2013年12月1日星期日

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Exam Code: OG0-092
Exam Name: The Open Group (TOGAF 9 Part 2)
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Total Q&A: 48 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-01

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NO.1 Scenario: AGEX Inc.
Please read this scenario prior to answering the question
AGEX is a large, global commodities trading company which has been growing rapidly through a series of
acquisitions.
Each new business is performing well in its markets. However, the lack of integration between
headquarters and the business units has increasingly caused problems in the handling of customer and
financial information. The inability to share information across businesses has resulted in lost
opportunities to "leverage the synergies" that had been intended when the businesses were acquired. At
present, each business unit maintains its own applications. Despite an earlier initiative to install a common
application to manage customer, products, supplier, and inventory information, each business unit has
different ways of defining each of these core elements and has customized the common application to the
point where the ability to exchange information is difficult, costly, and error-prone.
As a result, AGEX has begun implementing a single Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system to
consolidate information from several applications that exist across the lines of business. The Corporate
Board is concerned that the new ERP system must be able to manage and safeguard customer
information in a manner that meets or exceeds the legal requirements of the countries in which the
company operates. This will be an increasingly important capability as the company expands its online
services offered to clients and trading partners.
The CIO has formed an Enterprise Architecture department, and one of the primary goals in its charter is
to coordinate efforts between the ERP implementation team and the business unit personnel who will be
involved in the migration process. The CIO has also formed a cross-functional Architecture Review Board
to oversee and govern the architecture.
After reviewing the available alternatives, and based on recommendations from the ERP vendor, AGEX
has selected TOGAF 9 as the basis for its Enterprise Architecture program.
The CIO has endorsed this choice with the full support of top management.
Refer to the AGEX Inc. Scenario
You are serving as the Chief Architect.
You have been asked to recommend the approach to take in the Preliminary Phase to ensure that the
Corporate Board's concern is addressed.
Based en TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?
A. You evaluate the implications of the Board's concern in terms of regulatory and security policy
requirements. You then update the AGEX security policy to reflect the concern, ensuring that this policy is
communicated across the organization. You allocate a security architecture team to ensure that security
considerations are included in ongoing architecture planning. You then assess the security implications
and agreements within the AGEX businesses and their suppliers.
B. You evaluate the implications of the Board's concern in terms of regulatory requirements and their
impact on business goals and objectives. Based on this understanding, you then issue a Request for
Architecture Work to commence an architecture development project to develop a solution that will
address the Board's concern. You allocate a security architect to oversee the implementation of the
solution in the ERP system that is being developed.
C. You start by clarifying the intent that the Board has for raising this concern. This enables you to
understand the implications of the concern in terms of regulatory requirements and the potential impact on
current business goals and objectives. You propose that a security architect or security architecture team
be allocated to develop comprehensive security architecture.
D. You evaluate the implications of the Board's concern by examining the potential impacts on business
goals and objectives. Based on your understanding, you then update the current AGEX security policy to
include an emphasis on the Board's concern. In addition, you allocate a security architect to ensure that
security considerations are included in the architecture planning for all domains.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Scenario: Vittronics Ltd.
Please read this scenario prior to answering the question
Vittronics Ltd. is a leading medical device manufacturer in the highly competitive market for Migraine
Headache Pain Management (MHPM) devices. These tiny wireless devices are implanted in the brain
and can deliver a precise electric shock when the wearable Pain Control Unit (PCU) detects an increase
in stress induced by the onset of a migraine headache.
This technology will be a breakthrough in the treatment of this condition, and several competitors are
striving to be the first to introduce a product into the market. However, all of them must demonstrate the
effectiveness and safety of their products in a set of clinical trials that will satisfy the regulatory
requirements of the countries in the target markets.
The Enterprise Architecture group at Vittronics has been engaged in an architecture development project
to create a Secure Private Immersive Collaborative Environment (SPICE) that will allow researchers at its
product development laboratories worldwide to share information about their independent clinical trials.
The Vittronics Enterprise Architecture group is a mature organization that has been utilizing TOGAF for
several years. They have recently upgraded to TOGAF 9. The Vittronics Architecture Development
Method (VADM) is strictly based on the TOGAF 9 Architecture Development Method (ADM) with
extensions required to support current good manufacturing practices and good laboratory practices in
their target markets.
The SPICE project team has now completed the Business, Information Systems, and Technology
Architecture phases and has produced a complete set of deliverables for each phase. Due to the highly
sensitive nature of the information that is managed in SPICE, special care was taken to ensure that each
architecture domain included an examination of the security and privacy issues that are relevant for each
domain. A corresponding SPICE Security Architecture has been defined.
The Executive Vice President for Clinical Research is the sponsor of the Enterprise Architecture activity.
Refer to the Vittronics Ltd Scenario:
You are serving as the Lead Architect for the SPICE project team.
As required by TOGAF, the SPICE project team res completed a Business Transformation Readiness
Assessment in Phase A (Architecture Vision). In that assessment, it was determined that there are risks
associated with the adoption of the Immersive Collaborative Environment. Despite a clear expression of
the vision and the business need for utilizing SPICE to accelerate the clinical trials, the researchers have
been resisting the change because of concerns about safeguarding individually identifiable information
about the subjects who were participating in the trials.
You have been asked to recommend how this situation be managed in the implementation planning
phases.
Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?
A. You decide that in Phase E, the team creates an overall solutions strategy that can guide the Target
Architecture implementation and structure the Transition Architectures. You check that there is consensus
before proceeding.
B. You decide to return to Phase A, where the team should brainstorm a technical solution that mitigates
the residual risks presented by the privacy issue. Then, during Phase D, you will directthe team to
develop an Architecture Building Block to manage the security risks. After that, the team should select
Solution Building Blocks that mitigate all of the identified risks and revise the Requirements Impact
Statement to reflect the changes to the high-level solutions strategy and migration plan.
C. You decide that in Phase E, the team review the Business Transformation Readiness Assessment and
identify, classify, and mitigate the risks associated with the identified readiness factors. If the risks can be
satisfactorily mitigated, then you would continue to define a high-level solutions strategy that includes the
Transition Architectures needed to make the change culturally and technically feasible.
D. You decide that in Phase E, the team determines an approach to implementing an overall strategic
direction that will address and mitigate the risks identified.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Scenario: Global Mobile 1
Please read this scenario prior to answering the question
Global Mobile is a mobile telecommunications company formed through a series of mergers and
acquisitions. They are yet to fully integrate the customer service systems for the most recent acquisitions,
and as result, customer service has been a major concern for the Chief Technology Officer.
Results for the last two quarters have shown that Average Revenue Per User (ARPU) and the customer
retention (Churn) rate have fallen below the industry average. The Corporate Marketing group has
published some new findings about customer satisfaction. The customers appear to be switching to Air
Light, a competitor, because of superior customer service. Global Mobile actually has better coverage in
nearly all markets than Air Light, and good roaming agreements that keep rates low for business travelers.
But, customer satisfaction has remained low.
The Business Strategy group and the Enterprise Architecture group have conducted a high-level project
to develop the enterprise-wide strategic plan. They have developed a business scenario which contains a
good conceptual model of what needs to be done, and also identifies the key requirements. This was
used in preparing the proposal presented to the Executive Council and the Corporate Board.
The planning for the program has been underway for several months. Global Mobile has selected TOGAF
9 as the basis for its Enterprise Architecture.
The Corporate Board has approved funding for a multi-million Euro conversion to transition to a packaged
Customer Service System. It is anticipated that the overall program will take five years to complete, but
there are some tactical projects that can commence immediately to address the situation. The Corporate
Board has placed one additional major constraint on the program. In addition to achieving the business
outcomes directly related to improving overall customer service within each business unit, the Corporate
Board expects the Target Architecture to produce an additional saving of at least 30% over current
operating costs through energy efficiency initiatives, virtualization of servers and workstations, and
expanded telecommuting and desk-sharing. This Green initiative is intended to become a model for future
investments at all company facilities worldwide.
Refer to Global Mobile scenario
You have been engaged as a consultant to advise the Chief Architect on the best ways to approach to the
implementation planning activities for this significant business transformation.
Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer? (Is this the right answers to choose?)
A. You recommend using conventional implementation planning techniques. The horizontal scope of the
Green initiative would make the Capability-Based Planning approach used in the organization's
TOGAF-based Enterprise Architecture framework difficult to manage and govern. This approach to
planning was better applied within the vertical scope of a business unit.
B. You recommend that the implementation planning activities be conducted using Capability-Based
Planning. This is appropriate because the Green initiative is an enterprise-wide plan with a horizontal
scope. Its metrics are aggregated at the enterprise level. It is crucial to gain business unit support and
cooperation to achieve the broader business outcomes which will benefit all.
C. The Capability-Based Planning approach used in the organization's TOGAF-based Enterprise
Architecture framework is focused on business outcomes. The Green initiative is an infrastructure
program that is technical in nature; therefore, it would not be appropriate to use the Capability-Based
Planning approach. Instead, the Global Mobile systems development lifecycle approach should be
utilized to develop the Solution Architecture.
D. You recommend using conventional implementation planning techniques. The Capability-Based
Planning approach is normally only used in public sector, defense-related programs. This approach is not
appropriate for a private sector company.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Scenario: Zephyr Enterprises
Please read this scenario prior to answering the question
Zephyr Enterprises specializes in the development of wind turbine blades for use in large-scale
commercial wind energy production systems. Zephyr has manufacturing facilities located in Palm Springs,
California, Omaha, Nebraska, and Winnipeg, Ontario. Each of these plants supplies a different
manufacturer that builds and sells complete systems. The turbine blades are custom engineered to meet
each manufacturers design specifications.
Until recently, most turbine blades were fabricated manually using molded fiber-reinforced plastics.
However, recent improvements in composite materials, coupled with enhanced automated methods for
precision application of materials during the molding process, have led to significant reduction in weight,
increase in strength, and greatly improved blade longevity. Zephyr has pioneered the development of a
proprietary automated process for continuous extrusion of the turbine blades. Patents have been filed to
protect the process, but certain trade secrets must be closely guarded.
Zephyr has a mature Enterprise Architecture organization that is supported by a cross-functional
Architecture Review Board. The Chief Information Officer and the Chief Operating Officer cosponsor the
Enterprise Architecture program.
Zephyr has used TOGAF and its Architecture Development Method (ADM) to develop its automated
manufacturing processes and systems that are used to design, manufacture, and test the blade
assemblies. They have recently updated to TOGAF 9 and have adapted the Zephyr Enterprise
Architecture to closely follow the TOGAF 9 framework. All of Zephyrs IT architects have been trained and
certified on TOGAF 9.Recently, an architecture project was completed that defined a standard approach
