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NO.1 Which files should be acquired from a Windows 2003 Server system crash with a Dr.
Watson error?
A. drwtsn32.log
B. vmcore.log
C. core.log
D. memory.log
E. info.log
Answer: A

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NO.2 VPN debugging information is written to which of the following files?
A. FWDIR/log/ahttpd.elg
B. FWDIR/log/fw.elg
C. $FWDIR/log/ike.elg
D. FWDIR/log/authd.elg
E. FWDIR/log/vpn.elg
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which statement is true for route based VPNs?
A. IP Pool NAT must be configured on each gateway
B. Route-based VPNs replace domain-based VPNs
C. Route-based VPNs are a form of partial overlap VPN Domain
D. Packets are encrypted or decrypted automatically
E. Dynamic-routing protocols are not required
Answer: E

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NO.4 Which file provides the data for the host_table output, and is responsible for keeping a
record of all
internal IPs passing through the internal interfaces of a restricted hosts licensed Security
Gateway?
A. hosts.h
B. external.if
C. hosts
D. fwd.h
E. fwconn.h
Answer: D

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NO.5 You modified the *def file on your Security Gateway, but the changes were not applied.
Why?
A. There is more than one *.def file on the Gateway.
B. You did not have the proper authority.
C. *.def files must be modified on the SmartCenter Server.
D. The *.def file on the Gateway is read-only.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Assume you have a rule allowing HTTP traffic, on port 80, to a specific Web server in a
Demilitarized Zone (DMZ). If an external host port scans the Web server's IP address, what
information
will be revealed?
A. Nothing; the NGX Security Server automatically block all port scans.
B. All ports are open on the Security Server.
C. All ports are open on the Web server.
D. The Web server's file structure is revealed.
E. Port 80 is open on the Web server.
Answer: E

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NO.7 Which of the following types of information should an Administrator use tcpdump to
view?
A. DECnet traffic analysis
B. VLAN trunking analysis
C. NAT traffic analysis
D. Packet-header analysis
E. AppleTalk traffic analysis
Answer: D

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NO.8 NGX Wire Mode allows:
A. Peer gateways to establish a VPN connection automatically from predefined preshared
secrets.
B. Administrators to verify that each VPN-1 SecureClient is properly configured, before
allowing it access
to the protected domain.
C. Peer gateways to fail over existing VPN traffic, by avoiding Stateful Inspection.
D. Administrators to monitor VPN traffic for troubleshooting purposes.
E. Administrators to limit the number of simultaneous VPN connections, to reduce the traffic
load passing
through a Security Gateway.
Answer: C

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NO.1 How can you most quickly reset Secure Internal Communications (SIC) between a
Security
Management Server and Security Gateway?
A. Run the command fwm sic-reset to initialize the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) of the
Security
Management Server. Then retype the activation key on the Security Gateway from
SmartDashboard.
B. Use SmartDashboard to retype the activation key on the Security Gateway. This will
automatically
Sync SIC to both the Security Management Server and Gateway.
C. From cpconfig on the Gateway, choose the Secure Internal Communication option and
retype the
activation key. Next, retype the same key in the Gateway object in SmartDashboard and
reinitialize
Secure Internal Communications (SIC).
D. From the Security Management Server s command line, Type fw putkey p <shared key> <
IP Address
of security Gateway>.
Answer: C

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NO.2 The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows 2003
server as the
SmartConsole and a second server running SecurePlatform as both Security Management
Server and
the Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):
A. Unsupported configuration.
B. Hybrid Installation.
C. Distributed Installation.
D. Stand-Alone Installation.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following statements is TRUE about management plug-ins?
A. The plug-in is a package installed on the Security Gateway.
B. A management plug-in interacts with a Security Management Server to provide new
features and
support for new products.
C. Using a plug-in offers full central management only if special licensing is applied to
specific features of
the plug-in.
D. Installing a management plug-in is just like an upgrade process. (It overwrites existing
components.)
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which SmartConsole component can Administrators use to track remote administrative
activities?
A. WebUI
B. Eventia Reporter
C. SmartView Monitor
D. SmartView Tracker
Answer: D

