2014年2月28日星期五

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Exam Code: M2040-642
Exam Name: IBM (ICS Social Software Sales Mastery Test v2)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 47 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-28

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NO.1 What is happening to an organization s business network?
A. Changing from the ground up
B. Creating new sales potentials
C. Delivering on new promised Web 2.0 ideas
D. Related computer systems are only involved
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are the five IT eras that are listed as transformational technologies in IT?
A. Hardware, Database, Software, Web 2.0, XML
B. Mainframe, Departmental, PCs, Internet, Social
C. Vacuum tube, Transistor, RAM, vRAM, Quantum Effect
D. Fortran, COBOL, Basic, C++, Java
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is another characteristic of a Social Business other than being engaging and
nimble?
A. Technically strong
B. Has a strong presence in the Internet
C. Transparent
D. Informal
Answer: C

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NO.4 What design theme allows IBM Connections to be plugged in and accessed from a
variety of different
software and mobile products?
A. Social everywhere
B. Idea center
C. Social forums
D. Blogs
Answer: A

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NO.5 Three key attributes to focus on for designing for reputation and risk management are:
have a plan, be
proactive and fast, and __________________.
A. ensure that strategies are pushed down into the organization
B. limit access to social media site by employees and partners
C. do not respond to negative statements in social media sites
D. be transparent with two-way dialog
Answer: A

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Exam Code: M2040-641
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Exceptional Web Experience Sales Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-28

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NO.1 At a high level, WebSphere Portal allows you to _____________.
A. defragment unbuffered sectors, optimize disk storage, integrate RAID devices
B. create pivot tables, summarize column data, paste across multiple cells
C. integrate content, applications and processes; reach out to a wide variety of devices, and
engage
users so they can create, target, socialize, optimize and realize.
D. color sample across images, retouch blurry photos, create freehand mask selections
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is a suggested sales tactic to use when a customer requests a specific point
solution for their
environment, like ° j us t need an i Phone app f o r m y w ebs it e , t ha t' s a l ¡ ±
A. Refer them to Apple's website.
B. Start lowering the price of your services and software bid.
C. Invite your technical architect to tell them about developing iPhone apps.
D. Show them a demo of all the possibilities that an Exceptional Web Experience can offer
them.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the name of the interactive prospecting tool that you can take your customers
through to get a
sense of what they need to improve on to become a social business.?
A. WebSphere Portal Zone
B. ICAT (IBM Collaboration Assessment Tool)
C. IBM Smarter Planet
D. Lotus Greenhouse
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is a general definition of an IBM WebSphere Portal Industry Template?
A. It is a website-in-a-box
B. It is a downloadable PDF document
C. It is an introductory-priced services engagement
D. It is the fullest featured offering of WebSphere Portal
Answer: A

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NO.5 What development tool can create template-based portlets as well as mobile
applications for
WebSphere Portal?
A. IBM Web Content Manager
B. IBM Lotus Domino Designer
C. IBM Mashup Center
D. IBM Web Experience Factory
Answer: D

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Exam Code: A2150-575
Exam Name: IBM (Assess: IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2)
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Total Q&A: 135 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-28

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NO.1 What is the default file name of the IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator log?
A. tdi.log
B. ibmdi.log
C. ibmdisrv.log
D. ibmdirectoryintegrator.log
Answer: B

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NO.2 When is IBM WebSphere Application Server required for IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2
(TFIM)?
A. It is always required for TFIM.
B. When it is used as the point of contact.
C. When the Management Console GUI is used.
D. When Web Services Security Management is used
Answer: A

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NO.3 Custom Java mapping functions must be deployed into which IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager
V6.2.2 directory?
A. Plug-ins
B. Add-ins
C. Mappings
D. Extensions
Answer: A

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NO.4 A company wants to establish a Federated Single Sign-On (FSSO) relationship with a partner identity
provider to allow partner administrator access. This company provides services for credit card processing.
What is the most secure choice for the FSSO protocol?
A. OpenID using Associate Mode
B. SAML 2.0 using HTTP Redirect/POST bindings, signed response, and signed assertion
C. SAML 1.1 using a Browser/POST profile, signed response and assertion, and a narrow assertion
validity window of only a few seconds
D. SAML 2.0 using an HTTP-Artifact binding, signed response and assertion, an encrypted assertion, and
a narrow assertion validity window of only a few seconds
Answer: D