for controlling the Automated Test System that is used at each plant to perform final quality assurance
tests on each completed blade assembly. The Manufacturing Architecture Board approved the plan for
immediate implementation at each plant.
An Architecture Contract was developed that detailed the work needed to implement and deploy the new
Automated Test System controller. The Chief Engineer, sponsor of the activity, has expressed concern
that a uniform process be employed at each site to ensure consistency.
Refer to the Zephyr Enterprises Scenario
You are the Lead Architect for this activity.
You have been asked to recommend the best approach to adopt to address the Chief Engineer's concern.
Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?
A. You create an Architecture Contract to manage and govern the implementation and migration process.
If the contract is issued to an external party, you ensure that it is a fully enforceable legal contract. For
internal development projects, you decide it is adequate to utilize a memorandum of understanding
between the Manufacturing Architecture Board and the implementation organization. You recommend
that if a deviation from the contract is detected, the Manufacturing Architecture Board should modify the
Architecture Contract to allow the implementation organization the ability to customize the process to
meet their local needs. As a result, you then issue a new Request for Architecture Work to implement the
modified Architecture Definition.
B. You create an Architecture Contract to manage and govern the implementation and migration process.
If the contract is issued to an external party, you ensure that it is a fully enforceable legal contract. For
internal envelopment projects, you decide it is adequate to utilize a memorandum of understanding
between the Manufacturing Architecture Board and the implementation organization. You recommend
that if a deviation from the Architecture Contract is detected, the Manufacturing Architecture Board grant a
dispensation to allow the implementation organization the ability to customize the process to meet their
local needs.
C. You create an Architecture Contract to manage and govern the implementation and migration process.
If the contract is issued to an external party, you ensure that it is a fully enforceable legal contract. For
internal development projects, you decide it is adequate to utilize amemorandum of understanding
between the Manufacturing Architecture Board and the implementation organization. You ensure that the
Manufacturing Architecture Board reviews all deviations from the Architecture Contract, and considers
whether or not to grant a dispensation to allow the implementation organization to customize the process
to meet their local needs.
D. You create an Architecture Contract to govern the implementation and migration process at each site. If
the contract is issued to an external party, you ensure that it is a fully enforceable legal contract. You
ensure that the contract addresses the project objectives, effectiveness metrics, acceptance criteria, and
risk management. You then schedule compliance reviews at key points in the implementation process to
ensure that the work is proceeding in accordance with the Architecture Definition. Based on the results,
you ensure that the Manufacturing Architecture Board reviews all deviations from the Architecture
Contract, and considers whether or not to grant a dispensation to allow the implementation organization
to customize the process to meet their local needs.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Scenario: Rollins Manufacturing
Please read this scenario prior to answering the question
Rollins Manufacturing is a major supplier in the automotive industry, headquartered in Cleveland, Ohio
with manufacturing plants in Chicago, Sao Paulo, Stuttgart, Yokohama, and Seoul. Each of these plants
has been operating its own Manufacturing Requirements Planning (MRPII) system, production scheduling,
and custom developed applications that drive the automated production equipment at each plant.
Rollins is implementing lean manufacturing principles to minimize waste and improve the efficiency of all
of its production operations. During a recent exercise held for internal quality improvement, it was
determined that a significant reduction in process waste could be achieved by replacing the current MRPII
and scheduling systems with a common Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system located in the
Cleveland data center. This central system would provide support to each of the plants replacing the
functionality in the existing systems. It would also eliminate the need for full data centers at each of the
plant facilities. A reduced number of IT staff could support the remaining applications. In some cases, a
third-party contractor could provide those staff.
The Rollins Enterprise Architecture department has been operating for several years and has mature,
well-developed architecture governance and development processes that are strongly based on TOGAF
9.At a recent meeting, the Architecture Review Board approved a Request for Architecture Work from the
Chief Engineer of Global Manufacturing Operations who is the project sponsor. The request covered the
initial architectural investigations and the development of a comprehensive architecture to plan the
transformation.
The Common ERP Deployment architecture project team has now been formed, and the project team has
been asked to develop an Architecture Vision that will achieve the desired outcomes and benefits. Some
of the plant managers have expressed concern about the security and reliability of driving their MRPII and
production scheduling from a central system located in Cleveland. The Chief Engineer wants to know how
these concerns can be addressed.
Refer to the Rollins Manufacturing Scenario:
You are serving as the Lead Enterprise Architect for the Common ERP Deployment architecture project.
One of the earliest initiatives in the Enterprise Architecture program at Rollins was the definition of a set of
IT principles and architecture principles that are well aligned with the overall enterprise principles. These
now need to be updated to address the concerns raised.
You have been asked to select a set of principles most appropriate for guiding the team to define a robust
solution.
[Note: You should assume that Rollins has adopted the example set of principles that are listed and
defined in TOGAF 9, Section 23.6.]
Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?
A. Common-use Applications, Data is Shared, Data is Accessible, Data is Secure, Interoperability, Control
Technical Diversity.
B. Business Continuity, Service-orientation, Data is Accessible, Data is Secure, Responsive Change
Management.
C. Maximize Benefit to the Enterprise, Business Continuity, Common-use Applications, Data is Shared,
Data is Accessible, Data is Secure.
D. Information Management is Everybody's Business, IT Responsibility, Data Trustee, Technology
Independence, Responsive Change Management.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 251-250
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Staorage Foundation 5.0 for UNIX)
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Total Q&A: 208 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-01

