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Exam Code: EX0-115
Exam Name: IT Service Management Foundation based on ISO/IEC 20000
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Exam Code: EX0-112
Exam Name: Business Information Management Foundation
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Exam Code: ISFS
Exam Name: Information Security Foundation based on ISO/IEC 27002
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NO.1 Which process determines which information provisioning is required, including the
priorities?
A. Demand management
B. End user support
C. Information lifecycle management
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which responsibility belongs to the process Demand management?
A. determining the necessary capacity for change
B. periodic consultation of the end users
C. identification of information requirements within the business process
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which process deals with defining interfaces in the area of information provisioning between various
organizations?
A. Information coordination
B. Information lifecycle management
C. Information portfolio management
D. Strategic information partner management
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is a result of the process Specify information requirement?
A. a functional design
B. a list of functional and non-functional demands
C. an approved test strategy
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which activities are not in a transition plan?
A. the activities that are required for a successful preparation of the implementation
B. the generic activities that have to be performed at all locations where the system is
implemented
C. the specific activities that have to be performed at a specific location during transition
Answer: A

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NO.6 Two reports that have been produced in the nightly batch processing have been damaged during
printing. This has been noticed by Operational supplier management. In which process will the end users
be informed that the reports have been damaged?
A. Business data management
B. End user support
C. Operational supplier management
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which monitoring activity belongs to Business data management?
A. monitoring of the integrity of customer data
B. monitoring whether the acceptance test data are correct
C. monitoring the accuracy of reports provided by the IT service provider
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which activity belongs to the process End user support?
A. dealing with calls about errors in the functionality
B. monitoring the usage of the information systems
C. adding new end users to a table
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 2B0-103
Exam Name: Enterasys Security Systems Engineer-NAC
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Exam Code: 2B0-202
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NO.1 The Firmware Upgrade Wizard allows you to enter a reset delay time for devices that
support timed reset. How can you reset devices that do not support timed reset?
A. You cannot reset devices that do not support timed reset.
B. After selecting the devices in the table, click Start to initiate manual resets.
C. It is necessary to walk to the device to initiate a reset.
D. After closing the Firmware Upgrade Wizard, you open the Manual Device Reset
Wizard.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What service must be running to save a configuration?
A. TFTP
B. BOOTP
C. SNMP trapd
D. All of the above
Answer: A

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NO.3 Device Manager provides all of the following, EXCEPT
A. Graphic representation of a device
B. Configuration file upload/download
C. System level configuration
D. Broadcast Suppression configuration
Answer: C

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NO.4 The Goto symbol is used as a navigational tool to jump to another map.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.5 With SNMPv3, the message is encrypted
A. to prevent disclosure of sensitive information while en route
B. to make sure the user has permission to access the device
C. to verify the message was not modified en route
D. to read or to modify subsets of the target data
E. Both A and C
Answer: A

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NO.6 What benefits are gained with SNMPv3?
A. Better error codes
B. Encrypted messages
C. Fast table retrieval
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.7 In the context of Policy Manager, a Role is a
A. Feature set that is assigned after authentication exchange and the port is available
B. Feature used to assign access control and/or class of service to network traffic based
on its OSI layer
C. Feature used to enforce the default role on a port
D. Feature used to combine classification rules to implement permission and denial to
network resources
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following configuration files can you view while comparing archives in
Inventory Manager?
A. All archived configuration files
B. Only files in which a difference in configurations is found
C. All archived database files
D. A and C
Answer: B

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Exam Code: E20-017
Exam Name: Information Availability Design Specialist Exam for Data Center Architects
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Exam Code: E20-891
Exam Name: Backup Recovery Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects
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Exam Code: E20-326
Exam Name: Symmetrix Solutions Design Exam
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NO.1 You are designing a new VMAX array. The customer requires high performance for their random
write-intensive application. Which RAID protection should you recommend?
A. RAID-5
B. RAID-6
C. RAID-1
D. RAID-S
Answer: C

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NO.2 A Symmetrix VMAX has been configured with Dynamic Cache Partitions.
What is a criterion that must be met for a cache slot to be eligible for donation?
A. The fall through time must be greater than the donation age
B. The fall through time must be less than the donation age
C. The cache slot must belong to a static partition
D. There must be available cache slots in the default partition
Answer: A

