topology and MAC address table shown in the exhibit. Host A sends a data frame to host D.
What will the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?
A.The switch will add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the frame to
host D.B.The switch will discard the frame and send an error message back to host A.C.The switch will
flood the frame out of all ports except for port Fa0/3.
D.The switch will add the destination address of the frame to the MAC address table and forward the
frame to host D.
Answer:A

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NO.8 Refer to the exhibit.
A network device needs to be installed in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a
leased line attachment to the Internet. Which network device and interface configuration meets the
minimum requirements for this installation?
A.a router with two Ethernet interfaces
B.a switch with two Ethernet interfaces
C.a router with one Ethernet and one serial interface
D.a switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface
E.a router with one Ethernet and one modem interface
Answer:C

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NO.9 What is the subnet address for the IP address 172.19.20.23/28?
A.172.19.20.0
B.172.19.20.15
C.172.19.20.16
D.172.19.20.20
E.172.19.20.32
Answer:C

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NO.10 Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.)
A.In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B.In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C.The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the
CSMA/CD access method.
D.After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E.After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired,
all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F.After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each
other prior to transmitting data.
Answer:BE

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NO.11 An elementary school has a computer in every classroom. One entire wing of the school connects to a
centrally located hub. The teachers have reported a slowdown in the past few weeks to the network
administrator. The network administrator has analyzed the network and documented a steep increase in
utilization as the teachers use a new network-based classroom management application. Which solution
will improve the performance the most?
A.Replace the hub with a switch.
B.Install a repeater in the affected wing.
C.Reboot the router that connects to the hub.
D.Install a router and install another hub in the affected wing.
E.Ensure all devices in the affected wing have a default gateway.
Answer:A

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NO.12 What is the maximum number of bits that can be borrowed to create subnets if a Class B network
address is being used?
A.2
B.6
C.8
D.14
E.16
Answer:D

Cisco   640-822   640-822   640-822

NO.13 Refer to the exhibits labeled A through E. All devices are to be connected over Ethernet. Which three
device-to-device configurations are likely to require the use of a crossover connection? (Choose three.)
A.exhibit A
B.exhibit B
C.exhibit C
D.exhibit D
E.exhibit E
Answer:ADE

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NO.14 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator replaced the NIC in a desktop PC with a new NIC. The NIC in the PC configuration is set
to "100 Mb Half." Now the PC has intermittent connectivity and loss of communication so the
administrator began troubleshooting on the switch. Using the switch output shown, what is the cause of
the problem?
A.Input flow control is off.
B.Encapsulation is set to ARPA.
C.The switch is set to full-duplex.
D.The port is administratively down.
E.Fast Ethernet is incompatible with a megabit NIC.
F.The counters were not cleared after the hardware was replaced.
Answer:C

Cisco   640-822   640-822

NO.15 Which OSI layer header contains the address of a destination host that is on another network?
A.application
B.session
C.transport
D.network
E.data link
F.physical
Answer:D

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NO.16 An Ethernet cable is attached to a PC NIC and then attached to a switch port. The PC power is turned
on and the switch port link LED turns green. The link light indicates what two conditions? (Choose two.)
A.Layer 2 communication has been established between the PC and switch.
B.The PC has received a DHCP address.
C.Traffic is being sent from the switch to the PC.D.If flashing, the green LED indicates port speed of 100
Mb/s.
E.The Layer 1 media is functioning between the PC and switch.
F.The switch port is functioning as a half-duplex connection.
Answer:AE

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NO.17 Refer to the exhibit.
All devices attached to the network are shown. How many collision domains are present in this network?
A.2
B.3
C.6
D.9
E.15
Answer:E

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NO.18 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured a Catalyst 2950 switch for remote
management by pasting into the console the configuration commands that are shown in the exhibit.
However, a Telnet session cannot be successfully established from a remote host. What should be done
to fix this problem?
A.Change the first line to interface fastethernet 0/1.
B.Change the first line to interface vlan 0/1.
C.Change the fifth line to ip default-gateway 192.168.17.241.
D.Change the fifth line to ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.17.1.
E.Change the sixth line to line con 0.
Answer:C

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NO.19 A host computer has the IP address 192.168.43.139 and netmask 255.255.255.240. On which logical
IP network does this host reside?
A.192.168.0.0/26
B.192.168.0.0/28
C.192.168.43.0/28
D.192.168.43.64/28
E.192.168.43.112/28
F.192.168.43.128/28
Answer:F

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NO.20 Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A.A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B.A modem terminates a digital local loop.
C.A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D.A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E.A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
F.A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
Answer:ADE

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Exam Code: 351-018
Exam Name: Cisco (CCIE Security written)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 560 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-18

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NO.1 Cisco ASA 5500 Series Adaptive Security Appliance application layer protocol inspection is
implemented using which of these?
A. Protocol Header Definition File (PHDF)
B. Cisco Modular Policy Framework
C. Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF)
D. NetFlow version 9
E. Traffic Classification Definition File (TCDF)
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the net effect of using ICMP type 4 messages to attack RFC 1122-compliant hosts?
A. Hosts will perform a soft TCP reset and restart the connection.
B. Hosts will perform a hard TCP reset and tear down the connection.
C. Hosts will reduce the rate at which they inject traffic into the network.
D. Hosts will redirect packets to the IP address indicated in the ICMP type 4 message.
E. Hosts will retransmit the last frame sent prior to receiving the ICMP type 4 message.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which two of these are true about TFTP? (Choose two.)
A. TFTP includes a basic username/password authentication mechanism.
B. While "putting" files via TFTP is possible, it is good practice to disallow it, because TFTP lacks access
control mechanisms.
C. TFTP uses a very basic "stop and wait" mechanism for flow control, for which each packet needs to be
acknowledged before the next one is sent.
D. TFTP root directories need to be world-readable and -writable due to the lack of security controls in the
protocol.
E. TFTP can list remote directory contents, but only if advanced options (as defined in RFC 2347) are
negotiated between client and server at initial connection time.
Answer: BC