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NO.5 During which step in the installation process is it necessary to note the fingerprint for
first-time
verification?
A. When establishing SIC between the Security Management Server and the Gateway
B. When configuring the Security Management Server using cpconfig
C. When configuring the Security Gateway object in SmartDashboard
D. When configuring the Gateway in the WebUl
Answer: B

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NO.6 The customer has a small Check Point installation, which includes one Linux
Enterprise 3.0 server
working as the SmartConsole, and a second server running Windows 2003 as both Security
Management
Server running Windows 2003 as both Security Management Server and Security Gateway.
This is an
example of a(n).
A. Stand-Alone Installation
B. Distributed Installation
C. Hybrid Installation
D. Unsupported configuration
Answer: D

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NO.7 You are running the Security Gateway on SecurePlatform and configure SNX with
default settings. The
client fails to connect to the Security Gateway. What is wrong?
A. The routing table on the client does not get modified.
B. The client has Active-X blocked.
C. The client is configured incorrectly.
D. The SecurePlatform Web User Interface is listening on port 443.
Answer: D

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NO.8 When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management
Server with which
other Check Point architecture component?
A. SecureClient
B. Security Gateway
C. SmartConsole
D. None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself
Answer: B

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NO.1 What represents the decimal equivalence of 11100101?
A. 5
B. 93
C. 177
D. 229
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which command is used to display all output at once?
A. show interfaces | all
B. show interfaces | no-more
C. show interfaces | hold
D. show interfaces | display-all
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the role of route preference?
A. It is used as a tiebreaker when the same prefix is available through multiple protocols.
B. It is used to determine the preferred path to a given destination.
C. It is used to select the best route between multiple equal-cost paths.
D. It is used to select which routing table to use for forwarding.
Answer: A

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NO.4 You have been allocated a 192.168.100.0/ 22 network.
How many usable hosts are available?
A. 510
B. 512
C. 1022
D. 1024
Answer: C

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NO.5 A network administrator wants to verify the active alarms on interface so-0/ 0/ 0.0.
Which command displays this information?
A. show interfaces alarms
B. show interfaces terse
C. show alarms extensive
D. show interfaces extensive
Answer: D

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NO.6 What represents the binary equivalence of 207?
A. 11001111
B. 11101011
C. 11010111
D. 11010101
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which J-Web tab do you use to add licenses to the device?
A. "Configure"
B. "Troubleshoot"
C. "Monitor"
D. "Maintain"
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which command is used to enable access to J-Web using HTTPS?
A. set system remote-access profile https
B. set services remote-access profile j-web-https
C. set system services web-management https
D. set services web-management j-web-https
Answer: C

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NO.1 The IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager V7.2.1.3 (TADDM) administrator
would like to display location tagging in Business Intelligence Reporting Tool (BIRT) based
reports. What must the TADDM administrator do to add location tagging information in BIRT
reports?
A. Modify com.collation.anchor.tag in collation.properties.
B. Modify the existing BIRT reports to add location tag information.
C. Just run the reports; location tagging is already enabled in the BIRT reports.
D. Turn on the location tagging feature when the BIRT report is run using the radio button.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which environment variable is used to specify the location of the application descriptor file?
A. DESC_FILE_LOC
B. COLLATION_HOME
C. APP_DESC_FILE_DIR
D. COLL_APP_DESC_DIR
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which tool creates the users when a file-based registry is used?
A. The LDAP Console
B. The User Admin Portal
C. The Data Management Portal
D. The Discovery Management Portal
Answer: C

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NO.4 IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager V7.2.1.3 has just been installed on a
Linux
system. Which step should the administrator do right after installation?
A. Check that firewalls have the proper ports defined
B. Ensure that SSL is turned off on the client systems
C. Verity that the Apache server is running with the appropriate settings
D. Run the command $C0LLATI0N HOME/bin/control status and check for errors
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is an Isof requirement for an IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager
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A. Isof must be run using sudo
B. Isof is not used for discovery
C. The service account must be root
D. The service account user must have a UID in the 1 - 9 range
Answer: A

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NO.6 While creating a non-admin user account for Windows discovery using IBM Tivoli Application
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A. Account is disabled
B. Password never expires
C. User cannot change password
D. User must change password at next logon
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which GUI JVM settings in the collation.properties file would be most appropriate for a large
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A. Default values are enough
B. com.collation.gui.initial.heap.size=512g
com.collation.gui.max.heap.size=1024g
C. com.collation.gui.initial.heap.size=128m
com.collation.gui.max.heap.size=512m
D. com.collation.gui.initial.heap.size=512m
com.collation.gui.max.heap.size=1024m
Answer: D

