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Exam Code: M2150-662
Exam Name: IBM Security Systems Sales Mastery Test v2
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M2150-662 VCE Dumps Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-08-29

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Exam Code: C2010-650
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Applying Tivoli Endpoint Manager Solutions V1
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NO.1 Which of the following is a key benefit & feature of data protection add-on?
A. Out-of-the-box compliance templates to detect credit card numbers, social security numbers,
among other sensitive data.
B. Continuous compliance to detect loss of credit card numbers, social security numbers, among
other sensitive data.
C. Patch Management to reduce the risk of data loss due to open vulnerabilities.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
* IBM Endpoint Manager for Core Protection Data Protection Add-on The optional IBM Endpoint
Manager for Core Protection Data Protection Add-on can be deployed and managed through the
IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager infrastructure. The module also helps improve data protection
capabilities while helping to control operational costs. IBM Endpoint Manager for Core Protection
Data Protection Add-on offers a robust data loss prevention and device control solution that
integrates into the anti-virus and anti-malware capabilities provided by the Core Protection solution
and can:
/ Secure data (sensitive or not) on devices that leave the business premises / Enforce security
policies such that users can access sensitive data for their jobs, but not misuse or lose that data /
Comply with the growing number of data privacy laws that affect the industry or company
Reference: IBM Endpoint Manager for Core Protection Data Protection Add-on
6. Once IBM Security Virtual Server Protection (VSP) for VMware is deployed, is there still need
for other security solutions in the virtualized servers?
A. Yes there is because VSP cannot monitor host-based events (e.g. file integrity).
B. Yes there is because VSP does not monitor all traffic in the hypervisor.
C. No there is not because VSP does monitor all traffic in the hypervisor.
D. No there is not because VSP offers several layers of security.
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are in a competitive user management/identity management/ user provisioning sale, and
the decision seems to hinge on who has the superior role management capabilities. How do you
handle this?
A. Expand the discussion to include access management and pull TAMeb into the sale.
B. Expand the discussion to include enterprise audit management and compliance and pull TSIEM
into the sale.
C. Bring Tivoli Provisioning Role Manager into the picture.
D. Tout TIM's significant role management capabilities and emphasize the fact that TIM comes with
Role and Policy Modeling in the package, whereas competitors charge extra for it.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Note:
*IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 helps you simplify and reduce cost of
administration:
/ Role modeling and mining helps facilitate the quick building of an effective role
and access structure from a business centric approach.
*Tivoli Identity Manager also provides:
A dynamic policy management engine that automates user provisioning and aids
in compliance efforts.
*IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 is an automated and policy-based solution
that manages user access across IT environments.
*IBM Tivoli Identity Manager, also known as TIM, is an Identity Management System product from
IBM.
TIM provides centralized identity lifecycle management. It can automatically create, manage, and
delete user access to various system resources such as files, servers, applications, and more
based on job roles or requests.

NO.3 Which of the following best describes QRadar Network Anomaly Detection (QNAD)?
A. QNAD is a stand-alone appliance that allows the identification of anomalies on the network.
B. QNAD feeds information about the network traffic to Site Protector.
C. QNAD is an optimized version of QRadar which complements SiteProtector to optimize network
protection.
D. QNAD identifies anomalies out of the information it imports from SiteProtector.
Answer: C

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Reference: PCTY 2012, Threat landscape and Security Intelligence v. Michael Andersson
URL:
http://www.slideshare.net/IBMDK/pcty-2012-threat-landscape-and-security-intelligence-vmichael-a
ndersson (slide 38)

NO.4 Which of the following actions can be taken with Tivoli Endpoint Manager for Mobile Device
Manager?
A. Power Management.
B. Patch distribution.
C. Disable iCloud sync.
D. All of the above.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Endpoint Manager for Mobile Devices *Enable PW Policies *Enable Device Encryption *Force
encrypted backup *(C) Disable Sync *Corporate Access, email access, and App access contingent on
Policy Compliance! *Wipe if lost / stolen
* Wipe corporate data if employee leaves company (selective wipe)

NO.5 With Tivoli Federated Identity Manager, which of the following customer scenarios is to be
addressed?
A. The provisioning of identities to more than one domain or company.
B. Strict management of privileged users' identities to absolutely ensure there is no unauthorized
sharing of their identities.
C. Cross-domain single sign-on, whether the requester is an external user or an internal employee.
D. Strong authentication requirements for any configuration.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business Key features include: Provide a base for the federation of
user identities. For standardized cross-domain authentication (federation), Tivoli Access Manager
for e-business customers can upgrade to Tivoli Federated Identity Manager - a modular access
control solution for cross-domain single sign-on.
Reference: IBM Tivoli Identity and Access Manager V1.0 and IBM Tivoli Unified Single Sign-On V1.0