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NO.4 The ARP functionality in IPv4 is accomplished using which type of messages, as defined in ICMPv6?
A. router solicitation and advertisement
B. neighbor solicitation and advertisement
C. redirect
D. neighbor solicitation and router advertisement
E. router solicitation and neighbor advertisement
Answer: B

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NO.5 In ISO 27001 ISMS, which three of these certification process phases are required to collect
information for ISO 27001? (Choose three.)
A. discover
B. certification audit
C. post-audit
D. observation
E. pre-audit
F. major compliance
Answer: BCE

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NO.6 ASDM on the Cisco ASA adaptive security appliance platform is executed as which of the following?
A. an ActiveX application or a JavaScript application
B. a JavaScript application and a PHP application
C. a fully compiled .Net Framework application
D. a fully operational Visual Basic application
E. a Java applet or a standalone application using the Java Runtime Environment
Answer: E

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NO.7 Which two of these commands are required to implement a Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Firewall
Services Module (FWSM) in a Catalyst 6500 running Cisco IOS? (Choose two.)
A. firewall multiple-vlan-interfaces
B. firewall module vlan-group
C. module secure-traffic
D. firewall vlan-group <vlan-x>
E. firewall module secure-traffic
Answer: BD

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NO.8 After the client opens the command channel (port 21) to the FTP server and requests passive mode,
what will be the next step?
A. The FTP server sends back an ACK to the client.
B. The FTP server allocates a port to use for the data channel and transmits that port number to the client.
C. The FTP server opens the data channel to the client using the port number indicated by the client.
D. The FTP client opens the data channel to the FTP server on port 20.
E. The FTP client opens the data channel to the FTP server on port 21.
Answer: B

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NO.9 For a router to obtain a certificate from a CA, what is the first step of the certificate enrollment process?
A. The router generates a certificate request and forwards it to the CA.
B. The router generates an RSA key pair.
C. The router sends its public key to the CA.
D. The CA sends its public key to the router.
E. The CA verifies the identity of the router.
F. The CA generates a certificate request and forwards it to the router.
Answer: B

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NO.10 To provide a separation of duties within Cisco Security Manager, which mode would the Cisco Security
Manager administrator use?
A. Activity mode
B. Change Control mode
C. Workflow mode
D. Task-Based mode
E. Task Isolation mode
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which two of these statements regarding Authentication Header (AH) are true? (Choose two.)
A. AH requires the use of Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) to work correctly.
B. AH provides authentication for most of the "outer" IP header, as well as the upper layer protocols.
C. AH can be deployed in tunnel mode only.
D. AH is not commonly used, because it can only encrypt the original packet using a DES encryption
algorithm.
E. AH will work through a NAT (one-to-one) device, but not through a PAT (one-to-many) device.
F. AH uses an IP protocol number of 51.
Answer: BF

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NO.12 Referring to the partial debug output shown in the exhibit, which of these values is contained inside the
brackets [4] in line 1?
A. RADIUS identifier field value
B. RADIUS attribute type value
C. RADIUS VSA number
D. RADIUS VSA length
E. vendor ID
Answer: B

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NO.13 When a failover takes place on an adaptive security appliance configured for failover, all active
connections are dropped and clients must reestablish their connections, unless the adaptive security
appliance is configured in which two of the following ways? (Choose two.)
A. active/stand by failover
B. active/active failover
C. active/active failover and a state failover link has been configured
D. active/standby failover and a state failover link has been configured
E. to use a serial cable as the failover link
F. LAN-based failover
Answer: CD

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NO.14 Which two of these are valid TACACS+ Accounting packets? (Choose two.)
A. REQUEST
B. REPLY
C. RESPONSE
D. CONTINUE
E. START
Answer: AC

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NO.15 Which one of the following is not a valid RADIUS packet type.?
A. access-reject
B. access-response
C. access-challenge
D. access-reply
E. access-accept
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of these best represents a typical attack that takes advantage of RFC 792, ICMP type 3
messages?
A. blind connection-reset
B. large packet echo request
C. packet fragmentation offset
D. broadcast-based echo request
E. excessive bandwidth consumption
Answer: A

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NO.17 A DNS open resolver is vulnerable to which three of these malicious activities? (Choose three.)
A. cache poisoning attack
B. amplification attack
C. Ping of Death attack
D. Resource Utilization attack
E. Blue Screen of Death
F. Nachi worm attack
Answer: ABD

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NO.18 In the example shown, Host A has attempted a DCOM attack using Metasploit from Host A to Host
Which three statements best describe how event logs and IPS alerts can be used in conjunction with each
other to determine if the attack was successful? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Security MARS will collect the syslog and the IPS alerts based on time.
B. The IPS event will suggest that an attack may have occurred because a signature was triggered.
C. IPS and Cisco ASA adaptive security appliance will use the Unified Threat Management protocol to
determine that both devices saw the attack
D. Cisco ASA adaptive security appliance will see the attack in both directions and will be able to
determine if an attack was successful.
E. The syslog event will indicate that an attack is likely because a TCP SYN and an ACK followed the
attempted attack.
Answer: ABE

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NO.19 Which two of these statements about SMTP and ESMTP are the most correct? (Choose two.)
A. Open mail relays are often used for spamming.
B. ESMTP does not provide more security features than SMTP.
C. SMTP provides authenticated e-mail sending.
D. Worms often spread via SMTP.
Answer: AD

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NO.20 A DNS Client sends DNS messages to obtain information about the requested domain name space.
The information is known as which of these?
A. Resource Record
B. Resolver
C. Branch
D. Authoritative Client
E. Recursive Client
Answer: A

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NO.21 Which method is used by Cisco Security Agent to get user state information from the operating
system?
A. secure SSL using HTTPS session
B. application (Layer 7)-based (Cisco proprietary) encryption
C. NetBIOS socket on TCP port 137-139 and UDP port 137-139
D. Win32 application binary interface (ABI)
E. Win32 application programming interface (API)
Answer: E