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NO.8 A customer is getting ready to set up a Level 3 profile in order to scan their production IBM
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setting up the profile?
A. Setup access list entry
B. Check the sensor reference guide in the IBM Info Center to ensure the scanned platforms are
supported target versions
C. Check if WebSphere security is turned on and if so, obtain a valid user ID and password to the
WebSphere Admin Console
D. Retrieve needed SSL WebSphere certificates and place them on the IBM Tivoli Application
Dependency Discovery Manager Console
Answer: B

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NO.1 A PureFlex business partner sales specialist is dealing with a prospective customer for a Flex
System where both x86 and POWER7 compute nodes are required. Which of the following should
the sales specialist understand for this prospect if they plan to order via AAS?
A. Flex System configurations must be ordered with an RPQ
B. Flex System configurations will require a storage node or external storage
C. Flex System configurations require business partner certification for Power Systems
D. Flex System configurations requires x86 node and POWER7 nodes reside in different chassis
Answer: C

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NO.2 A PureFlex prospect is concerned about migration of data from their existing storage to the
Storwize V7000. Which of the following is a key enabling function of the Storwize V7000 and
PureFlex storage node to support migration of data from existing supported external storage
systems to the PureFlex environment?
A. Easy Tier
B. FlashCopy
C. Volume Copy
D. Storage Virtualization
Answer: D

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NO.3 A prospect asks their PureFlex sales professional a product feature question and the salesman
does not know the answer. Which of the following resources should the sales professional contact?
A. Techline
B. Supportline
C. Competeline
D. IBM Support Center
Answer: A

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NO.4 In a meeting with a prospect customer it was mentioned that they are interested in an
integrated system sold by Oracle that includes servers, networking, management, and virtualization.
To which Oracle solution is the customer referring?
A. Vblock
B. Exalogic
C. vCloud Director
D. Unified Computing System (UCS)
Answer: B

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6. When is a SPORE or RPQ request used when designing a PureFlex Express system?
A. To manage two chassis from a single FSM
B. Change the on order system to PureFlex Enterprise
C. Create a hybrid solution which will provide additional pre-install configuration
D. Design criteria dictates interoperability with a device outside of supported combinations
Answer: D

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7. A customer wants to purchase a PureFlex Power solution and has the need to load software
onto the nodes via a DVD. What option does the customer have to satisfy this need?
A. USB DVD device
B. DVD-ROM SAS/SATA device
C. Each node has an integrated DVD
D. Chassis comes with an integrated DVD
Answer: A

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NO.5 A PureFlex prospect is excited about the PureFlex solution but is concerned about
implementation. Which of the following FSM capabilities simplify deploying PureFlex?
A. Set up wizards, element discovery, configuration patterns
B. Firmware or microcode update automatically without manual intervention
C. Both the network and storage will auto-configure without manual intervention
D. Product set up requires only plugging in network connections and powering up the chassis.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C2150-196
Exam Name: IBM Security QRadar SIEM V7.1 Implementation
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NO.1 What must be done to obtain a token for an Authorized Service for WinCollect?
A. Select Authorized Service under the WinCollect plug-in
B. Add the service as an Authorized Service in the Admin tab
C. Go to System and License Management and add an Authorized Service
D. Go to Console Settings and add the already configured WinCollect as an Authorized Service
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which infrastructure components must be present before installing any of the virtual
appliances?
A. VMware ESX 3.7 with VMware vSphere client 3.9 fix pack 12
B. VMware ESXi 4.0.8 with VMware Workstation 9.0 installed on the desktop
C. VMware ESXi 4.1 with VMware vSphere client 4.1 installed on the desktop
D. VMware Workstation 8.0.4 or above with VMware vSphere client 4.0 installed on the desktop
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which connection type to the console is required to run qchange_netsetup?
A. Local
B. SSH
C. RDP
D. Telnet
Answer: A