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NO.3 You are designing a new VMAX array. The customer's primary concern is maximizing capacity
available to the host. What RAID protection should you recommend?
A. RAID-5 (7+1)
B. RAID-6 (6+2)
C. RAID-1/0
D. RAID-5 (3+1)
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer is interested in utilizing SRDF/AR to generate a remote copy of an application with an RPO
of six hours. In order for you to calculate the bandwidth requirements you will need to run Change Tracker.
To which should you set the reset interval length for DeltaMark?
A. 21600
B. 86400
C. 32400
D. 10800
Answer: D

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NO.5 Prior to starting an implementation, which tool should be used to automate the data collection on a UNIX
host?
A. EMCGrab
B. EMCReports
C. E-Lab Advisor
D. Change Tracker
Answer: A

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NO.6 A Symmetrix VMAX hosts four applications. Each application is assigned a named dynamic cache
partition. Two of the partitions are static and two are flexible. The write pending limit for each partition is
set to 60%.
What will happen if an application running in a flexible partition reaches the write pending limit set for that
partition?
A. Host write activity to that partition will be throttled
B. Cache will be borrowed from the other flexible partition
C. Cache will be borrowed from the default partition
D. The write pending limit of the partition will be raised until it reaches 80%
Answer: A

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NO.7 A major telecommunications operator is planning to consolidate multiple mid-tier storage arrays to a
single Symmetrix VMAX solution. Their existing environment includes IBM AIX servers, HP-UX Servers
and Windows 2003 Servers.
When documenting the existing Server environment, which command can be used on the HP-UX Servers,
to list the software modules installed?
A. swlist
B. lslpp
C. pkginfo
D. pkgchk
Answer: A

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NO.8 You are designing a new disaster recovery solution with VMAX arrays. During the initial project kick-off
meeting, the customer reports their environment can tolerate five minutes or less of data recovery
following a disaster but have not yet determined the maximum allowable downtime for their applications.
The customer asks which remote replication methods you recommend for their environment.
What do you recommend?
A. Defer making a recommendation until the application RTO is known.
B. Recommend the disaster recovery solution as described in the Sales Order.
C. Defer making a recommendation until the application RPO in known.
D. Recommend the disaster recovery solution described in the Statement of Work.
Answer: A

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Exam Name: Symmetrix Solutions Expert Exam for Implementation Engineers
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Exam Name: Content Management Application Architecture Exam
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NO.1 An Microsoft Exchange administrator has recently encountered an issue with one of the databases in
their Exchange 2007 environment. The decision was made to perform a partial restore of only the single
database.
Based on EMC and Microsoft best practice, what are the proper ordered steps needed to complete this
task?
A.1) Dismount all databases in the storage group. 2) Restore the database replica. 3) Remove the .chk
file from the system path folder. 4) Remount all databases in the storage group.
B.1) Remove the .chk file from the system path folder. 2) Dismount all databases in the storage group. 3)
Restore the database replica. 4) Remount all databases in the storage group.
C.1) Dismount all databases in the storage group. 2) Remove the .chk file from the system path folder. 3)
Restore the database replica. 4) Remount all databases in the storage group.
D.1) Dismount all databases in the storage group. 2) Remove the .chk file from the system path folder. 3)
Remount all databases in the storage group. 4) Restore the database replica.
Answer:A

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NO.2 A customer is migrating their Microsoft Exchange 2007 server from a NAS back end to a new
Symmetrix V-Max SE array. As illustrated in the exhibit, perfmon was used to create a log view of an
average day's activity against the database LUN of the busiest datastore in the Exchange environment.
This will serve as the performance benchmark for all other database LUNs. There are an additional four
mailbox databases on this server.
How many RAID 1-protected 15k rpm spindles are required to satisfy the performance needs of the
customer for all the mailbox databases on this server?
A.10
B.26
C.38
D.50
Answer:D