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NO.22 When using Cisco Easy VPN Remote (hardware client deployment) in the client-mode setup, all of the
following statements are correct except which one?
A. Perform split tunneling on the Cisco Easy VPN Remote device.
B. Initiate a connection from a network behind the Cisco Easy VPN Server to the network behind the
Cisco Easy VPN Remote client.
C. Set the Cisco Easy VPN Remote to allow an administrator or user to manually initiate a connection.
D. Set the Cisco Easy VPN Remote to automatically connect to the Cisco Easy VPN Server.
Answer: B

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NO.23 Refer to the exhibit.
Switch SW2 has just been added to Fa0/23 on SW1. After a few seconds, interface Fa0/23 on SW1 is
placed in the error-disabled state. SW2 is removed from port 0/23 and inserted into SW1 port Fa0/22 with
the same result. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The spanning-tree PortFast feature has been configured on SW1.
B. BPDU filtering has been enabled either globally or on the interfaces of SW1.
C. The BPDU guard feature has been enabled on the Fast Ethernet interfaces of SW1.
D. The Fast Ethernet interfaces of SW1 are unable to autonegotiate speed and duplex with SW2.
E. PAgP is unable to correctly negotiate VLAN trunk characteristics on the link between SWI and SW2.
Answer: C

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NO.24 How do TCP SYN attacks take advantage of TCP to prevent new connections from being established
to a host under attack?
A. sending multiple FIN segments, forcing TCP connection release
B. filling up a host listen queue by failing to ACK partially opened TCP connections
C. taking advantage of the host transmit backoff algorithm by sending jam signals to the host
D. incrementing the ISN of each segment by a random number, causing constant TCP retransmissions
E. sending TCP RST segments in response to connection SYN+ACK segments, forcing SYN
retransmissions
Answer: B

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NO.25 Which of these statements best describes the advantage of using Cisco Secure Desktop, which is part
of the Cisco ASA VPN solution?
A. Cisco Secure Desktop creates a separate computing environment that is deleted when you finish,
ensuring that no confidential data is left on the shared or public computer.
B. Cisco Secure Desktop is used to protect access to your registry and system files when browsing to
SSL VPN protected pages.
C. Cisco Secure Desktop ensures that an SSL protected password cannot be exploited by a man-
in-the-middle attack using a spoofed certificate
D. Cisco Secure Desktop hardens the operating system of the machines you are using at the time it is
launched.
Answer: A

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NO.26 Which three of these protocols are supported when using TACACS+? (Choose three.)
A. AppleTalk
B. CHAP
C. NASI
D. NetBIOS
E. Kerberos
Answer: ACD

Cisco   351-018   351-018 questions

NO.27 Which two of these Cisco Catalyst security features offer the best ways to prevent ARP cache poisoning?
(Choose two.)
A. Dynamic ARP Inspection
B. port security
C. MAC address notification
D. DHCP snooping
E. PortFast
F. 802.1x authentication
Answer: AD

Cisco demo   351-018   351-018 exam   351-018 original questions   351-018

NO.28 Refer to the exhibit.
Which three of the following statements are correct? (Choose three.)
A. The exhibit shows an example of a NAC Framework network.
B. The exhibit shows an example of a NAC Appliance network.
C. The network utilizes in-band admission control.
D. The network utilizes out-of-band admission control.
E. Cisco NAC Appliance Agent is used to verify end-user PC compliance with the security policy
F. Cisco Trust Agent is used to verify end-user PC compliance with the security policy.
Answer: BDE

Cisco   351-018   351-018 certification training

NO.29 Refer to the exhibit.
Which of these statements is correct for the Fidelity Rating and Base RR values?
A. Both the Fidelity Rating and Base RR values are computed from the Severity Factor value.
B. The Fidelity Rating value is computed from the Base RR value.
C. The Severity Factor value is computed from the Fidelity Rating and Base RR values.
D. The Fidelity Rating value is computed from the Base RR and Severity Factor values.
E. The Base RR value is computed from the Fidelity Rating and Severity Factor values.
Answer: E

Cisco   351-018 test answers   351-018

NO.30 How does using DHCP Option 82 on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller make a network more secure?
A. by preventing rogue DHCP servers from returning unauthorized addresses
B. by ensuring that DHCP addresses are parity-checked before being issued
C. by ensuring that clients receive proper routing information as part of their DHCP responses
D. by preventing DHCP address requests from untrusted relay agents
E. by adding fully qualified domain information that the client can use for SSL authentication
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 646-393
Exam Name: Cisco (Cisco Lifecycle Services Express)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 143 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-18

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NO.1 Your Certkiller trainee, Certkiller, asks you which of the following is a task in the
operations implementation service component of the implement phase?
A. operations and network management system staging, installation, and configuration
B. develop backup/recovery plan
C. review Operation Design Document
D. update and document logical and physical topology maps
Answer: A

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NO.2 In the implement phase, solution implementation involves which of the following task?
A. Execute test cases
B. Configure core products
C. Perform preliminary Site Assessment
D. Analyze high-level design and technology requirements of the customer
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following is a key objective of operations readiness assessment in the plan
phase?
A. install and test system components in a nonproduction environment
B. assess the ability of site facilities to accommodate the proposed solution
C. assess the current state of operations and network management infrastructure,
including people, processes, and tools, to identify issues and opportunities
D. assess existing network infrastructure and applications to verify its ability to support
the proposed system
Answer: C

Cisco   646-393   646-393 pdf

NO.4 In the operate phase, the task accounting for all system assets and configurations is part
of which service component?
A. Configuration Management
B. Problem Management
C. Change Management
D. Incident Management
Answer: A