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NO.1 Which states are displayed in the output of vxprint? (Choose two.)
A.Data
B.Kernel
C.File System
D.Volume
E.User
Correct:B D

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NO.2 Which command removes the datadg02 disk from the datadg disk group?
A.vxassist datadg rmdisk datadg02
B.vxdg datadg rmdisk datadg02
C.vxassist datadg remove disk datadg02
D.vxdg datadg remove datadg02
Correct:B

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NO.3 In the output of the vxdisk list command, there are no entries in the DISK and GROUP columns.
However, you see online invalid in the output of the STATUS column. What does the online invalid
status indicate?
A.The disk is failing and needs to be replaced for future use in Volume Manager.
B.The disk is incompatible with the current release of Volume Manager.
C.The disk is available for initialization or encapsulation by Volume Manager.
D.The disk is available for use and has encapsulated data deported on another system.
Correct:C

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NO.4 Which command displays the number of paths to the datadg01 disk?
A.vxdisk list datadg01
B.vxdg list datadg01
C.vxpath list datadg01
D.vxdmpadm list datadg01
Correct:A

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NO.5 Which command displays the amount of free space in the configuration database of the datadg
disk group?
A.vxdg -g datadg free
B.vxdg -g datadg list
C.vxdg free datadg
D.vxdg list datadg
Correct:D

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NO.6 Which vxassist parameter is used to set the number of data plexes in a non-layered mirrored
volume?
A.nplex
B.numplex
C.nummirror
D.nmirror
Correct:D

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NO.7 When creating a new volume with the New Volume Wizard in VEA, which layout options are
available to create a layered volume? (Choose two.)
A.concatenate-mirror
B.stripe-mirror
C.mirror-stripe
D.mirror-concatenate
E.concatenate-stripe
F.stripe-concatenate
Correct:A B

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NO.8 The upgrade scripts are being used to upgrade Volume Manager. Which file's existence would
indicate that the upgrade_start script had been run, but the upgrade_finish has yet to be run?
A./UPGRADE_START/.start_runed
B./VXVM5.0-UPGRADE/.start_runed
C./etc/vx/.start_runed
D./etc/vx/.upgrade_runed
Correct:B

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NO.9 What are valid mount options for a Veritas file system? (Choose two.)
A.nolargefiles
B.shared
C.logtmp
D.delaylog
E.logdelay
Correct:A D

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NO.10 Which statement is true about adding a mirror to an existing striped volume?
A.A concatenated plex is added to the volume by default.
B.You can use any disks in the disk group to contain the new plex.
C.Synchronization of the new plex is required.
D.You should add the new plex to a different disk group for redundancy.
Correct:C

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NO.11 Which command is used to change the stripe unit size and number of columns for the datavol
volume in the datadg disk group?
A.vxvol datadg convert datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
B.vxassist datadg convert datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
C.vxvol datadg relayout datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
D.vxassist datadg relayout datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
Correct:D

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NO.12 Which command can be used to remove a mirror from a volume? (Choose two.)
A.vxedit
B.vxassist
C.vxremove
D.vxevac
E.vxmirror
Correct:A B

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NO.13 What occurs when you add an initialized disk to an existing disk group? (Choose two.)
A.The public and private regions are created on the disk.
B.An empty volume is created on the disk by default.
C.The disk group configuration database is updated.
D.Volume Manager performs a rescan to recognize all newly configured disks.
E.The disk is stamped with the system host ID.
Correct:C E

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NO.14 Which statements are true about renaming the disk object? (Choose two.)
A.New disk names must be unique within the disk group.
B.All subdisks will be renamed together with the disk.
C.The disk group needs to be offline.
D.The new disk name must be unique within the system.
E.Subdisks names will remain the same.
Correct:A E

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NO.15 Which statements are true about deporting a disk group? (Choose two.)
A.The volumes are unavailable.
B.The disk group is available for importing.
C.The disk group is deported and online.
D.The file systems are destroyed.
E.The file systems are accessible.
Correct:A B

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NO.16 Which vxsnap command option recreates a space-optimized instant snapshot?
A.restore
B.reattach
C.refresh
D.reassociate
Correct:C