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Exam Name: CompTIA Security+ Certification
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NO.1 Which of the following risk concepts requires an organization to determine the number of
failures per year?
A. SLE
B. ALE
C. MTBF
D. Quantitative analysis
Answer: B

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NO.2 A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) wants to implement two-factor authentication
within the company. Which of the following would fulfill the CISO's requirements?
A. Username and password
B. Retina scan and fingerprint scan
C. USB token and PIN
D. Proximity badge and token
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following can be implemented in hardware or software to protect a web server
from cross-site scripting attacks?
A. Intrusion Detection System
B. Flood Guard Protection
C. Web Application Firewall
D. URL Content Filter
Answer: C

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NO.4 The helpdesk reports increased calls from clients reporting spikes in malware infections on
their systems. Which of the following phases of incident response is MOST appropriate as a FIRST
response?
A. Recovery
B. Follow-up
C. Validation
D. Identification
E. Eradication
F. Containment
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following can result in significant administrative overhead from incorrect
reporting?
A. Job rotation
B. Acceptable usage policies
C. False positives
D. Mandatory vacations
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following should an administrator implement to research current attack
methodologies?
A. Design reviews
B. Honeypot
C. Vulnerability scanner
D. Code reviews
Answer: B

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NO.7 Three of the primary security control types that can be implemented are.
A. supervisory, subordinate, and peer.
B. personal, procedural, and legal.
C. operational, technical, and management.
D. mandatory, discretionary, and permanent.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Joe, the system administrator, has been asked to calculate the Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE)
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a system reboot to recover with only 10% loss of data or function. Which of the following is the ALE
of this server?
A. $500
B. $5,000
C. $25,000
D. $50,000
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 1D0-61B
Exam Name: Site Development Associate
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Exam Code: 1D0-61A
Exam Name: Internet Business Associate
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NO.1 Which <1mg> tag attribute is required in order for HTML5 documents to validate without
error?
A. id
B. alt
C. name
D. title
Answer: B

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NO.2 Marion is formatting a simple Web page. She has been asked to create headings before the
first and third paragraphs.
To accomplish this most efficiently, which type of HTML
elements should Marion use?
A. Text-level elements
B. Block quote elements
C. Fixed-width font elements
D. Paragraph-level elements
Answer: D

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NO.3 You are modifying an existing Web page that needs to validate as HTML5 code. To create a
rectangular hot-spot in an image map that links to www.xyz.com, which code would you nest inside
the <map> </map> container tags?
A. <area shape="rectangle" coords="78, 0, 156, 75" href="http://www.xyz.com" alt="xyz"
B. <area shape="rectangle" coords="78, 0, 156, 75" href="www.xyz.com" alt="xyz" />
C. <area shape="rect" coords="78, 0, 156, 75" href="http://www.xyz.com" alt="xyz" />
D. <area shape="rect" coords="78, 0, 156, 75" href=http://www.xyz.com />
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which HTML validator is best for a final check before a new Web site is published?
A. GUI HTML editor's validator
B. Your browser's add-on validator
C. W3C validator at http://validator.w3.org
D. W3C validator at http://jigsaw.w3.org/css-validator/
Answer: C

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NO.5 Consider the following HTML5 code:
The code does not validate as HTML5. Why?
A. The <article> tag is missing.
B. The <meta> tag and its attributes are missing.
C. The <blockquote> tag should be used outside the <p> tags.
D. The !DOCTYPEdeclaration is missing a reference to the Document Type Definition (DTD).
Answer: C

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NO.6 A user is submitting data from a form on your Web page to a database using a CCI script.
Which attribute of the form field elements organizes the user's information into name=value
pairs?
A. Name
B. Form
C. Value
D. Method
Answer: A

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NO.7 Katie developed her corporation's intra net site using proprietary HTML language extensions
based on the company's current browser. The company has recently updated its systems toinclude
the use of a new browser. Now the intra net site that Katie developed no longer renders its content
consistently. What should Katie do to ensure that this site's content renders consistently regardless
of the browser used?
A. Revise the site to include workarounds and hacks for the new browser.
B. Revise the site's markup language in only those areas that are not rendering properly.
C. Update the site using a single language standard consistently, such as HTML5 or XHTML.
D. Update the site using the proprietary language extensions required by the new browser's
rendering engine.
Answer: C