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NO.5 When configuring WebSEAL as the point of contact for IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2
using the WebSEAL No ACLD profile, which configuration requirement(s) are relevant?
A. This option must be set: Disable Access Manager (IVCred) credential issuing (requires EAI to be
configured).
B. This option must be cleared: Enable Access Manager (IVCred) credential issuing (requires PDJRTE to
be configured).
C. This option must be set: Disable Access Manager (IVCred) credential issuing (requires EAI to be
configured); and the no-acid tag value attribute must be defined in the WebSEAL configuration.
D. This option must be cleared: Enable Access Manager (IVCred) credential issuing (requires PDJRTE to
be configured); and the no-acid tag value attribute must be defined in the WebSEAL configuration.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What does this XSL code do?
<xsl:template match-'@* | node()">
<xsl:copy>
<xsl:apply-templates select="@* | node()"/>
</xsl:copy>
</xsl:template>
A. It makes a copy of the template transforms on the input document.
B. It performs a series of transforms on a copy of the input document.
C. It creates a new copy of the input document, copying all attributes, but not elements.
D. It creates a new copy of the input document, copying all elements, but not attributes.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is always required when creating an IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM) Single
Sign-On federation partner?
A. A signer certificate
B. A login protocol endpoint
C. A metadata file containing the partner definitions
D. A federation default or partner-specific mapping rule or function
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which statement is true regarding event pages when creating a federation in IBM Tivoli Federated
Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM)?
A. Event pages are tied to a protocol and not to a specific federation.
B. Event pages must be created (or copied from the defaults) and stored in the federation event directory.
C. Event pages can use the @FEDSTATUS@ macro to provide detailed Single Sign-On status
information to the user.
D. When creating event pages for a federation, it is important to append the federation name to the event
page filename so the TFIM runtime will use that instead of the default protocol event page.
Answer: A

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NO.9 A client has installed IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM) and is establishing a SAML
1.1 Single Sign-On (SSO) configuration with a service provider (SP). The client wants to provide
SP-initiated Federated SSO. How can this be accomplished?
A. A link or redirect to the SP login endpoint with the parameters SP_PROVIDER_ID and target can be
used to initiate the protocol at the SP. The SP will then redirect the user to the corresponding identity
provider (IdP) login endpoint.
B. A link or redirect to the SP login endpoint with the parameters IDP_PROVIDER_ID and target can be
used to initiate the protocol at the SP. The SP will then redirect the user to the corresponding IdP login
endpoint.
C. Because a SP-initiated sign-on is not supported in SAML 1.1, this can be simulated by using a link or
an HTTP 302 redirect to the IdP login endpoint with the query string parameters SP_PROVIDER_ID and
TARGET to initiate the protocol.
D. Because a SP-initiated sign-on is not supported in SAML 1.1, and only an HTTP POST to the IdP can
be used to initiate the protocol, the SP must generate an HTTP 200 response containing a form with the
SP_PROVIDER_ID and target values which is self-posted to the IdP login endpoint.
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is a trust service chain in IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM)?
A. It is a defined set of WS-Trust security tokens, which together form a proof of trust and are organized
sequentially in their correct order of precedence.
B. It is a defined set of WS-Security trust tokens, which together form a proof of claim and are organized
sequentially in their correct order of precedence.
C. It is a defined set of individual processing module instances, collectively executed in a specific order,
with the interface to and roles for each module conforming to the WS-Trust model.
D. It is a defined set of individual processing module instances which are always executed in the specific
order required by the authentication flow, with the interface to and roles for each module conforming to the
WS-Trust model.
Answer: C

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NO.11 A customer uses WebSEAL as the point of contact for IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2
(TFIM) where IBM Tivoli Access Manager (TAM) is configured to support Federal Information Processing
Standards (FIPS). When running the tfimcfg.jar tool this error is received:
FBTTAC1161 The SSL handshake failed. Retrying connection with certificate validation disabled
What must be done?
A. TFIM must be configured for SSL communication.
B. FIPS must be enabled on all TFIM WebSphere servers.
C. The TAM public certificates must be imported to the WebSphere trust store.
D. The tfimcfg.jar tool needs to run with the-sslfactory TLS argument.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which statement is true about the IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 Business Gateway?
A. Users can use several gateway protocols.
B. Users can access external Web services.
C. Users can create Federated Single Sign-On partnerships with multiple providers.
D. Users cannot create Federated Single Sign-On partnerships with multiple providers.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button.
Which three statements are true regarding this SAML 1.1 flow diagram.? (Choose three.)
A. The HTTP request in Step 3 is a GET.
B. The assertion is sent with an HTTP 200 response in Step 2.
C. An artifact value is sent with an HTTP 302 response in Step 2.
D. This is a Browser/POST profile, so in Step 3 the assertion is sent to the Assertion Consumer Service
endpoint through an HTTP POST of an HTML form.
E. The HTTP response in Step 5 must be a 302 redirect based upon the resource requested and the
user's authorized access which is determined by the response in Step 4.
F. This is a Browser/Artifact profile, so the artifact received in Step 2 must be sent to the Artifact
Resolution Service in Step 3, and the assertion must be retrieved through a SOAP backchannel in Step 4.
Answer: A,C,F