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NO.3 As reflected in the exhibit, a customer has a Cascaded SRDF/Star environment. Site B fails and they
undertake a reconfiguration to provide remote data protection between Sites A and C.
What is used to determine the invalid tracks that must be moved from Site A to Site C?
A.Inclusive OR of two SDDF bitmaps at Site A
B.Inclusive OR of two SDDF bitmaps at Site A and a bitmap at Site C
C.Inclusive OR of two SDDF bitmaps at Site B
D.Inclusive OR of two SDDF bitmaps at Site C
Answer:A

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NO.4 Group Name Services (GNS) is enabled in an SRDF/Star solution. What is a benefit of GNS in a
SRDF/Star environment?
A.Facilitates management of SRDF/Star when there are multiple management hosts at each location
B.Distributes the Star internal definition file to the Symmetrix arrays at both target locations
C.Propagates the composite group definitions over SRDF links
D.Restarts the SRDF daemon in the event it stops unexpectedly
Answer:A

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NO.5 In the event of a physical disk spindle failure, how would a customer with Microsoft SQL Server
maximize availability?
A.Logs should be on RAID 1 volumes with data volumes on separate RAID 6 volumes
B.Logs should be on RAID 1 volumes with data volumes on separate RAID 5 volumes
C.Logs and data files should be on separate RAID 5 volumes
D.Logs and data files should be on separate RAID 1-protected volumes
Answer:A

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NO.6 A customer wants to use TimeFinder/Exchange Integration Module (TF/EIM) to create daily local
replicas of a critical Microsoft Exchange 2007 mailbox server. Using Terminal Services, they connect
remotely to the backup server and execute the following command:
exbackup2007 -v -vss -s [servername\] -preestablish
The command runs up until the point where TF/EIM attempts to mount the volumes, then it fails. Why is
the process unable to complete?
A.Exbackup is not supported using a terminal session
B.Correct VSS Provider was not installed
C."copyonly" switch must be specified the first time a backup is run
D.Exbackup does not have the permissions needed to run on the backup host
Answer:A

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NO.7 A customer's SQL database has been experiencing performance degradation every time a particular
query is run. When designing the storage layout, all user databases were properly sized according to
EMC best practices.
Which storage configuration could be the source of the problem?
A.Tempdb and user databases are sharing spindles
B.MDF and LDF files are not sharing spindles
C.RAID 5 protection has been used for Tempdb
D.Data files are spread over striped metavolumes
Answer:A

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NO.8 A Microsoft SQL Server database administrator wants to execute backups using Solutions Enabler SRM
functionality. Which ODBC variable(s) needs to be set to enable the symioctl and symrdb command set?
A.SYMCLI_RDB "CONNECT" and "TYPE" environment variables
B.SYMCLI_RDB "NAME" and "TYPE" environment variables
C.Only the SYMCLI_RDB "Connect" to the database "username/password"
D.Only the SYMCLI_RDB "TYPE" variable to "sqlserver"
Answer:A

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NO.1 What type of attack is shown in the following diagram?
A. Man-in-the-Middle (MiTM) Attack
B. Session Hijacking Attack
C. SSL Spoofing Attack
D. Identity Stealing Attack
Answer: A

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NO.2 Lori is a Certified Ethical Hacker as well as a Certified Hacking Forensics Investigator working as an IT
security consultant. Lori has been hired on by Kiley Innovators, a large marketing firm that recently
underwent a string of thefts and corporate espionage incidents. Lori is told that a rival marketing company
came out with an exact duplicate product right before Kiley Innovators was about to release it. The
executive team believes that an employee is leaking information to the rival company. Lori questions all
employees, reviews server logs, and firewall logs; after which she finds nothing. Lori is then given
permission to search through the corporate email system. She searches by email being sent to and sent
from the rival marketing company.
She finds one employee that appears to be sending very large email to this other marketing company,
even though they should have no reason to be communicating with them. Lori tracks down the actual
emails sent and upon opening them, only finds picture files attached to them. These files seem perfectly
harmless, usually containing some kind of joke. Lori decides to use some special software to further
examine the pictures and finds that each one had hidden text that was stored in each picture.
What technique was used by the Kiley Innovators employee to send information to the rival marketing
company?
A. The Kiley Innovators employee used cryptography to hide the information in the emails sent
B. The method used by the employee to hide the information was logical watermarking
C. The employee used steganography to hide information in the picture attachments
D. By using the pictures to hide information, the employee utilized picture fuzzing
Answer: C