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NO.8 When you are using stock images in your Web site, a royalty-free license allows you to:
A. Use the images without paying a fee for each use.
B. Resell or transfer the images without paying a fee.
C. Use the images without purchasing a license.
D. Assumecopyrightof the images.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 156-915.76
Exam Name: Check Point Certified Security Expert Update Blade
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NO.1 Which of the following statement is true regarding SmartEvent Intro? SmartEvent Intro:
A. requires no license, only a contract
B. has been discontinued
C. is free, and therefore requires no license
D. only view events from one blade
Answer: D

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NO.2 Who is best able to provide the justification for allowing access to some higher risk
applications?
A. The Help Desk
B. The Security Administrator
C. The User
D. The Group Manager
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following actions applies to a Risk Level of 3 - Medium?
A. Potentially not business related
B. Can cause data leakage or malware infection without user knowledge
C. Can be misused and cause data leakage or malware infection
D. Can bypass security or hide identities
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following actions applies to a Risk Level of 1 - Very Low?
A. Can cause data leakage or malware infection without user knowledge
B. Can bypass security or hide identities
C. Potentially not business related
D. Usually business related, with low risk
Answer: D

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NO.5 Using Event Viewer in SmartEvent, a Security Administrator discovers that the Application
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A. Tor
B. PC in IE
C. YouTube
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following actions applies to a Risk Level of 4 - High?
A. Can cause data leakage or malware infection without user knowledge
B. Can bypass security or hide identities
C. Potentially not business related
D. Can be misused and cause data leakage or malware infection
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following actions applies to a Risk Level of 2 - Low?
A. Potentially not business related
B. Can bypass security or hide identities
C. Can be misused and cause data leakage or malware infection
D. Can cause data leakage or malware infection without user knowledge
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following actions applies to a Risk Level of 5 - Critical?
A. Can bypass security or hide identities
B. Potentially not business related
C. Can be misused and cause data leakage or malware infection
D. Can cause data leakage or malware infection without user knowledge
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 156-215.76
Exam Name: Check Point Certified Security Administrator - GAiA
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Last Update: 2014-08-28

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Exam Code: 156-727.77
Exam Name: Threat Prevention
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NO.1 Which of these statements describes the Check Point IPS software blade?
A. Blocks or limits usage of web applications
B. A worldwide collaborative security network
C. Prevents vulnerability exploits
D. Controls access to web sites based on category
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the minimum amount of RAM needed for a Threat Prevention Appliance?
A. 4 GB
B. It depends on the number of software blades enabled.
C. 2 GB with GAiA in 32-bit mode, 4 GB with GAiA in 64-bit mode
D. 6 GB
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of these is a Check Point Firewall attribute?
A. Malicious P2P application protection
B. Buffer overflow prevention
C. Worm injection blocking
D. Granular access control
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which software blades are characteristic to a Threat Prevention Appliance?
A. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, IPS, Identity Awareness
B. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, IPS, URL Filtering, Identity Awareness
C. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, IPS, Application Control, URL Filtering, Identity Awareness
D. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, IPS, URL Filtering, Identity Awareness, SmartEvent
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which TCP ports allow LDAP users to communicate with the Account Unit?
A. 689 clear, or 336 encrypted
B. 636 clear, or 389 encrypted
C. 336 clear, or 689 encrypted
D. 389 clear, or 636 encrypted
Answer: D

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NO.6 Check Point Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) is available in two deployment methods, as a
blade and also a dedicated appliance. What is the dedicated appliance called?
A. InterSpect Appliance
B. IPS-1 Sensor
C. Smart-1 Appliance
D. Power-1 Appliance
Answer: B

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NO.7 Can the Anti-Bot software blade be enabled on a Secure Web Gateway as well?
A. Yes, this is an optional blade for the Secure Web Gateway.
B. No, Anti-Bot needs to be part of the Threat Prevention Appliance.
C. Yes, it can be enabled if IPS is enabled as well.
D. Yes, Anti-Bot is always enabled together with Identity Awareness.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of these statements describes the Check Point ThreatCloud?
A. A worldwide collaborative security network
B. Prevents vulnerability exploits
C. Controls access to web sites based on category
D. Blocks or limits usage of web applications
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 9L0-415
Exam Name: OS X Support Essentials 10.9
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NO.1 Which application do you use to configure and monitor the Software Update service on a
computer running OS X Server?
A. Server app
B. A web browser
C. Workgroup Manager
D. Profile Manager
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which typeofnetwork disk image Should you create to perform a block copy to install a disk
image on a Mac?
A. NetBoot
B. NetInstall
C. NetRestore
Answer: C