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NO.14 Which partner vouches for the identity of a user in a Single Sign-On federation?
A. Relying party
B. Attribute party
C. Service provider
D. Identity provider
Answer: D

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NO.15 What does SAML stand for?
A. System Access Markup Language
B. Security Assertion Markup Language
C. Server Authenticated Markup Language
D. Secure Authentication Markup Language
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which roles are typically defined in an IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 Single Sign-On
federation configuration?
A. Relying Party or Service Provider
B. Asserting Party or Service Provider
C. Identity Provider or Asserting Party
D. Identity Provider or Service Provider
Answer: D

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NO.17 What is always required when deploying the IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 runtime and
management service?
A. WebSEAL
B. IBM HTTP Server
C. IBM Tivoli Identity Manager
D. IBM WebSphere Application Server
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which HTTP status code is always issued by an identity provider using SAML 1.1 Browser/POST when
communicating with the Assertion Consumer Service?
A. 101
B. 200
C. 206
D. 302
Answer: B

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NO.19 Given IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 configured as an OpenID provider, what is a
correct statement regarding processing of attributes when using an IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator
AssemblyLine as a mapping function?
A. Only requested attributes can be returned.
B. All attributes requested must be BASE64 encoded to ensure proper handling.
C. The AssemblyLine must assure that values for non-optional attributes are returned.
D. Requested attributes that have an empty value (not an empty string) must be removed and cannot be
returned.
Answer: C

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NO.20 What is XSLT?
A. A concatenative language for transforming input XML documents into new documents, which typically
takes an XML source document and applies template rules to subexpressions, producing a new output
document.
B. A declarative language for transforming input XML documents into new documents, which typically
takes an XML source document and applies template rules in an XSLT stylesheet to it, producing a new
output document.
C. An imperative language for transforming input XML documents into new documents, which typically
takes an XML source document and applies template rules in an XSLT stylesheet to it, producing a new
output document.
D. A automata-based language for transforming input XML documents into new documents, which
typically takes an XML source document and applies template rules to transition element states,
producing a new output document.
Answer: B

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2014年2月27日星期四

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NO.1 Which answers are TRUE? Automatic Static NAT CANNOT be used when:
i) NAT decision is based on the destination port
ii) Source and Destination IP both have to be translated
iii) The NAT rule should only be installed on a dedicated Gateway only
iv) NAT should be performed on the server side
A.(i), (ii), and (iii)
B.(i), and (ii)
C.ii) and (iv)
D.only (i)
Answer: D

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NO.2 Blocked connections

NO.3 SIC certificates

NO.4 Manual NAT rules

NO.5 Which of the following uses the same key to decrypt as it does to encrypt?
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B.Symmetric encryption
C.Certificate-based encryption
D.Dynamic encryption
Answer: A

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NO.6 Gateway licenses
A.3, 4, 5, 6, 9, 12, 13
B.5, 6, 9, 12, 13
C.1, 2, 8, 10, 11
D.2, 4, 7, 10, 11
Answer: B

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3.You believe Phase 2 negotiations are failing while you are attempting to configure a site-to-site VPN
with one of your firm's business partners.Which SmartConsole application should you use to confirm your
suspicions?
A.SmartDashboard
B.SmartView Tracker
C.SmartUpdate
D.SmartView Status
Answer: C

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4.You are running a R71 Security Gateway on SecurePlatform, in case of a hardware failure.You have a
server with the exact same hardware and firewall version Installed.What backup method could be used to
quickly put the secondary firewall into production?
A.Upgrade_export
B.Manual backup
C.Snapshot
D.Backup
Answer: C

