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Exam Code: IIA-CCSA
Exam Name: Certification in Control Self-Assessment
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Last Update: 2014-05-03

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Exam Code: IIA-CFSA
Exam Name: Certified Financial Services Auditor
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Exam Code: IIA-CIA-Part3
Exam Name: Certified Internal Auditor - Part 3 study guide with online review
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NO.1 Which of the following situation would not impair audit objectivity?
A. An auditor is assigned to audit a business function that the auditor was responsible for nine
months ago
B. An individual temporarily assigned to the internal audit activity because of the individual'sexpert
knowledge in a particular business function assigned to audit an activity that theindividual was
responsible for just prior to transferring to the internal audit activity
C. An auditor is assigned to perform a post-implementation review on a system for which the
auditor participated in the design process
D. An auditor is assigned to perform a post-implementation review on a system for which the
auditor performed a procedure review and made control recommendations prior to the system's
implementation
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following statements is NOT related to competency principle of internal auditing?
Internal auditors:
A. Shall continually improve their proficiency and effectiveness and quality of their services
B. Shall perform internal auditing services in accordance with the standards for the professional
practice of internal auditing
C. Shall engage only in those services for which they have the necessary knowledge, skills and
experience
D. Shall disclose all material facts known to them that, if not disclosed, may distort the reporting of
activities under review
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following is a limitation in an audit that affects auditors' ability to detect
material misstatements?
A. Scope of an audit
B. The use of testing
C. Over- generalization
D. Unidentifiable risks
Answer: B

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NO.4 Internal auditing:
A. Is an independent, objective assurance and consulting activity designed to add value and improve
anorganization's operations
B. Is an independent, performance measurement and consulting activity designed to addValue and
improve an organization's operations
C. Helps an organization accomplish objectives by bringing a systematic, disciplinedApproach to
evaluate but rarely improve the effectiveness of risk management, control and governance
D. Helps an organization accomplish objectives by bringing a targeted, disciplined approach to
evaluate but rarely improve the effectiveness of risk management, control and governance
Answer: A

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NO.5 Internal auditors, engaging in activities that are illegal and discreditable to the profession of
internal auditing or the organization, violate which of the following principles:
A. Objectivity
B. Awareness
C. Integrity
D. Competence
Answer: C

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NO.6 Reasonable assurance relates to the:
A. Audit planning process
B. Scope of the internal audit
C. End of the audit process
D. Whole audit process
Answer: D

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NO.7 Internal auditors are expected to uphold the following principles:
A. Integrity, objectivity, competency
B. Integrity, objectivity, confidentiality, and competency
C. Integrity, objectivity, awareness and competency
D. Integrity, objectivity, entirety
Answer: B

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NO.8 IIA's code of ethics applies to __________ that provide internal auditing services:
A. Individuals
B. Entities
C. Individuals and entities
D. Individuals, entities and indirect authorities
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 250-270
Exam Name: Administration of Symantec NetBackup 7.0 for Unix
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Exam Code: ST0-067
Exam Name: Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 (STS)
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Exam Code: ASC-093
Exam Name: ASC Data Loss Prevention 2010
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NO.1 The configuration parameters MIN_GB_SIZE_PER_DUPLICATION_JOB and
IMAGE_EXTENDED_RETRY_PERIOD_IN_HOURS are part of the configuration for which feature?
A. Catalog Replication
B. FlashBackup
C. Storage Lifecycle Policy
D. NetBackup Vault
Answer: C

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NO.2 A restore must be performed. The administrator is trying to view the valid images for a client, but the
following error occurs:
WARNING: Server does not contain any valid images.
Which two may be incorrectly configured? (Select two.)
A. schedule type for restores
B. destination client for restores
C. server to use for backups and restores
D. media server for backups and restores
E. policy types for restore
Answer: CE