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NO.3 More sophisticated IDSs look for common shellcode signatures. But even these systems can be
bypassed, by using polymorphic shellcode. This is a technique common among virus writers ?it basically
hides the true nature of the shellcode in different disguises.
How does a polymorphic shellcode work?
A. They encrypt the shellcode by XORing values over the shellcode, using loader code to decrypt the
shellcode, and then executing the decrypted shellcode
B. They convert the shellcode into Unicode, using loader to convert back to machine code then executing
them
C. They reverse the working instructions into opposite order by masking the IDS signatures
D. They compress shellcode into normal instructions, uncompress the shellcode using loader code and
then executing the shellcode
Answer: A

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NO.4 Jack Hacker wants to break into Brown Co.'s computers and obtain their secret double fudge cookie
recipe. Jack calls Jane, an accountant at Brown Co., pretending to be an administrator from Brown Co.
Jack tells Jane that there has been a problem with some accounts and asks her to verify her password
with him ''just to double check our records.'' Jane does not suspect anything amiss, and parts with her
password. Jack can now access Brown Co.'s computers with a valid user name and password, to steal
the cookie recipe. What kind of attack is being illustrated here?
A. Reverse Psychology
B. Reverse Engineering
C. Social Engineering
D. Spoofing Identity
E. Faking Identity
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following countermeasure can specifically protect against both the MAC Flood and MAC
Spoofing attacks?
A. Configure Port Security on the switch
B. Configure Port Recon on the switch
C. Configure Switch Mapping
D. Configure Multiple Recognition on the switch
Answer: A

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NO.6 What does ICMP (type 11, code 0) denote?
A. Source Quench
B. Destination Unreachable
C. Time Exceeded
D. Unknown Type
Answer: C

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NO.7 If a competitor wants to cause damage to your organization, steal critical secrets, or put you out of
business, they just have to find a job opening, prepare someone to pass the interview, have that person
hired, and they will be in the organization.
How would you prevent such type of attacks?
A. It is impossible to block these attacks
B. Hire the people through third-party job agencies who will vet them for you
C. Conduct thorough background checks before you engage them
D. Investigate their social networking profiles
Answer: C

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NO.8 Jimmy, an attacker, knows that he can take advantage of poorly designed input validation routines to
create or alter SQL commands to gain access to private data or execute commands in the database.
What technique does Jimmy use to compromise a database.?
A. Jimmy can submit user input that executes an operating system command to compromise a target
system
B. Jimmy can gain control of system to flood the target system with requests, preventing legitimate users
from gaining access
C. Jimmy can utilize an incorrect configuration that leads to access with higher-than expected privilege of
the database
D. Jimmy can utilize this particular database threat that is an SQL injection technique to penetrate a target
system
Answer: D

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NO.1 A technician is creating an image that will be used to deploy Windows 7 to 100 PCs. Which of
the
following tools should be used to accomplish this?
A. SYSPREP
B. Windows 7 Advisor
C. CHKDSK
D. DISKPART
Answer: A

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NO.2 A user wants to prevent access to specific websites to prevent their children from accidently
accessing them. Which of the following can be implemented?
A. A switch
B. Antivirus software
C. Antispyware software
D. A firewall
Answer: D

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NO.3 A user is reporting their web browser is not going to the site they are attempting to access.
Which
of the following would BEST resolve this?
A. Delete all Internet cookies.
B. Ensure the user is not utilizing a proxy server.
C. Remove all Internet shortcuts.
D. Clear all Internet cache and saved passwords.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A technician would like to dispose of a hard drive that is no longer needed. According to
company
policy, all contents on the disk should be deleted before disposal. Which of the following OS
command line tools should be used?
A. CHKDSK
B. DEL
C. SCANDSK
D. FORMAT
Answer: D