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NO.17 Which commands display plex, volume, and kernel states? (Choose two.)
A.vxcat
B.vxdisplay
C.vxinfo
D.vxprint
E.vxstate
Correct:C D

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NO.18 Which command grows the datavol volume by an additional 30 MB and resizes the file system at
the same time?
A.vxassist -g datadg growby datavol 30m
B.vxresize -g datadg datavol 30m
C.vxresize -g datadg datavol +30m
D.vxassist -g datadg growto datavol 30m
Correct:C

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NO.19 Which command upgrades the datadg disk group from version 50 to the current disk group
version?
A.vxdg -T 50 upgrade datadg
B.vxdg upgrade datadg
C.vxdg currvers datadg
D.vxdg 50 currvers datadg
Correct:B

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NO.20 After initializing a disk for use in Volume Manager, which command is used to create a disk
group named datadg on a device shown as device_tag and using a disk media name of datadg01?
A.vxassist create datadg datadg01=device_tag
B.vxdg create datadg datadg01=device_tag
C.vxdg init datadg datadg01=device_tag
D.vxassist datadg init datadg01= device_tag
Correct:C

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Exam Code: ST0-058
Exam Name: Symantec (Veritas Storage Foundations 5.1 for Windows (STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 96 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-01

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NO.1 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows component that stores information about
virtual objects?
A. private region
B. public region
C. dynamic disk group
D. dynamic disk
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is a best practice when installing Dymanic Multi-pathing for Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for
Windows?
A. have a single physical path to storage
B. turn off the hardware cache on external storage
C. have all physical paths to storage enabled
D. physically remove all the HBAs from the server
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows volume layout that achieves redundancy by
striping data with parity across multiple disks?
A. RAID 5
B. striped mirroring
C. concatenation
D. mirroring
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows (SFW) component that represents the
available space that SFW can use to assign to volumes?
A. public region
B. private region
C. dynamic disk group
D. dynamic disk
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which advantage does the hot relocation feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows
provide?
A. rebuilding of redundancy when there is a disk failure
B. automatic synchronization of replicated data
C. fast synchronization of RAID 5 volumes after a system crash
D. optimized synchronization of stale volume data
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which three advantages does the Veritas Volume Replicator feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1
for Windows provide? (Select three.)
A. hardware-independent copies of data that are consistent
B. dynamic bandwidth throttling
C. sharing of disk groups across heterogeneous systems
D. tiered storage of data across multiple disk arrays
E. replication over multiple TCP connections
Answer: ABE

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NO.7 What is the smallest unit of storage in Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows?
A. subdisk
B. plex
C. volume
D. partition
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which command can you use to set the read policy on a plex in Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for
Windows?
A. vxvol
B. vxplex
C. vxassist
D. vxedit
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which advantage does the VxCache feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows provide?
A. improved performance of dynamic volumes
B. hardware-independent, up-to-date remote copies of data
C. tiered storage of data across multiple disk arrays
D. fast recovery of disk group configurations
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows volume layout where data is arranged both
sequentially and contiguously within a single plex?
A. concatenation
B. striping
C. mirroring
D. RAID 5
Answer: A

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NO.11 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows virtual object that contains plex objects?
A. volume
B. subdisk
C. disk group
D. dynamic disk
Answer: A

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NO.12 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows component that is a structured collection of
subdisks that represents one copy of the data?
A. plex
B. volume
C. dynamic disk
D. dynamic disk group
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which advantage does the FlashSnap feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows provide?
A. hardware-independent, point-in-time copies of data
B. hardware-independent, synchronous remote copies of data
C. fast recovery of disk group configuration
D. sharing of disk groups across heterogeneous systems
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which advantage is provided by the Write-order Fidelity feature of Veritas Volume Replicator in Veritas
Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows?
A. consistent secondary volumes
B. fast resynchronization of mirrored secondary volumes
C. RAID 5 logging on secondary volumes
D. fast updates to secondary volumes
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which action in the Veritas Enterprise Administrator console should you use to move a set of subdisks
from one dynamic disk group to a new dynamic disk group?
A. Split Dynamic Disk Group
B. Remove Disks from Dynamic Disk Group
C. Move Dynamic Disk Group Objects
D. Join Dynamic Disk Group
Answer: A

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NO.16 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows virtual object that is directly accessed by a
filesystem?
A. volume
B. subdisk
C. subvolume
D. dynamic disk
Answer: A

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NO.17 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows virtual object that holds a single complete
copy of the data?
A. plex
B. volume
C. subdisk
D. LUN
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which advantage is provided by the SmartMove feature in Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for
Windows?
A. reduction of mirror synchronization time
B. rebuilding of redundancy in the case of a disk failure
C. automatic failover in the case of a path failure
D. consistent secondary volumes using Veritas Volume Replicator
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which advantage does the Data Change Object (DCO) feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for
Windows provide?
A. optimized resynchronization of stale volume data
B. ability to grow volumes online
C. control of volumes across heterogeneous systems
D. fast resynchronization of mirrored volumes after a system crash
Answer: A

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NO.20 What is one difference between a basic disk and a dynamic disk?
A. private region
B. application data
C. volume
D. resides on a single plex
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ST0-075
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Data Loss Prevention 9.0 (STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 105 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-01