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5.Your company is still using traditional mode VPN configuration on all Gateways and policies.Your
manager now requires you to migrate to a simplified VPN policy to benefit from the new features.
This needs to be done with no downtime due to critical applications which must run constantly.How would
you start such a migration?
A.This cannot be done without downtime as a VPN between a traditional mode Gateway and a simplified
mode Gateway does not work.
B.You first need to completely rewrite all policies in simplified mode and then push this new policy to all
Gateways at the same time.
C.This can not be done as it requires a SIC- reset on the Gateways first forcing an outage.
D.Convert the required Gateway policies using the simplified VPN wizard, check their logic and then
migrate Gateway per Gateway.
Answer: D

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6.What physical machine must have access to the User Center public IP address when checking for new
packages with smartUpdate?
A.SmartUpdate GUI PC
B.SmartUpdate Repository SQL database Server
C.A Security Gateway retrieving the new upgrade package
D.SmartUpdate installed Security Management Server PC
Answer: A

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7.In SmartView Tracker, which rule shows when a packet is dropped due to anti-spoofing?
A.Blank field under Rule Number
B.Rule 0
C.Cleanup Rule
D.Rule 1
Answer: B

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8.The URL Filtering Policy can be configured to monitor URLs in order to:
A.Log sites from blocked categories.
B.Redirect users to a new URL.
C.Block sites only once.
D.Alert the Administrator to block a suspicious site.
Answer: A

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9.The Customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows XP workstation as
SmartConsole, one Solaris server working as security Management Server, and a third server running
SecurePlatform as Security Gateway.This is an Example of a (n):
A.Stand-Alone Installation.
B.Unsupported configuration
C.Distributed Installation
D.Hybrid Installation.
Answer: C

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10.You want to implement Static Destination NAT in order to provide external, Internet users access to an
internal Webserver that has a reserved (RFC 1918) IP address You have an unused valid IP address on
the network between your Security Gateway and ISP router.You control the router that sits between the
external interface of the firewall and the Internet.What is an alternative configuration if proxy ARP cannot
be used on your Security Gateway?
A.Place a static host route on the firewall for the valid IP address to the internal Web server.
B.Place a static ARP entry on the ISP router for the valid IP address to the firewall s external address.
C.Publish a proxy ARP entry on the ISP router instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
D.Publish a proxy ARP entry on the internal Web server instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-215.71   156-215.71
11.The third-shift Administrator was updating Security Management Server access settings in global
properties.He managed to lock all of the administrators out of their accounts.How should you unlock these
accounts?
A.Login to SmartDashboard as the special cpconfig_admin user account, right click on administrator
object and select Unlock.
B.Type fwm lock_admin -ua from the command line of the Security Manager server.
C.Reinstall the Security Management Server and restore using upgrade_import.
D.Delete the file admin.lock in the $fwDIR/tmp/ directory of the Security Management server.
Answer: B

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12.You find a suspicious connection from a problematic host.You decide that you want to block everything
from that whole network, not just the problematic host.You want to block this for an hour while you
investigate further, but you do not want to add any rules to the Rule Base.How do you achieve this?
A.Add a °t e m po r a r ¡± rule u si n g Sm a r t D ashbo ard an d s el e c t hi d e ru.
B.Create a Suspicious Activity Rule in SmartView Monitor
C.Use dbedit to script the addition of a rule directly into the Rule Bases_5_0.fws configuration file.
D.Select block intruder from the tools menu in SmartView Tracker.
Answer: B

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13.The Check Point Security Gateway's virtual machine (kernel) exists between which two layers of the
OSI model?
A.Session and Network layers
B.Application and Presentation layers
C.Physical and Data link layers
D.Network and Data link layers
Answer: D

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NO.7 If you check the box Use Aggressive Mode in the IKE Properties dialog box, the standard:
A.three-packet IKE Phase 2 exchange Is replaced by a six-packet exchange
B.three-packet IKE Phase 2 exchange is replaced by a two-packet exchange
C.six-packet IKE Phase 1 exchange is replaced by a three-packet exchange
D.three-packet IKE Phase 1 exchange is replaced by a six-packet exchange
Answer: C