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NO.3 Which two media status designations are excluded in the count against maximum number of partially
full media? (Select two.)
A. Frozen
B. Imported
C. Active
D. Available
E. Inactive
Answer: AB

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NO.4 An administrator successfully creates a disk pool for Symantec NetBackup 7.0, then attempts to
create a new storage unit using the bpstuadd command. In the bpstuadd command, the storage unit
name is specified as diskpool1_storageunit-#01. An error message is returned indicating the storage unit
name is invalid.
How should the storage unit name be modified to fix the problem?
A. remove the "-" from the name
B. remove all the numbers from the name
C. remove the "#" from the name
D. shorten the name to fewer than twenty characters
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which two statements are true about the function of the Initiate Import utility in Symantec Netbackup
7.0? (Select two.)
A. Phase I creates a list of expired images.
B. Phase II lists and creates image files from tape or disk.
C. Phase I reads and creates image files in the image database.
D. Phase I requires each tape to be mounted if tape media is used.
E. Phase II imports the backups and creates fragments.
Answer: AD

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NO.6 Catalog configuration can be configured to email which file to aid in catalog recovery?
A. BMR file
B. master server config file
C. support script output
D. DR file
Answer: D

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NO.7 An organization has Symantec NetBackup 7.0 client machines with a large number of files distributed
across multiple file systems that are being backed up to a library with high-speed tape drives.
Which two steps should the administrator take to ensure the greatest number of backup streams are
active concurrently? (Select two.)
A. select the "Enable multiple data streams" policy attribute and edit the "Maximum jobs per client" master
server host property
B. create a "Media Server Load Balancing" type storage unit group to enable additional backup streams to
become active simultaneously
C. enable the client-side deduplication feature so that only unique data is sent from the client to the media
server
D. select the Enable multiplexing attribute within the storage unit and the policy schedule
E. configure the "Max drives this master" attribute to the number of tape drives that are available within
the library
Answer: AD

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NO.8 A company has just expanded the Symantec NetBackup 7.0 environment by adding an additional
media server.
What is the fastest way to update several hundred Symantec NetBackup clients with the new media
server information?
A. run the update_all_clients script
B. run the add_media_server_on_clients script
C. specify the new media server in the Backup, Archive, and Restore interface
D. specify the new media server in the client properties
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ST0-155
Exam Name: Clearwell eDiscovery Platform 7.x Technical Assessment
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Exam Code: 250-312
Exam Name: Administration of Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Server
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Exam Code: ASC-012
Exam Name: ASC High Availablity Assessment
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Exam Code: ST0-172
Exam Name: Symantec NetBackup 7.5 for Windows Technical Assessment
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Exam Code: ST0-200
Exam Name: Symantec System Recovery 2013 Technical Assessment
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Exam Code: ST0-118
Exam Name: Symantec Enterprise Vault 10.0 for Exchange Technical Assessment
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NO.1 An organization has a security requirement to track changes made to the Enterprise Vault (EV)
environment pertaining to retention categories, archiving policies, and archive permissions. Which tool
provides this data?
A. EV Auditing
B. EV Operation Monitor
C. EV Reporting
D. EV Event Log
Answer: A

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NO.2 What are two reasons for adopting Enterprise Vault to manage unstructured content? (Select two.)
A. to protect messaging infrastructure to ensure uptime and productivity
B. to enable corporate discovery and end-user search
C. to centralize information management and retention
D. to create and retain snapshots to facilitate instant recovery
E. to enforce compliance with endpoint security policies
Answer: BC

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NO.3 Enterprise Vault introduced enhanced archiving support for which Microsoft Exchange 2007 feature?
A. Outlook Web Access for Exchange 2007
B. Exchange Managed Folders
C. Exchange Management Shell
D. Exchange Dumpster
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which two databases are directly associated with Stores in Enterprise Vault?
A. Directory and Monitoring
B. Partition and Vault Store
C. Directory and Vault Store
D. Fingerprint and Vault Store
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the function of the Task Controller Service in Enterprise Vault (EV)?
A. to interface between other EV tasks and the directory database
B. to manage EV storage of archived data
C. to support the Web Access application
D. to maintain indexes of archived data and to provide results of search requests
E. to manage the various archiving tasks to archive data from targets
Answer: E