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NO.4 What are false positive rules?
A. Rules that create offenses that the user should ignore.
B. Rules that have matched could severely impact the environment.
C. Rules that make use of the tests relation And Not. The test that follows this relation, if positively
matched, will be negated and evaluated as not matched.
D. They are mostly made out of building blocks and filtered out events or flows from the Correlation
Rule Engine pipeline using selection criteria that deem the matching events or flows should not
contribute to an offense.
Answer: D

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NO.5 What will happen when a user sets a search as default?
A. The search will be set as the user's default search.
B. All IBM Securily Qradar SIEM V7.1 (QRadar) users will have that search set as their default search.
C. QRadar users will be able to select that search as their default from a list of searches.
D. Only users with permission to view the data in the search results will see the search as an option.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which log file contains all of the relevant logging data for IBM Security Qradar SIEM V7.1?
A. /var/Iog/qradar.txt
B. /var/Iog/qradar.log
C. /var/Iog/messages
D. /var/Iog/qradar.error
Answer: B

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NO.7 On the Index Management page, what does the value of the Data Written column represent?
A. The total amount of data the indexer has processed.
B. The total amount of data consumed on disk by the index.
C. The amount of data the indexer processed during the selected time range.
D. The amount of data consumed on the disk by the index during the selected time range.
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is a best practice when creating users and assigning roles?
A. For one-off user creation or for a quick task, assign a user to the Admin role.
B. Create a role for each user to make it easy to manage an individual's permissions.
C. To make user management less time-consuming, create general user accounts with broad to
specific permissions that can be shared between staff.
D. Group users with like duties together and create roles with permissions that satisfy their business
requirements; create roles for individuals only in cases of a special permission requirement.
Answer: D

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NO.1 How can a company monitor DHCP and DNS services on a Windows-based host?
A. use the out-of-the-box Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Agent (TEMA) for the Windows
operating system
B. use the TEMA for DHCP and TEMA for DNS
C. use the Universal Agent DHCP and DNS data provider
D. builds a custom agent using the Performance Proxy Agent
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which three APIs are used by the IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.3 agent less monitoring
agent to monitor
multiple sources? (Choose three.)
A. CIM
B. Java
C. WMI
D. SNMP
E. POSIX
F. .NET Framework
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 Which statement is true about the Tivoli Monitoring Startup Center.?
A. it upgrades the current environment
B. it is a prerequisite component that must be installed
C. it deploys an entire IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.3 environment
D. it helps discover all monitored servers and any Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring agents
Answer: C

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NO.4 When configuring a remote server in a High Availability scenario with Hot Standby for
IBM Tivoli
Monitoring V6.2.3. what must be specified during the remote server configuration?
A. only the primary hub monitoring server must be specified
B. only the secondary hub monitoring server must be specified
C. both the primary and secondary hub monitoring servers must be specified D. both the
primary and
secondary hub monitoring servers must be specified for the operating system with the remote
server
Answer: C

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NO.5 What are two ways to configure historical data collection? (Choose two.)
A. use the Command Line Interface history set of tacmd commands
B. through the History Collection Configuration window in the Tivoli Enterprise Portal
C. log into the Summarization and Pruning Agent GUI and select Configure Historical Data
Collection
D. use the separately installed Historical Data Collection Tool and connect to the Tivoli Data
Warehouse
E. right-click the Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server icon in the Manage Tivoli Enterprise
Monitoring
Services GUI and select Historical Data Collection
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 What has the most up to date information about supported components to help plan
an installation?
A. Quick Install Guide
B. Administrator Guide
C. Installation and Setup Guide
D. Software Product Compatibility Reports
Answer: D

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NO.7 In IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.3, which condition should be true if the database used
for the data
warehouse is Microsoft SQL Server?
A. the Warehouse Proxy agent should be installed on Windows
B. the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server should be installed on Windows
C. the Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server should be installed on Windows
D. the Summarization and Pruning agent should be installed on Windows
Answer: B

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NO.8 What does the activation of the self-describing agent feature trigger?
A. The agent configuration information is stored in a central inventory database.
B. The agent platform-specific information is stored in the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
embedded
database.
C. The agent environment file is given to the Warehouse Proxy agent and stored in the Tivoli
Data
Warehouse.
D. The agent application support files are distributed to and installed on all Tivoli Enterprise
Management
Servers.
Answer: D

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