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NO.8 You have created a rule Base Firewall, websydney.Now you are going to create a new policy package
with security and address transaction rules for a secured gateway.What is true about the new package s
NAT rules?
A.Rules 1 and 5 will be appear in the new package
B.Rules 1, 3, 4and 5 will appear in the new package
C.Rules 2, 3 and 4 will appear in the new package
D.NAT rules will be empty in the new package
Answer: C

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NO.9 When configuring the network interfaces of a checkpoint Gateway, the direction can be defined as
Internal or external.
What is meaning of interface leading to DMZ?
A.It defines the DMZ Interface since this information is necessary for Content Control.
B.Using restricted Gateways, this option automatically turns off the counting of IP Addresses originating
from this interface
C.When selecting this option.Ann-Spoofing is configured automatically to this net.
D.Activating this option automatically turns this interface to External
Answer: A

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NO.10 SmartView Tracker traffic logs

NO.11 For which service is it NOT possible to configure user authentication?
A.HTTPS
B.FTP
C.SSH
D.Telnet
Answer: C

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NO.12 Implied Rules

NO.13 Latency has lost SIC communication with her Security Gateway and she needs to re establish
SIC.What would be the correct order of steps needed to perform this task?
1) Create a new activation key on the Security Gateway, then exit cpconfig.
2) Click the Communication tab on the Security Gateway object, and then click Reset.
3) Run the cpconfig tool, and then select Secure Internal Communication to reset.
4) Input the new activation key in the Security Gateway object, and then click initialize
5) Run the cpconfig tool, then select source Internal Communication to reset.
A.5, 4, 1, 2
B.2, 3, 1, 4
C.2, 5, 1, 4
D.3, 1, 4, 2
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which port must be allowed to pass through enforcement points in order to allow packet logging to
operate correctly?
A.514
B.256
C.257
D.258
Answer: C

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NO.15 What can NOT be selected for VPN tunnel sharing?
A.One tunnel per subnet pair
B.One tunnel per Gateway pair
C.One tunnel per pair of hosts
D.One tunnel per VPN domain pair
Answer: D

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NO.16 Of the following, what parameters will not be preserved when using Database Revision Control?
1) Simplified mode Rule Bases
2) Traditional mode Rule Bases

NO.17 Which of these security policy changes optimize Security Gateway performance?
A.Use Automatic NAT rules instead of Manual NAT rules whenever possible
B.Putting the least-used rule at the top of the Rule Base
C.Using groups within groups in the manual NAT Rule Base
D.Using domain objects in rules when possible
Answer: A

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NO.18 Gateway route table

NO.19 An advantage of using central instead of local licensing is:
A.A license can be taken from one Security Management server and given to another Security
Management Server.
B.Only one IP address is used for all licenses.
C.Licenses are automatically attached to their respective Security Gateways.
D.The license must be renewed when changing the IP address of security Gateway.Each module s
license has a unique IP address.
Answer: B

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NO.20 SmartView Tracker audit logs

NO.21 While in Smart View Tracker, Brady has noticed some very odd network traffic that he thinks could be
an intrusion.He decides to block the traffic for 60 but cannot remember all the steps.What is the correct
order of steps needed to perform this?
1) Select the Active Mode tab In Smart view Tracker
2) Select Tools > Block Intruder
3) Select the Log Viewing tab in SmartView Tracker
4) Set the Blocking Time out value to 60 minutes
5) Highlight the connection he wishes to block
A.3, 2, 5, 4
B.3, 5, 2, 4
C.1, 5, 2, 4
D.1, 2, 5, 4
Answer: C

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NO.22 A Web server behind the Security Gateway is set to Automatic Static NAT.Client side NAT is not
checked in the Global Properties.A client on the Internet initiates a session to the Web Server.Assuming
there is a rule allowing this traffic, what other configuration must be done to allow the traffic to reach the
Web server?
A.Automatic ARP must be unchecked in the Global Properties.
B.A static route must be added on the Security Gateway to the internal host.
C.Nothing else must be configured.
D.A static route for the NAT IP must be added to the Gateway's upstream router.
Answer: B

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NO.23 Secure Platform WebUI Users

NO.24 Which type of resource could a Security Administrator use to control access to specific file shares on
target machines?
A.URI
B.CIFS
C.Telnet
D.FTP
Answer: B

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NO.25 You run cpconfig to reset SIC on the Security Gateway.After the SIC reset operation is complete, the
policy that will be installed is the
A.Last policy that was installed
B.Default filter
C.Standard policy
D.Initial policy
Answer: D