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NO.5 A user on a domain network cannot install software that they need. Which of the following
user
groups is this user MOST likely associated with?
A. Standard user
B. Guest user
C. Power user
D. Administrator
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer calls and states the new plasma display they just received has yellow spots all over
the screen. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
A. Using wrong video connector
B. Dead pixels
C. Dropped in shipping
D. Incorrect installation
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following is an advantage of a virtual machine hosted on a PC?
A. Reduces the training required for employees.
B. Reduces the amount of physical hardware required.
C. Reduces the amount of CPU required on the host PC.
D. Reduces the amount of RAM required on the host PC.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following is a new feature of iOS 5?
A. Ability to dual boot the Android OS
B. Ability to run native PC applications
C. Ability to perform iTunes backups
D. Ability to perform untethered updates
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 190-956
Exam Name: Lotus (IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8.5 System Administration Update.)
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NO.1 When a user removes a mail message with an attachment stored in DAOS, which of the following
occurs if the user is assigned a mail quota?
A.The total attachment size is removed against the user's quota
B.The total size of the mail message and attachment is removed against the user's quota
C.The total size of any attachment stored in DAOS does not count toward the user's quota
D.The total size of the mail message without the attachment is removed against the user's quota
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following causes a new server thread to be created that monitors all messages written to
the console log file and duplicates these messages into another file?
A.File log output
B.Notes text logging
C.Console log mirroring
D.Server log duplicating
Answer: C

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NO.3 Your development team has modified the client download site for Lotus Traveler. All of the changes,
though, are not being seen as the server is still pointing to the old directory and files. You have
successfully modified the Home URL in the Internet Site Document. Which of the following must also be
modified?
A.The servlet utilized by the Domino Web server
B.The NTS_WEBSITE_HOME parameter in the notes.ini file
C.Disable Internet Site documents in the Domino server
D.Make TCP port 8642 available to all users to see the new site documents
Answer: B

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NO.4 The following variable was found in a user's notes.ini file:
ENABLE_EARLY_AUTHENTICATION=0
Which of the following will not function properly?
A.Roaming user
B.Authentication after the Notes workbench appears
C.The ability to log into the integrated Sametime client
D.The ability to recover user ID files from the server ID vault
Answer: A

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NO.5 In Lotus Notes 8.5, the start-up sequence has been reordered for users. Presume that the following
notes.ini entry is configured:
ENABLE_EARLY_AUTHENTICATION=0
Which of the following occurs to the user experience?
A.Users are not allowed to utilize Windows shared login
B.Users are prompted to authenticate before the Notes workbench
C.The Notes workbench appears, and users are prompted to authenticate
D.Users are forced to utilize Windows shared login instead of Notes login
Answer: C

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NO.6 Notes shared login allows users to start Lotus Notes with their Notes IDs without having to provide
Notes passwords. Instead, which of the following do they need to provide?
A.A secret passphrase
B.A Windows password
C.Passwords from more than one person
D.An unlock code from the ID vault on their home server
Answer: B

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NO.7 Terry is working on a document in a database on a server that is DAOS- enabled. While in the
document, Terry replaces the attachment with a new version. Which of the following occurs to the
attachment in the DAOS store?
A.The server adjusts references to the attachment in DAOS
B.The server removes the reference from all mail files that pointed to that original file reference
C.The server removes the previous attachment entirely from DAOS and inserts the link to the new
attachment
D.The server sends the full previous attachment to all user mail files that pointed to that original file
reference
Answer: A

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NO.8 Your Domino server has been configured for DAOS, and all mailfiles have also been enabled
successfully. In which of the following times will consolidation occur when a user saves an attachment that
meets the defined DAOS size settings?
A.Immediately
B.The next time the DAOS service runs
C.After the user closes the current Notes session
D.By the schedule defined in the server configuration document
Answer: A

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NO.9 Upon viewing the Administration Process activity through the statistics generated during administration
request processing, you have found a large number of Waiting statistics in one of the message queues.
Which of the following would this signify?
A.Administration Process threads are waiting for requests to process
B.The administrator has pending Administration Process requests for approval
C.The server is processing requests without utilizing all the process handlers
D.The request processing threads are busy running requests that take longer times
Answer: D

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NO.10 To help thwart unauthorized access to ID files in the ID vault, you can choose to require which of the
following?
A.That someone with password reset authority approves all ID downloads
B.That only group names are placed in the vault security document in the Domino server
C.That the person fills out a download request in the vault to be approved by a vault manager
D.That the ID vault be encrypted with a secret encryption key shared with only the proper administrators
Answer: A

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