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Reference:http://training.apple.com/pdf/Mac_Management_Basics_10.8.pdf(page 15, netrestore)
6. Which utility do you use to create network boot images?
A. hdiutil
B. Disk Utility
C. System Image Utility
D. NetBoot Imaging Utility
Answer: C

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Reference:http://support.apple.com/kb/PH15419(disk images, second para)
7. Which THREE reports can Apple Remote Desktop run by default? (Choose THREE)
A. CPU Usage
B. Software Serial Number
C. Software Version
D. Application Usage
E. Software Difference
F. Network Usage
Answer: C,D,F

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8. You have a USB flash drive connected to a Mavericks computer that has the OS X Mavericks
Installer app downloaded. Which of these stepsshould you performto make the flash drive a
bootable installer volume?
A. Use Disk Utility to restore the disk image contained within the OS X Mavericks Installer app to the
USB flash drive
B. In Terminal, use the create install media command contained within the OS X Mavericks Installer
app to make the flash drive bootable using Installer app
C. In Terminal, use diskutil command to restore the disk image contained within the OS X Mavericks
Installer app to the USB flash drive
D. Copy the OS X Mavericks Installer app to the flash drive and create a workflow in Automator that
uses the Bless Installer Volume action to make the flash drive bootable
Answer: A

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NO.3 What's the file extension for a configuration profile?
A. .xml
B. .plist
C. .profile
D. .mobileconfig
Answer: B

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Reference:http://training.apple.com/pdf/wp_osx_configuration_profiles_mav.pdf(p.7)

NO.4 You have configured a computer with OS X Server to act as a Caching server. Which
networking requirement must be in place so that clientcomputers can use theCaching server?
A. The server and client computers must share the same public IP address behind a NAT.
B. All client computers must use static IP addresses.
C. All client computers must be on the same subnet.
D. All client computers must be on the same Wi-Fi network.
Answer: C

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NO.5 When configuring your firewall to let your MDM use the Apple Push Notification service,
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A. 17.0.0.0/ 8
B. 17.151.0.0/16
C. 17.151.36.0/ 23
D. 17.151.140.0/ 24
E. 17.151.140.30
F. 17.151.20.254
Answer: A

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Exam Code: BCABA
Exam Name: Board Certified Assistant Behavior Analyst
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NO.1 Before recruitment of participants for a research study begins, a behavior analyst needs to:
A. obtain consent from participant(s) or legal guardian(s) if necessary.
B. obtain institutional review board approval or equivalent (e.g., an ethics committee).
C. inform participants of their ability to withdraw from the study.
D. inform participants about ethical requirements and experimental procedures.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What must happen for an alternating-treatments design to be optimally effective?
A. An additional return to baseline is undertaken.
B. Criterion changes are gradual to ensure compliance.
C. Participants discriminate easily between treatment conditions.
D. Participants engage in multiple problem behaviors.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Trials to criterion refers to a measure of
A. fluency.
B. performance.
C. rate of correct responding.
D. interobserver agreement.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Terry notices that his heart rate increases and he begins to sweat when he enters the
dentist's office because the office is associated with painful, unpleasant dental work. He also is
reluctant to make appointments and seems to want to do anything else but go to the dentist. His
physical symptoms are an example oF.
A. operant behavior.
B. respondent behavior.
C. escape conditioning.
D. aversive conditioning.
Answer: B

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NO.5 When LeRoy sees his father arrive home, he begins to clean his room. Given this information,
we can conclude ONLY that the father's arrival is:
A. an antecedent.
B. a discriminative stimulus.
C. an establishing operation.
D. a visual prompt.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which situation is likely to be an example of negative reinforcement?
A. A child puts a coin into a machine and gets a gumball.
B. An employee submits reports to a nagging boss and boss stops nagging.
C. An employee submits time sheet to payroll department and gets paid on Friday.
D. A student has a tantrum and the teacher gives a hug to calm them down.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which procedure is used in fading physical prompts?
A. forward chaining
B. backward chaining
C. graduated guidance
D. least-to-most prompting
Answer: C

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NO.8 A person engages in target behaviors in environments different from the original training
environment. This is a demonstration of
A. stimulus generalization.
B. response generalization.
C. stimulus discrimination.
D. response induction.
Answer: A

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