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NO.26 Phase 1 uses________.
A.Conditional
B.Sequential
C.Asymmetric
D.Symmetric
Answer: C

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NO.27 Security Gateway R71 supports User Authentication for which of the following services? Select the
response below that contains the most complete list of supported services.
A.FTP, HTTP, TELNET
B.FTP, TELNET
C.SMTP, FTP, HTTP, TELNET
D.SMTP, FTP, TELNET
Answer: A

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NO.28 IPS Profiles

NO.29 A rule _______ is designed to log and drop all other communication that does not match another rule?
A.Stealth
B.Cleanup
C.Reject
D.Anti-Spoofing
Answer: B

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NO.30 VPN communities

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Exam Code: 156-215-71
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Administrator R71)
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Total Q&A: 563 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-27

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NO.1 IPS Profiles

NO.2 Of the following, what parameters will not be preserved when using Database Revision Control?
1) Simplified mode Rule Bases
2) Traditional mode Rule Bases

NO.3 Secure Platform WebUI Users

NO.4 Blocked connections

NO.5 VPN communities

NO.6 Gateway licenses
A.3, 4, 5, 6, 9, 12, 13
B.5, 6, 9, 12, 13
C.1, 2, 8, 10, 11
D.2, 4, 7, 10, 11
Answer: B

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3. You believe Phase 2 negotiations are failing while you are attempting to configure a site-to-site VPN
with one of your firm's business partners.Which SmartConsole application should you use to confirm your
suspicions?
A.SmartDashboard
B.SmartView Tracker
C.SmartUpdate
D.SmartView Status
Answer: C

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4. You are running a R71 Security Gateway on SecurePlatform, in case of a hardware failure.You have a
server with the exact same hardware and firewall version Installed.What backup method could be used to
quickly put the secondary firewall into production?
A.Upgrade_export
B.Manual backup
C.Snapshot
D.Backup
Answer: C

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5. Your company is still using traditional mode VPN configuration on all Gateways and policies.Your
manager now requires you to migrate to a simplified VPN policy to benefit from the new features.
This needs to be done with no downtime due to critical applications which must run constantly.How would
you start such a migration?
A.This cannot be done without downtime as a VPN between a traditional mode Gateway and a simplified
mode Gateway does not work.
B.You first need to completely rewrite all policies in simplified mode and then push this new policy to all
Gateways at the same time.
C.This can not be done as it requires a SIC- reset on the Gateways first forcing an outage.
D.Convert the required Gateway policies using the simplified VPN wizard, check their logic and then
migrate Gateway per Gateway.
Answer: D

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6. What physical machine must have access to the User Center public IP address when checking for new
packages with smartUpdate?
A.SmartUpdate GUI PC
B.SmartUpdate Repository SQL database Server
C.A Security Gateway retrieving the new upgrade package
D.SmartUpdate installed Security Management Server PC
Answer: A

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7. In SmartView Tracker, which rule shows when a packet is dropped due to anti-spoofing?
A.Blank field under Rule Number
B.Rule 0
C.Cleanup Rule
D.Rule 1
Answer: B

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8. The URL Filtering Policy can be configured to monitor URLs in order to:
A.Log sites from blocked categories.
B.Redirect users to a new URL.
C.Block sites only once.
D.Alert the Administrator to block a suspicious site.
Answer: A

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9. The Customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows XP workstation as
SmartConsole, one Solaris server working as security Management Server, and a third server running
SecurePlatform as Security Gateway.This is an Example of a (n):
A.Stand-Alone Installation.
B.Unsupported configuration
C.Distributed Installation
D.Hybrid Installation.
Answer: C

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10. You want to implement Static Destination NAT in order to provide external, Internet users access to an
internal Webserver that has a reserved (RFC 1918) IP address You have an unused valid IP address on
the network between your Security Gateway and ISP router.You control the router that sits between the
external interface of the firewall and the Internet.What is an alternative configuration if proxy ARP cannot
be used on your Security Gateway?
A.Place a static host route on the firewall for the valid IP address to the internal Web server.
B.Place a static ARP entry on the ISP router for the valid IP address to the firewall s external address.
C.Publish a proxy ARP entry on the ISP router instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
D.Publish a proxy ARP entry on the internal Web server instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
Answer: B