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NO.6 An organization has two Enterprise Vault sites. Site 1 contains EVServer01, EVServer02, and
EVServer03 Site 2 contains EVServer04 and EVServer05. Which three USL failover options are possible?
(Select three.)
A. EVServer01 failover to EVServer03
B. EVServer02 failover to EVServer01
C. EVServer02 failover to EVServer04
D. EVServer03 failover to EVServer04
E. EVServer04 failover to EVServer05
Answer: ABE

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NO.7 What is a benefit of archiving email?
A. enables efficient search and retrieval of email
B. provides a duplicate backup system of email
C. prevents users from deleting email
D. provides high availability of email
Answer: A

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NO.8 Enterprise Vault converts mail message attachments to text or HTML. What is a benefit of changing the
default conversion type from HTML to text for certain document types?
A. increases the performance of file conversion
B. allows for the support of additional document types
C. allows for integration with third-party indexing engines
D. significantly reduces the amount of space taken by indexing
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ST0-119
Exam Name: Altiris (TM) Client Management Suite 7.1 Technical Assessmen
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Exam Code: ST0-116
Exam Name: Symantec Data Loss Prevention 11 Technical Assessment
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Exam Code: ST0-095
Exam Name: Symantec Technical Foundations: Security Solutions 1.0 (STS)
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NO.1 Which solution is included with Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1?
A. Help Desk Solution
B. Discovery Solution
C. pcAnywhere
D. Symantec System Recovery
Answer: D

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NO.2 The Software Update Policy Wizard is used to create the Patch Management policy, which is
distributed to manage computers. How can a system administrator disable unsupported operating
systems?
A. For the selected operating systems, delete the software bulletin that has been selected for installation.
B. For the selected operating systems, deselect the software bulletin that has been selected for
installation.
C. For the selected operating systems, disable the software policy.
D. For the selected operating systems, remove the software policy.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which statement is true about the Application Metering feature of Inventory Solution?
A. It tracks and compares changes to application files and registry keys.
B. It monitors and denies the usage of applications on the network.
C. It gathers detailed information about application files.
D. It limits the usage of applications to purchased licenses.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which two operating systems can be managed using pcAnywhere? (Select two.)
A. Linux
B. iOS
C. Android
D. Mac E.Unix
Answer: AD

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NO.5 When reviewing compliance reports for the Microsoft products, the system administrator notices that
the data and bulletins have remained unchanged for two weeks. What should the administrator check to
address this issue?
A. Revise Software Update task
B. Import Patch Data for Microsoft policy
C. Patch Management Import task
D. Microsoft Compliance Update policy
Answer: B

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NO.6 What are two Software Update Plug-in responsibilities? (Select two.)
A. gathers an inventory on all installed software and their associated service pack level
B. sends execution results of all software installed to the Notification Server
C .gathers specific inventory on supported operating systems, applications, and the associated service
pack level
D. sends execution results of applied software bulletins to the Notification Server
E. notifies users before a Managed Delivery policy executes
Answer: CD

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NO.7 What must be done after a managed computer has been patched?
A. Check the Software Update Package Integrity task.
B. Run a Software Inventory task.
C. Run a Microsoft Vulnerability Analysis task.
D. Update the Agent Configuration policy.
Answer: C

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NO.8 A system administrator needs to quickly deploy Windows 7 to several new computers without
preconfigured operating systems. The administrator decides to use an existing Ghost image since the
necessary drivers have already been added to the DeployAnywhere database. The PXE Configuration is
set to respond only to known computers. How should the administrator proceed?
A. Use Ghost Solution Suite to distribute the image as the computers boot to the network.
B. Import the list of new computers into the Management Console and assign an imaging task.
C. Deploy an Automation Folder to the new computers to prepare them for imaging.
D. Configure PXE to respond to a known list of MAC addresses and deploy the images only to the new
systems.
Answer: B