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NO.5 Your Certkiller trainee, Certkiller, asks you which of the following three tasks are
executed in the security administration component of the operate phase? (Choose three.)
A. utilization monitoring
B. customer operational account creation
C. identity management
D. security incident management
E. security configuration management
F. security problem escalation
Answer: C,D,E

Cisco   646-393   646-393 test

NO.6 In the design phase, performing a needs analysis to identify the resource requirements
and skills needed to deliver and support a network infrastructure is an activity of which
service component?
A. Implementation Kick-off Meeting
B. Implementation Plan
C. Project Kick-off
D. Staging Plan
E. Migration Plan
F. Staff Plan Development
Answer: F

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NO.7 In the implement phase, project close-out involves which of the following tasks?
A. deliver education based on Staff Planning Development reports
B. customize ongoing support hand-off kit
C. conduct Engagement Profitability Assessment
D. execute network migration plan
Answer: C

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NO.8 Your Certkiller trainee, Certkiller, asks you which of the following is a key objective of
operations readiness assessment in the plan phase?
A. install and test system components in a nonproduction environment
B. assess the ability of site facilities to accommodate the proposed solution
C. assess the current state of operations and network management infrastructure,
including people, processes, and tools, to identify issues and opportunities
D. assess existing network infrastructure and applications to verify its ability to support
the proposed system
Answer: C

Cisco original questions   646-393 questions   646-393   646-393

NO.9 Developing a plan that identifies specific activities required to take existing services and
network architectures and implement them on a new platform or as new services is an
activity of which service component in the design phase?
A. Migration Plan Development
B. Detailed Design Development
C. Business Plan
D. Staging Plan
E. Implementation Plan
F. Business Requirements Document
Answer: A

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NO.10 In the implement phase, solution implementation involves which of the following task?
A. perform preliminary Site Assessment
B. configure core products
C. execute test cases
D. analyze high-level design and technology requirements of the customer
Answer: B

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NO.11 In the implement phase, project close-out involves which of the following tasks?
A. deliver education based on Staff Planning Development reports
B. conduct Engagement Profitability Assessment
C. execute network migration plan
D. customize ongoing support hand-off kit
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following definitions best describes business requirements development
within the prepare phase?
A. a set of service component activities that assesses and documents the business
requirements of a customer
B. part of the systems design activity that identifies and documents business requirements
to help deploy network technologies
C. part of the high-level design activity that addresses business and technical
requirements of the customer
D. a service component activity that analyzes business requirements and recommends the
appropriate technology strategy
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which service component within the design phase does the following describe? Consider
the customer's defined business requirements and the associated performance,
availability, resiliency, maintainability, resource capacity, and security criteria used to
measure and assure the delivery of the required services.
A. Staging Plan
B. Implementation Plan
C. Business Plan
D. Detailed Design Validation
E. Project Kick-off
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which one of the following describes the task for completing an operations readiness
assessment in the plan phase?
A. determining network elements that will be tested
B. reviewing hardware and software configuration staging plan
C. entering documentation into knowledge management system
D. developing backup/recovery plan
E. creating an escalation plan
F. obtaining and reviewing operation procedures and policies
Answer: F

Cisco   646-393 braindump   646-393 demo   646-393

NO.15 Which service component within the prepare phase provides a high-level, conceptual
architecture of the proposed system that addresses the business requirements of the
customer?
A. High-level Proof of Concept
B. Technology Strategy Development
C. High-level Technology Strategy
D. High-level Design Development
E. Business Requirements Development
Answer: D

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NO.16 In the design phase, which service component includes developing and documenting the
test case(s) used to verify that a deployed infrastructure meets the operational, functional,
and interface requirements?
A. Systems Acceptance Test Plan Development
B. Staging Plan
C. Business Plan
D. Detailed Design Development
E. Implementation Plan
Answer: A

Cisco answers real questions   646-393   646-393   646-393   646-393 questions

NO.17 Which services component within the prepare phase provides financial justification and
business benefits for a customer to review and evaluate before investing in the technology?
A. Technology Strategy Development
B. Statement of Work Development
C. Business Requirements Development
D. Executive Summary Development
E. Business Case Development
Answer: E

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NO.18 Which service component within the prepare phase validates the features and
functionality documented in the high-level design of a solution?
A. Proof of Concept
B. High-level Design Development
C. Business Case Development
D. Business Requirements Development
E. Operations Technology Strategy Development
F. Technology Strategy Development
Answer: A

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NO.19 Developing a plan that identifies specific activities required to take existing services and
network architectures and implement them on a new platform or as new services is an
activity of which service component in the design phase?
A. Business Requirements Document
B. Detailed Design Development
C. Staging Plan
D. Business Plan
E. Migration Plan Development
F. Implementation Plan
Answer: E

Cisco answers real questions   646-393 demo   646-393   646-393

NO.20 Which of the following definitions best describes services stack within the Cisco
Lifecycle Services approach?
A. the minimum set of services that a customer needs to successfully deploy and operate
a Cisco technology or solution
B. the required set of services needed to successfully deploy and support Cisco Advanced
Technologies
C. the identification of Advanced Technologies to best support business requirements and
objectives
D. the minimum set of services required to operate and optimize Cisco Advanced
Technologies
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 642-243
Exam Name: Cisco (Unified Contact Center Enterprise Support Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 44 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-18

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NO.1 Refer to the exhibit. In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise deployment, the call flow allows the
caller to opt out and leave a voice
IVR
does the script shown in the exhibit have on the system?
Green choice3
Green choice5
Green choice1
3.In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system, a new agent and phone have been added to the
system; however, the agent is unable to log in to the system. The agent is using the same type of phone
and and has the same CTI OS desktop setup as other agents who are able to log in without issue. What
are two possible causes for this issue?(Choose two
A.The incorrect CTIOS Server IP and Port are configured on the new agent's CTI desktop.
B.The new phone used by the agent is not associated with IVRJtapiUser.
C.A new Device Target needs to be added for the phone in the Config (for example, /devtype ipp
12345).
D.The phone has call forwarding and call waiting enabled.
E.The new phone used by the agent is not associated with PGJtapiUser.
Answer:C E