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11. The third-shift Administrator was updating Security Management Server access settings in global
properties.He managed to lock all of the administrators out of their accounts.How should you unlock these
accounts?
A.Login to SmartDashboard as the special cpconfig_admin user account, right click on administrator
object and select Unlock.
B.Type fwm lock_admin -ua from the command line of the Security Manager server.
C.Reinstall the Security Management Server and restore using upgrade_import.
D.Delete the file admin.lock in the $fwDIR/tmp/ directory of the Security Management server.
Answer: B

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12. You find a suspicious connection from a problematic host.You decide that you want to block everything
from that whole network, not just the problematic host.You want to block this for an hour while you
investigate further, but you do not want to add any rules to the Rule Base.How do you achieve this?
A.Add a °t e mpor ar ¡± rule usi ng Smar t Dashboard and sel ect hi de ru.
B.Create a Suspicious Activity Rule in SmartView Monitor
C.Use dbedit to script the addition of a rule directly into the Rule Bases_5_0.fws configuration file.
D.Select block intruder from the tools menu in SmartView Tracker.
Answer: B

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13. The Check Point Security Gateway's virtual machine (kernel) exists between which two layers of the
OSI model?
A.Session and Network layers
B.Application and Presentation layers
C.Physical and Data link layers
D.Network and Data link layers
Answer: D

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NO.7 Phase 1 uses________.
A.Conditional
B.Sequential
C.Asymmetric
D.Symmetric
Answer: C

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NO.8 Manual NAT rules

NO.9 SmartView Tracker traffic logs

NO.10 Implied Rules

NO.11 SIC certificates

NO.12 An advantage of using central instead of local licensing is:
A.A license can be taken from one Security Management server and given to another Security
Management Server.
B.Only one IP address is used for all licenses.
C.Licenses are automatically attached to their respective Security Gateways.
D.The license must be renewed when changing the IP address of security Gateway.Each module s
license has a unique IP address.
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-215-71   156-215-71

NO.13 Gateway route table

NO.14 If you check the box Use Aggressive Mode in the IKE Properties dialog box, the standard:
A.three-packet IKE Phase 2 exchange Is replaced by a six-packet exchange
B.three-packet IKE Phase 2 exchange is replaced by a two-packet exchange
C.six-packet IKE Phase 1 exchange is replaced by a three-packet exchange
D.three-packet IKE Phase 1 exchange is replaced by a six-packet exchange
Answer: C

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NO.15 SmartView Tracker audit logs

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B. Define reusable expressions.
C. Define the permissions on reports
D. Define ODBC user directory attributes.
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Last Update: 2014-02-27

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NO.1 How can you limit the servers that are authorized to perform backups on a Windows client
agent
object?
A. Configure password security.
B. Set the Backup Priority to High.
C. Generate an access control list (ACL).
D. Change the port number used by the agent.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Some application programs can cache file writes on the workstation on which they are run.
How
can you prevent resulting data integrity issues when using the Agent for Open Files?
A. Disable retry mechanisms in your backup program.
B. Enable Extended Features in the Agent for Open Files.
C. Configure the application, if possible, to prevent write caching.
D. Enable Auto Sense in the Sync Method section of the Agent for Open Files.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which statement about Restore by Image is TRUE?
A. It is included in all CA ARCserve Backup r16 modules.
B. The Restore by Image sessions can be restored to network drives.
C. During a Restore by Image session, files can be open but they are still overwritten.
D. Selecting multiple sources is only permitted when using the Restore to Original Location option.
Answer: D

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NO.4 After you complete the Diagnostic Wizard in the CA ARCserve Backup Diagnostic Utility, a file
is
created. In which GUI do you view this file?
A. Report Manager
B. Job Status Manager
C. Diagnostic Log Manager
D. Diagnostic Report Manager
Answer: D

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NO.5 To enable enhanced User Profile Manager, role management, and Windows account support,
on
the primary server, you need to install the CA ARCserve Backup:
A. Standard module.
B. Advanced module.
C. Enterprise module.
D. Enterprise Plus module.
Answer: C

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NO.6 When backing up SharePoint Server data using the CA ARCserve Backup Agent for Microsoft
SharePoint, how is the backup initiated?
A. SharePoint Server sends a request to the Agent for Microsoft SharePoint.
B. The Agent for Microsoft SharePoint sends a request to SharePoint Server.
C. CA ARCserve Backup Server sends a request to the Agent for Microsoft SharePoint.
D. The Agent for Microsoft SharePoint sends a request to CA ARCserve Backup Server.
Answer: C

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