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NO.1 A policy manager wants to apply policies only to certain employees with a specific classification level.
Which TrueMatch detection method can help accomplish this?
A.Directory Group Matching (DGM)
B.Exact Data Matching (EDM)
C.Described Content Matching (DCM)
D.Indexed Document Matching (IDM)
ANSWER: A

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NO.2 Which products run on the same detection server?
A.Network Protect and Network Discover
B.Endpoint Discover and Network Discover
C.Network Monitor and Network Prevent
D.Network Discover and Network Monitor
ANSWER: A

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NO.3 What are three benefits that data loss prevention solutions provide that other security technologies or
tools do not? (Select three.)
A.give visibility into where sensitive data is stored
B.give insight into capacity planning for sensitive data
C.identify who has access to sensitive data
D.indicate where sensitive data is being sent
E.measure encryption strength for sensitive data
ANSWER: ACD

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NO.4 Which product lets an incident responder see who has access to confidential files on a public file
share?
A.Network Protect
B.Network Monitor
C.Network Prevent
D.Network Discover
ANSWER: D

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NO.5 Which component of Microsoft Outlook Personal Folder (.pst) files does Network Discover apply filters
to?
A.individual emails in the .pst file
B.the entire .pst file
C.attachments in the .pst file
D.folders in the .pst file
ANSWER: B

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NO.6 Which product can replace a confidential document residing on a public share with a Marker File
explaining why the document was removed?
A.Network Prevent
B.Network Protect
C.Network Monitor
D.Network Discover
ANSWER: B

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NO.7 What must a system administrator do for Network Monitor filter configuration changes to take effect?
A.recycle VontuManager and VontuMonitorController services on Enforce
B.recycle PacketCapture process on the Network Monitor
C.recycle VontuNotifier service to propagate changes to Network Monitor
D.recycle Network Monitor server from the Server Detail page
ANSWER: D

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NO.8 Which three statements apply to communication between the Enforce Server and detection servers?
(Select three.)
A.By default, the Enforce Server and the detection servers communicate over port 8100.
B.Port 3389 must be open between the Enforce Server and the detection servers.
C.The same port number must be used for all detection servers.
D.The servers can be configured to use any port higher than 1024.
E.IPSec must be configured on the Enforce Server and the detection servers.
ANSWER: ACD

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NO.9 Where does an incident responder find the exact matches that triggered an incident?
A.Dashboard report
B.Incident Snapshot
C.Incident List
D.System Events report
ANSWER: B

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NO.10 Which database does Symantec Data Loss Prevention 9.0 support for incident and policy storage?
A.Oracle 10g version 10.2.0.4
B.any version of Oracle 10g
C.Oracle 10g version 10.2.0.1
D.Microsoft SQL Server
ANSWER: A

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NO.11 Which three are examples of confidential data? (Select three.)
A.national ID numbers
B.published press releases
C.health information
D.CAD drawings
E.manufacturing plant locations
ANSWER: ACD

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NO.12 Which three are valid Scanned Content filter types for the Discover File System target? (Select three.)
A.Exclude filter
B.File Size filter
C.Read ACL filter
D.File Owner filter
E.File Date filter
ANSWER: ABE

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NO.13 Which two products are required for quarantining confidential files residing inappropriately on a public
file share? (Select two.)
A.Network Discover
B.Endpoint Discover
C.Network Monitor
D.Network Prevent
E.Network Protect
ANSWER: AE

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NO.14 Which three describe an effective data loss prevention (DLP) program? (Select three.)
A.DLP is a company-wide initiative.
B.DLP is primarily driven by Information Security.
C.DLP is primarily driven by the Incident Response Team.
D.Employee participation is important.
E.Business stakeholders are held accountable for risk reduction.
ANSWER: ADE

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NO.15 What does a data loss prevention solution help an organization identify? (Select three.)
A.employee education opportunities
B.risk of virus infection
C.unprotected content on laptops
D.illegally obtained software on desktops
E.encryption enforcement opportunities
ANSWER: ACE

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NO.16 What is a function of the Enforce Server?
A.provides a GUI for policy creation
B.detects incidents
C.writes incidents to all detection servers
D.deploys agents to endpoint computers
ANSWER: A

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NO.17 Under which high-level node in the left navigation panel can administrators find the Discover Targets
page?
A.Policy
B.Reports
C.Administration
D.Data at Rest
ANSWER: A

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NO.18 Why do companies deploy data loss prevention solutions? (Select two.)
A.to protect their perimeters from external threats
B.to help protect their brands and reputations
C.to prevent employee access to undesirable websites
D.to encrypt sensitive data to ensure secure transmission
E.to reduce the likelihood of data breaches and related costs
ANSWER: BE

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NO.19 What is a three-tier Symantec Data Loss Prevention 9.0 deployment?
A.two Enforce Servers deployed on the same host as the database
B.three different detection servers deployed on separate hosts
C.Enforce Server and a detection server deployed on the same host as the database
D.Enforce Server, detection servers, and the database deployed on separate hosts
ANSWER: D