Cisco   642-243 demo   642-243 demo   642-243 answers real questions   642-243   642-243
4.Refer to the exhibit. In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, there are a number
different log files that are generated by different components and processes in the solution. Identify the
specific process that generated the log file.
A.CTI OS (Server)
B.CTI OS (Client)
C.JTAPI Gateway (jgw)
D.UC Manager PIM (Enterprise Agent PIM)
E.ICM Call Router (rtr)
Answer:D

Cisco   642-243   642-243   642-243
5.Refer to the exhibit. In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise deployment, the call flow allows the
caller to opt out and leave a voice
IVR application "Script1.aef" is called to prompt the caller and transfer the call to voice mail. What impact
does the script shown in the exhibit have on the system?
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice5---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice4
3.In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system, a new agent and phone have been added to the
system; however, the agent is unable to log in to the system. The agent is using the same type of phone
and and has the same CTI OS desktop setup as other agents who are able to log in without issue. What
are two possible causes for this issue?(Choose two
A.The incorrect CTIOS Server IP and Port are configured on the new agent's CTI desktop.
B.The new phone used by the agent is not associated with IVRJtapiUser.
C.A new Device Target needs to be added for the phone in the Config (for example, /devtype ipp
D.The phone has call forwarding and call waiting enabled.
E.The new phone used by the agent is not associated with PGJtapiUser.
Answer:C E

Cisco test   642-243 certification   642-243   642-243   642-243
4.Refer to the exhibit. In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, there are a number
different log files that are generated by different components and processes in the solution. Identify the
specific process that generated the log file.
A.CTI OS (Server)
B.CTI OS (Client)
C.JTAPI Gateway (jgw)
D.UC Manager PIM (Enterprise Agent PIM)
E.ICM Call Router (rtr)
5.Refer to the exhibit. In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise deployment, the call flow allows the
caller to opt out and leave a voice
application "Script1.aef" is called to prompt the caller and transfer the call to voice mail. What impact
does the script shown in the exhibit have on the system?
>Yellow Choice2
>Yellow Choice3
>Yellow Choice4
3.In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system, a new agent and phone have been added to the
system; however, the agent is unable to log in to the system. The agent is using the same type of phone
and and has the same CTI OS desktop setup as other agents who are able to log in without issue. What
are two possible causes for this issue?(Choose two
A.The incorrect CTIOS Server IP and Port are configured on the new agent's CTI desktop.
B.The new phone used by the agent is not associated with IVRJtapiUser.
C.A new Device Target needs to be added for the phone in the Config (for example, /devtype ipp
D.The phone has call forwarding and call waiting enabled.
E.The new phone used by the agent is not associated with PGJtapiUser.
4.Refer to the exhibit. In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, there are a number
different log files that are generated by different components and processes in the solution. Identify the
specific process that generated the log file.
D.UC Manager PIM (Enterprise Agent PIM)
5.Refer to the exhibit. In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise deployment, the call flow allows the
caller to opt out and leave a voice-mail message for an agent team while in queue. The Cisco Unified IP
application "Script1.aef" is called to prompt the caller and transfer the call to voice mail. What impact
does the script shown in the exhibit have on the system?
3.In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system, a new agent and phone have been added to the
system; however, the agent is unable to log in to the system. The agent is using the same type of phone
and and has the same CTI OS desktop setup as other agents who are able to log in without issue. What
are two possible causes for this issue?(Choose two
A.The incorrect CTIOS Server IP and Port are configured on the new agent's CTI desktop.
B.The new phone used by the agent is not associated with IVRJtapiUser.
C.A new Device Target needs to be added for the phone in the Config (for example, /devtype ipp
D.The phone has call forwarding and call waiting enabled.
E.The new phone used by the agent is not associated with PGJtapiUser.
4.Refer to the exhibit. In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, there are a number
different log files that are generated by different components and processes in the solution. Identify the
specific process that generated the log file.
D.UC Manager PIM (Enterprise Agent PIM)
5.Refer to the exhibit. In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise deployment, the call flow allows the
mail message for an agent team while in queue. The Cisco Unified IP
application "Script1.aef" is called to prompt the caller and transfer the call to voice mail. What impact
does the script shown in the exhibit have on the system?
The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
3 / 4
3.In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system, a new agent and phone have been added to the
system; however, the agent is unable to log in to the system. The agent is using the same type of phone
and and has the same CTI OS desktop setup as other agents who are able to log in without issue. What
are two possible causes for this issue?(Choose two.)
A.The incorrect CTIOS Server IP and Port are configured on the new agent's CTI desktop.
B.The new phone used by the agent is not associated with IVRJtapiUser.
C.A new Device Target needs to be added for the phone in the Config (for example, /devtype ipp
D.The phone has call forwarding and call waiting enabled.
E.The new phone used by the agent is not associated with PGJtapiUser.
4.Refer to the exhibit. In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, there are a number
different log files that are generated by different components and processes in the solution. Identify the
5.Refer to the exhibit. In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise deployment, the call flow allows the
mail message for an agent team while in queue. The Cisco Unified IP
application "Script1.aef" is called to prompt the caller and transfer the call to voice mail. What impact
does the script shown in the exhibit have on the system?
The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
3.In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system, a new agent and phone have been added to the
system; however, the agent is unable to log in to the system. The agent is using the same type of phone
and and has the same CTI OS desktop setup as other agents who are able to log in without issue. What
A.The incorrect CTIOS Server IP and Port are configured on the new agent's CTI desktop.
B.The new phone used by the agent is not associated with IVRJtapiUser.
C.A new Device Target needs to be added for the phone in the Config (for example, /devtype ipp
E.The new phone used by the agent is not associated with PGJtapiUser.
4.Refer to the exhibit. In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, there are a number
different log files that are generated by different components and processes in the solution. Identify the
5.Refer to the exhibit. In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise deployment, the call flow allows the
mail message for an agent team while in queue. The Cisco Unified IP
application "Script1.aef" is called to prompt the caller and transfer the call to voice mail. What impact
The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
3.In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system, a new agent and phone have been added to the
system; however, the agent is unable to log in to the system. The agent is using the same type of phone
and and has the same CTI OS desktop setup as other agents who are able to log in without issue. What
A.The incorrect CTIOS Server IP and Port are configured on the new agent's CTI desktop.
B.The new phone used by the agent is not associated with IVRJtapiUser.
C.A new Device Target needs to be added for the phone in the Config (for example, /devtype ipp
E.The new phone used by the agent is not associated with PGJtapiUser.
4.Refer to the exhibit. In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, there are a number
different log files that are generated by different components and processes in the solution. Identify the
5.Refer to the exhibit. In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise deployment, the call flow allows the
mail message for an agent team while in queue. The Cisco Unified IP
application "Script1.aef" is called to prompt the caller and transfer the call to voice mail. What impact
The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
3.In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system, a new agent and phone have been added to the
system; however, the agent is unable to log in to the system. The agent is using the same type of phone
and and has the same CTI OS desktop setup as other agents who are able to log in without issue. What
A.The incorrect CTIOS Server IP and Port are configured on the new agent's CTI desktop.
C.A new Device Target needs to be added for the phone in the Config (for example, /devtype ipp
4.Refer to the exhibit. In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, there are a number
different log files that are generated by different components and processes in the solution. Identify the
5.Refer to the exhibit. In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise deployment, the call flow allows the
mail message for an agent team while in queue. The Cisco Unified IP
application "Script1.aef" is called to prompt the caller and transfer the call to voice mail. What impact
The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
3.In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system, a new agent and phone have been added to the
system; however, the agent is unable to log in to the system. The agent is using the same type of phone
and and has the same CTI OS desktop setup as other agents who are able to log in without issue. What
C.A new Device Target needs to be added for the phone in the Config (for example, /devtype ipphone /DN
4.Refer to the exhibit. In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, there are a number
of
different log files that are generated by different components and processes in the solution. Identify the
5.Refer to the exhibit. In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise deployment, the call flow allows the
mail message for an agent team while in queue. The Cisco Unified IP
application "Script1.aef" is called to prompt the caller and transfer the call to voice mail. What impact
3.In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system, a new agent and phone have been added to the
system; however, the agent is unable to log in to the system. The agent is using the same type of phone
and and has the same CTI OS desktop setup as other agents who are able to log in without issue. What
hone /DN
of
different log files that are generated by different components and processes in the solution. Identify the
5.Refer to the exhibit. In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise deployment, the call flow allows the
mail message for an agent team while in queue. The Cisco Unified IP
application "Script1.aef" is called to prompt the caller and transfer the call to voice mail. What impact
A.Calls that are sent to voice mail from the Cisco Unified IP IVR script will appear as "Abandoned" in the
Cisco Unified CCE Call Type reporting.
B.Calls that are sent to voice mail from the Cisco Unified IP IVR script will appear as "Transferred Out" in
the Cisco Unified CCE Call Type reporting.
C.Calls that are sent to voice mail from the Cisco Unified IP IVR script will appear as "Handled" in the
Cisco Unified CCE Call Type reporting.
D.All calls that are sent to this script will be sent to the vmEXT using the Call Redirect step.
E.Callers will remain in queue after they leave the voice-mail message.
Answer:A