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NO.1 Based on this report, how much memory (in MB) is this Sybase IQ server using?
A. 250 MB
B. 900 MB
C. 922 MB
D. 923 MB
E. 1292 MB
Answer: C

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NO.2 What governs the rules for user logins?
A. sp_iqaddlogin
B. Verify_Password_Function
C. User Roles
D. Login Policies
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which stored procedure displays the SQL command executing for each connection?
A. sp_iqtransaction
B. sp_iqconnection
C. sp_iqcontext
D. sp_iqstatus
Answer: C

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NO.4 Using the INCREMENTAL option of the BACKUP DATABASE command?Using the INCREMENTAL
option of the BACKUP DATABASE command
A. copies all blocks that have changed since the last backup of any kind.
B. copies all blocks that have changed only since the last FULL backup.
C. copies all blocks that have changed only since the last INCREMENTAL backup.
D. performs a decoupled virtual backup.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What will be the checkpoint interval if the switch -gc is set at 6000 minutes and -gr set at 2 minutes?
A. 3 minutes
B. 6 minutes
C. 3000 minutes
D. 12000 minutes
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following statements are TRUE about Sybase IQ transaction control?
A. Individual rows may be locked
B. Individual blocks may be locked
C. Individual pages may be locked
D. Individual tables may be locked
Answer: D

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NO.7 Sybase IQ snapshot versioning?Sybase IQ snapshot versioning
A. allows updates to tables while users are reading the data.
B. makes new table versions available automatically without explicit commit/rollbacks.
C. stores a complete copy of each table per version.
D. supports ANSI isolation level 0 reads.
Answer: A

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NO.8 The IQ transaction model allows?(Choose 2)
A. one user to modify a table at a time.
B. keeps changes invisible to users until all changes are committed.
C. updates to be seen by all users at the time of change.
D. multiple updates to a table concurrently.
E. different isolation levels.
Answer: A,B

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NO.1 Which tier provides highest availability and highest performance?
A.tier 4
B.tier 3
C.tier 2
D.tier 1
Correct:D

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NO.2 From a business perspective a well managed archive is particularly important in which situation?
A.in the event of loss of power at the primary data center
B.when an administrator accidentally formats the wrong file system
C.in the event of litigation
D.when a user accidentally deletes an important email
Correct:C

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NO.3 What is the basic order of a snapshot creation process?
A.flush file system, take snapshot, backup the volume, release the application
B.flush file system, quiesce the application, take snapshot, backup the volume
C.quiesce the application, flush file system, take snapshot, backup the volume
D.flush file system, quiesce the application, flush the file system, take snapshot, backup the volume
Correct:C

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NO.4 What describes RAID 0?
A.mirroring
B.parallel access with parity
C.striping
D.independent access with interleaved parity
Correct:C

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NO.5 What are two advantages of IP storage networking? (Choose two.)
A.greater security exposure
B.lower cost infrastructure
C.can use existing network management tools
D.lower CPU overhead
Correct:B C

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NO.6 Which two RAID types use parity for data protection? (Choose two.)
A.RAID 0
B.RAID 1
C.RAID 3
D.RAID 5
E.RAID 10
Correct:C D

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NO.7 What might be considered the most important criteria when designing an OLTP implementation
for a financial services customer?
A.data integrity
B.data redundancy
C.disk latency of less than 15ms
D.high availability
Correct:A

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NO.8 What is a characteristic of synchronous remote replication?
A.Source is minutes ahead of the remote replication.
B.Source buffers the data and sends it depending on a cycle time.
C.Source and remote replication always have identical data.
D.Synchronous replication only used for extended distances.
Correct:C

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