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NO.20 Under which high-level node in the left navigation panel can administrators find the System Events
report?
A.Reports
B.Policy
C.System Health
D.Administration
ANSWER: D

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Exam Code: ST0-050
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Network Access Control 11 (STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-01

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NO.1 What must an administrator specify in a custom requirement that is different from a predefined
requirement?
A. the client's policy manager domain
B. the client's group assignment
C. the policy's ending Host Integrity state
D. the policy's log entries
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which two event details are included in a standard Host Integrity log file? (Choose two.)
A. client Host Integrity status
B. name and state of each requirement
C. error messages
D. checked parameter
E. http 200 ok
Answer: AC

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NO.3 How can the client be enabled to write the Host Integrity script to the disk?
A. set a condition in a custom requirement to write the script
B. set it in the Host Integrity policy under Advanced settings
C. enable debug logging through the registry on the endpoint
D. enable from the Clients tab under the Endpoint Machines Properties
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which check can be performed using custom requirements to verify whether a product is running on a
client machine?
A. check that the service is running in the services snap-in
B. check that the service is running
C. check that the service has been stopped
D. check that the service has been registered
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the first step to troubleshoot a custom requirement in a Host Integrity policy?
A. run the Host Integrity check several times
B. carefully examine the logic structure of the conditions
C. examine the Security Compliance Summary reports
D. check the properties of the endpoint from the Clients page
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which custom requirement utility allows an administrator the ability to choose an informative icon to
display to the end user?
A. run a script
B. log message
C. show message dialog
D. run a program
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is AVScript.js used for?
A. client status
B. to write to the system log
C. to start the status monitor
D. Host Integrity
Answer: D

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NO.8 How many network interface(s) need to be configured for a Gateway Enforcer appliance?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.9 Where does an administrator view compliance log files?
A. from the specific client in the Network Access Control log
B. from the Policy Manager console in the Monitors page
C. from the Policy Manager console in the Admin page
D. from the Enforcer debug logs
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which settings are specific to Antivirus and Antispyware predefined requirements?
A. application startup command
B. signature file check
C. execute an installation package
D. allow user to cancel remediation
Answer: B

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NO.11 Where are Symantec Network Access Control client packages placed on the Symantec Endpoint
Protection Manager?
A. Client/Policies
B. Admin/Install Packages
C. Policies/Policy Components
D. Clients/Install Packages
Answer: B

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NO.12 How should the logical condition of an IF/THEN/ENDIF statement be reversed?
A. add an AND statement
B. enable the Reverse Logic Processing Engine for the requirement
C. use the Transform function of the extended scripting commands
D. toggle the NOT function on the IF portion of the statement
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which check can be performed using custom requirements to verify whether an antivirus product is
up-to-date on a client machine?
A. check the date of the associated signature data file(s) on the client
B. check the date of the associated signature data files(s) on the LiveUpdate server
C. check the date of the associated signature data file(s) on the IT database
D. check the date of the associated signature data file(s) in the policy manager
Answer: A

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NO.14 To verify that a Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager has Symantec Network Access Control
functionality, what change to the Policies tab would an administrator see?
A. Host Integrity
B. Host Checking
C. Host Compliance
D. Host Inspection
Answer: A

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NO.15 A Helpdesk technician is examining the logs for a particular client when he notices something odd. A
Host Integrity event is listed for a client as failing a requirement, but that client machine is still able to
access the network even after having the check rerun several times. Why would the client's Host Integrity
status still pass?
A. The requirement logic is malfunctioning and the Helpdesk technician should notify the administrator to
contact the vendor.
B. It is likely to be a problem with the recording of the status. The log search must be rerun to update the
status.
C. The administrator has configured that requirement to allow the Host Integrity policy to pass even if it
fails.
D. The administrator has configured the OS to ignore Host Integrity even when it fails.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which three types of data can be used with LAN Enforcers for the authentication sequence? (Choose
three.)
A. machine GUID
B. Policy ID
C. Host Integrity state
D. location awareness settings
E. user group
Answer: ACD

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NO.17 What is the default context in which programs are run when using the patch requirement in a Host
Integrity policy?
A. in logged-in user context
B. in system context
C. in administrator user context
D. in domain-user context
Answer: B

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NO.18 When choosing to run a script as an action in a custom requirement, which file format(s) can be used
to write the script?
A. only BAT or INI formats
B. only Pearl scripting
C. a custom file format with the .symc extension
D. any executable format recognized by Windows
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which two default user accounts are created on an Enforcer? (Choose two.)
A. administrator
B. admin
C. root
D. user
E. guest
Answer: AC

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NO.20 When is Host Integrity Checking enabled on a Symantec Network Access Control (SNAC) client?
A. when the Host Integrity policy is configured and distributed to the client
B. when the SNAC client is updated by LiveUpdate for content
C. during the heartbeat authentication process with the Enforcer
D. automatically when an upgrade to SNAC is made
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ST0-096
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Backup Exec 2010(STS))
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Total Q&A: 160 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-01