Cisco   642-243   642-243

NO.2 Drop
Answer:
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice3
Green choice5
Green choice1

NO.3 Drop
Answer:
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice5---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice4
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice5

NO.4 In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system, a new agent and phone have been added to the
system; however, the agent is unable to log in to the system. The agent is using the same type of phone
and and has the same CTI OS desktop setup as other agents who are able to log in without issue. What
are two possible causes for this issue?(Choose two
A.The incorrect CTIOS Server IP and Port are configured on the new agent's CTI desktop.
B.The new phone used by the agent is not associated with IVRJtapiUser.
C.A new Device Target needs to be added for the phone in the Config (for example, /devtype ipp
12345).
D.The phone has call forwarding and call waiting enabled.
E.The new phone used by the agent is not associated with PGJtapiUser.
Answer:C E

Cisco   642-243   642-243 certification training

NO.5 Refer to the exhibit. In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, there are a number
different log files that are generated by different components and processes in the solution. Identify the
specific process that generated the log file.
A.CTI OS (Server)
B.CTI OS (Client)
C.JTAPI Gateway (jgw)
D.UC Manager PIM (Enterprise Agent PIM)
E.ICM Call Router (rtr)
Answer:D

Cisco original questions   642-243 exam prep   642-243   642-243   642-243 exam prep

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Exam Code: 642-902
Exam Name: Cisco (Implementing cisco ip routing)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 367 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-18

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NO.1 Refer to the exhibit.
Router RTA is the hub router for routers RTB and RTC. The Frame Relay network is configured with
EIGRP, and the entire network is in autonomous system 1. However, router RTB and RTC are not
receiving each other's routes. What is the solution?
A. Configure the auto-summary command under router eigrp 1 on router RTA.
B. Issue the no ip split-horizon command on router RTA.
C. Configure subinterfaces on the spoke routers and assign different IP address subnets for each
subinterface.
D. Check and change the access lists on router RTA.
E. Issue the no ip split-horizon eigrp 1 command on router RTA.
F. Configure a distribute-list on router RTA that allows it to advertise all routes to the spoke routers.
Answer: E

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NO.2 Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement is true?
A. Router RAR1 will accept only route 10.10.0.0/19 from its BGP neighbor.
B. Router RAR1 will send only route 10.10.0.0/19 to its BGP neighbor.
C. Only traffic with a destination from 10.10.0.0/19 will be permitted.
D. Only traffic going to 10.10.0.0/19 will be permitted.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Into which two types of areas would an area border router (ABR) inject a default route.? (Choose two.)
A. the autonomous system of a different interior gateway protocol (IGP)
B. area 0
C. totally stubby
D. NSSA
E. stub
F. the autonomous system of an exterior gateway protocol (EGP)
Answer: CE

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NO.4 What are two rules for compacting IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)
A. The maximum number of times a double colon can replace a 16-bit segment that consists of all zeroes
is two.
B. The leading zeroes in any 16-bit segment do not have to be written.
C. Every 16-bit segment that consists of all zeroes can be represented with a single colon.
D. The trailing zeroes in any 16-bit segment do not have to be written.
E. Any single, continuous string of one or more 16-bit segments that consists of all zeroes can be
represented with a double colon.
F. Two zeroes in the middle of any 16-bit segment do not have to be written.
Answer: BE

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NO.5 Using the rules for IPv6 addressing, how can the address
2031:0000:240F:0000:0000:09C0:123A:121B be rewritten?
A. 2031:0:240F::09C0:123A:121B
B. 2031::240F::09C0:123A:121B
C. 2031::240F:9C0::123A:121B
D. 2031::240F:::09C0:123A:121B
Answer: A

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NO.6 What two situations could require the use of multiple routing protocols? (Choose two)
A. when using UNIX host-based routers
B. when smaller broadcast domains are desired
C. because having multiple routing protocols confuses hackers
D. when migrating from an older Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP) to a new IGP
E. when all equipment is manufactured by Cisco
F. when there are multiple paths to destination networks
Answer: AD

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NO.7 What is the difference between the IPv6 addresses ::/0 and ::/128?
A. ::/0 is the unspecified address, and ::/128 is the multicast address.
B. ::/0 is the unicast address, and ::/128 is the anycast address.
C. ::/0 is the unicast address, and ::/128 is the multicast address.
D. ::/0 is the anycast address, and ::/128 is the multicast address.
E. ::/0 is the default route, and ::/128 is the unspecified address.
F. ::/0 is the anycast address, and ::/128 is the default address.
Answer: E

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NO.8 Refer to the exhibit. Router RT-1 and router RT-2 both advertise network 131.25.0.0/16 to router RT-3
via internal BGP. What is the reason that router RT-3 chose router RT-1 as its best path to network
131.25.0.0/16.
A. It advertises the best AS-path.
B. It advertises the best origin code.
C. It advertises the best MED.
D. It advertises the best local preference.
E. It has a better router ID.
F. It advertises a lower autonomous system.
Answer: E

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NO.9 A router has two paths to reach another network in a different autonomous system. Neither route was
generated by the local router and both routes have the same default weight and local preference values.
Which statement is true about how BGP would select the best path?
A. If the command bgp always-compare-med has been given, then the router will prefer the route with the
highest MED.
B. The router will prefer the route with the lower MED.
C. The router will prefer the shortest autonomous system path.
D. To influence one route to be preferred, its default local preference value will be changed via the use of
the command bgp default local-preference 50.
Answer: C

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NO.10 How is authentication handled with OSPFv3?
A. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by SHA-1 authentication.
B. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by MD5 authentication.
C. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by IPv6 IPsec.
D. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by IPv4 IPsec.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Refer to the exhibit. Router RT-1 chooses one path to network 198.133.219.0/24. Indicate the reason
Router RT-1 chooses this "best" path.
A. In making its decision about the best path, RT-1 gives precedence to the origin code.
B. In making its decision about the best path, RT-1 gives precedence to the BGP MED values.
C. IP address 128.107.2.2 is lower than 128.107.255.2.
D. In making its decision about the best path, RT-1 prefers the IGP metrics.
E. RT-1 prefers internal BGP routes.
F. IP address 128.107.254.2 is lower than 128.107.255.2.
Answer: A

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NO.12 What are the two reasons for the appearance of 0.0.0.0 as the next hop for a network in the show ip bgp
command output? (Choose two.)
A. The network was originated via redistribution of an interior gateway protocol into BGP.
B. The network was defined by a static route.
C. The network was originated via a network or aggregate command.
D. The network was learned via EBGP.
E. The network was learned via IBGP.
Answer: AC

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NO.13 Refer to the output.
What IOS command produces this output? .
A. show ip ospf
B. show ip ospf interface
C. show ipv6 ospf interface
D. show ipv6 ospf
Answer: D

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NO.14 Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. All six routes will be installed in the routing table.
B. Two routes will be installed in the routing table.
C. Four routes will be installed in the routing table.
D. All the routes were redistributed into BGP from an IGP.
E. All the routes were originated by BGP with the network command.
Answer: CD

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NO.15 During BGP configuration on a router that has peered with other BGP speakers, the BGP command
aggregate-address 172.32.0.0 255.255.252.0 is issued. However, the peers do not receive this aggregate
network in BGP advertisements. Also, the router does not have this aggregate network in its BGP table.
Which option indicates a possible reason this command did not cause the router to advertise the
aggregate network to its peers?
A. Interface NULL 0 is likely shutdown.
B. The BGP command no synchronization is missing.
C. The BGP command no auto-summary is missing.
D. Subnets of 172.32.0.0/22 do not exist in the BGP table.
E. The IGP running on this router does not have network 172.32.0.0/22 installed.
F. The next hop IP address must be a loopback address.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Refer to the exhibit.
On the basis of the configuration that is provided, how would the BGP updates that come from router R1
be replicated inside autonomous system 65200?
A. All BGP updates that are received on router R2 will be sent to routers R3 and R4. Routers R3 and R4
will then forward those BGP updates to router R5.
B. All BGP updates that are received on router R2 will not be sent to routers R3 and R4.
C. All BGP updates that are received on router R2 will be sent directly to router R5.
D. None of the BGP updates that are received on router R2 will ever be received by router R5.
Answer: D

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NO.17 Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the information in the exhibit, which two statements are true?
(Choose two.)
A. The output was generated by entering the show ip bgp command on the ISP router.
B. The output was generated by entering the show ip bgp command on the SanJose1 router.
C. The serial 0/0/1 interface on the ISP router has been configured with the set metric 50 command.
D. The serial 0/0/1 interface on the ISP router has been configured with the set metric 75 command.
E. When traffic is sent from the ISP to autonomous system 64512, the traffic will be forwarded to
SanJose1 because of the lower MED value of SanJose1.
F. When traffic is sent from the ISP to autonomous system 64512, the traffic will be forwarded to
SanJose2 because of the higher MED value of SanJose2.
Answer: AE

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NO.18 Refer to the partial configurations in the exhibit. What address is utilized for DR and BDR identification
on Router1?
A. the serial 1/1 address
B. the serial 2/0 address
C. a randomly generated internal address
D. the configured router-id address
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which three restrictions apply to OSPF stub areas? (Choose three.)
A. No virtual links are allowed.
B. The area cannot be a backbone area.
C. Redistribution is not allowed unless the packet is changed to a type 7 packet.
D. The area has no more than 10 routers.
E. No autonomous system border routers are allowed.
F. Interarea routes are suppressed.
Answer: ABE

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NO.20 Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements are true about the partial configuration that is provided. (Choose two.)
A. All the configured neighbors are in autonomous system 100.
B. The peer group shortens the IBGP configuration.
C. The peer group shortens the EBGP configuration.
D. Only the outgoing filters are applied to BGP updates.
E. Three AS-path filters are applied to each BGP neighbor.
Answer: AB

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Exam Code: 642-427
Exam Name: Cisco (Troubleshooting Cisco Unified Communications v8.0 (TVOICE v8.0))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 194 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-18

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NO.1 Refer to the exhibit.
When calling 911, which gateway/route list is defined in the route pattern in Cisco Unified
Communications Manager and used to route matched digits to the PSTN?
A. SEP002290BA361B
B. standardLocalRG
C. RouteListCdrc
D. LRG_RL
E. nodeld=1
F. BRANCH
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which web-based application that is acessed via the Cisco Unified Communication Manager
Administrator GUI generator reports for troubleshooting or increasing cluster data.?
A. Cisco Unified Serviceability alarms
B. Cisco Unified RTMT Trace and Log Central
C. Cisco Unified RTMT Monitor
D. Cisco Unified Reporting tool
Answer: D

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NO.3 Refer to the exhibit
When a Cisco IP Communicator phone roams from San Jose(SJ) to RTP, the Cisco IP Communicatior
physical location and the device mobility group change from SJ to RTP. All route patterns are assigned a
route list that points to the local route group. All device pools are configured to use the local route group.
Which statement is true when the roaming phone places an AAR call?
A. Since globalized call routing is not configured, then the SJ gateway will be used in this case
B. The phone will use the AAR CSS that contains the SJ_PSTN partition. The call will egress at the SJ
gateway
C. The phone will use the AAR CSS that contains the RTP_PSTN partition. The call will egress at the SJ
gateway
D. The phone will use the AAR CSS that contains the SJ_PSTN partition. The call will egress at the RTP
gateway
E. The phone will use the AAR CSS that contains the RTP_PSTN partition. The call will egress at the RTP
gateway
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of these reasons can cause intrasite calls within a Cisco Unified Communications Manager
cluster to fail?
A. The route partition that is configured in the CCD requesting services is not listed in the callling phone
CSS
B. The trunk CSS does not include the partition for the called directory number.
C. The MGCP gateway is not registered
D. The calling phone does not have the correct CSS configured
E. The calling phone does not have the correct partition configured.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager troubleshooting tool can be used to look at detailed
specific events, such as dial plan digit analysis, as they are happening?
A. traceroutes
B. RTMT real-time trace
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager alerts
D. Cisco Unified Dialed Number Analyzer
E. RTMT performance log viewer
F. syslog output
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which statement about device mobility is true?
A. Where local route groups are used, there is no need to configure device mobility groups or phone
device CSSs as long as phone line CSSs are used.
B. When local route groups are used, you must configure device mobility groups and phone device CSSs.
C. When the device mobility group at the home device pool and roaming device pool are not the same,
the phone will keep the home region.
D. When device mobility groups at the home device pool and roaming device pool are the same, the
phone will keep the home MRGL setting.
Answer: A

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NO.7 When a database replication issue is suspected, which three tools can be used to check the database
replication status? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager RTMT tool
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Serviceability interface
C. Cisco Unified Reporting
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager CLI interface
E. Cisco IP Phone Device Stats from the Settings button
F. Cisco Unified OS Administration interface
Answer: ACD

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NO.8 Refer to the SDI trace in the exhibit. A PSTN call arrived at the MGCP gateway that is shown in the SDI
trace. If the caller ID that is displayed on the IP phone is 087071222 and the HQ_clng_pty_CSS contains
the HQ_clng_pty_Pt partition,which exhibit shows the correct gateway digit manipulation?
A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
Answer: A

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NO.9 Where does an IP phone obtain the extension number and speed-dial settings from?
A. the settings that are configured on the physical phone
B. the registration file that the phone receives from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. the device and line configuration in Cisco Unified Communications Manager, during the registration
process
D. the default device profile that is configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Answer: C

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NO.10 Refer to the exhibits.
Low latency queuing has been implemented on the HQ and BR1 routers to allow five G. 729 calls. Callers
are still experiencing poor audio, in particular choppy and delayed audio during traffic congestion. This
problem occurs even with just one active call. Which two actions will solve the issue?
A. Change the codec type to G. 711
B. Configure RSVP call admission control
C. Configure Link Fragmentation and Interleave on the WAN links
D. Configure RTP header compression on the WAN Links
E. Increase the priority queue bandwidth to 80 Kb/s
F. Configure location settings in Cisco Unified Communications Manager to 120Kb/s
Answer: CD

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