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NO.1 What is the trial period for Symantec Backup Exec 2010?
A.7 days
B.30 days
C.60 days
D.120 days
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which two database versions can be used to store the Symantec Backup Exec 2010 Database
(BEDB)? (Select two.)
A.Microsoft SQL Server Desktop Engine 2000 SP3a
B.Microsoft SQL Express 2005 SP3
C.Microsoft SQL 2000 SP3a
D.Microsoft SQL 2008
E.Microsoft SQL 2005 SP2
Answer: BD

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NO.3 Which components make up the basic Symantec Backup Exec 2010 installation?
A.Central Administration Server (CAS), media server, storage devices, and media
B.media server, Administration Console, domain controller, and clients
C.Central Administration Server (CAS), Administration Console, storage controllers, and media
D.media server, Administration Console, storage devices, and clients
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which two Symantec Backup Exec 2010 Agents can use Granular Recovery Technology? (Select two.)
A.Active Directory Recovery Agent
B.Agent for Microsoft SharePoint
C.Agent for Lotus Domino
D.Agent for Oracle on Windows or Linux Servers
E.Agent for Enterprise Vault
Answer: AB

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NO.5 Which Symantec Backup Exec 2010 option allows backup of a NetApp filer?
A.Advanced Disk-Based Backup Option
B.NDMP Option
C.NAS Option
D.Remote Agent for NDMP devices
Answer: B

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NO.6 If LiveUpdate fails to install a patch, which file contains information to troubleshoot this issue?
A.Bkupinst.log
B.Bkupinst.htm
C.Liveupdate.htm
D.Liveupdate.log
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which two rights does Symantec Backup Exec 2010 assign to the Backup Exec Service Account
during installation? (Select two.)
A.Log on as a service
B.Log on as administrator
C.Create a token object
D.Create a token administrator
E.Manage operator rights
Answer: AC

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NO.8 Which type of backup is used for an online database and other files that are open and in use by other
applications?
A.snapshot
B.flat
C.active
D.hot
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which option is included with a server license in Symantec Backup Exec 2010?
A.Advanced Open File Option (AOFO)
B.Advanced Disk-based Backup Option (ADBO)
C.Central Admin Server Option (CASO)
D.Granular Recovery Technology Option (GRT)
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which two options are available for Symantec Backup Exec 2010? (Select two.)
A.Symantec Backup Exec SAN Media Server Option
B.Symantec Backup Exec Deduplication Option
C.Symantec Backup Exec Inline Tape Copy Option
D.Symantec Backup Exec Granular Recovery Option
E.Symantec Backup Exec Advanced Disk-based Backup Option
Answer: BE

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NO.11 Which two functions does the Symantec Backup Exec 2010 media server perform? (Select two.)
A.controls and manages backup and restore operations
B.controls authentication and access to the SAN disk storage
C.controls role-based security
D.attaches to and controls storage device hardware
E.creates image-based system backups
Answer: AD

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NO.12 What is stored directly in the Symantec Backup Exec Database (BEDB)?
A.alerts
B.job logs
C.license information
D.role-based security credentials
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which added functionality becomes available when Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM),
Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP), and Symantec Backup Exec 2010 (BE) are installed on the same
computer?
A.BE jobs can invoke a virus scan without using a script.
B.BE will display information from SEPM.
C.SEPM can initiate BE restore jobs.
D.SEP will quarantine virus-infected files and initiate a backup.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which versions of Symantec Backup Exec is supported for direct upgrade to Symantec Backup Exec
2010?
A.version 8.x and later
B.version 9.x and later
C.version 10.x and later
D.version 11.x and later
Answer: D

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NO.15 How can an administrator install the Backup Exec Database (BEDB) when installing Symantec Backup
Exec 2010 on a Windows 2008 Read-Only Domain Controller (RODC)?
A.locally, using Microsoft SQL Express
B.remotely, using Microsoft SQL Server 2005
C.remotely, using MySQL
D.locally, using Microsoft SQL 2005 in read-only mode
Answer: B

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NO.16 What is supported by Symantec Backup Exec 2010?
A.Windows NT 4.0
B.Lotus Domino
C.Tivoli Storage Manager
D.Microsoft Data Protection Manager
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which Symantec Backup Exec 2010 utility automatically scans a computer targeted for installation and
reports on system requirements?
A.Backup Exec Installation Check
B.Backup Exec Diagnostic Check
C.Backup Exec Environment Check
D.Backup Exec Prerequisite Check
Answer: C

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NO.18 What are two supported processor types for installing and running a Symantec Backup Exec 2010
media server? (Select two.)
A.AMD
B.Itanium
C.RISC
D.Xeon
E.SPARC
Answer: AD

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NO.19 Which job can Symantec Backup Exec 2010 be configured to run when certain Symantec ThreatCon
levels are reached?
A.virus scan
B.backup
C.duplicate backup
D.restore
Answer: B

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NO.20 What does Symantec Backup Exec 2010 use to track contents of media?
A.catalogs
B.job logs
C.media headers
D.media sets
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ST0-086
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010(STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 127 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-01

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NO.1 A computer is currently managed by Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery Manager 8.5. The
administrator needs to manage that computer using Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010
Management Solution.
Which component will be removed during migration?
A. Altihs plug-in
B. Altihs Agent
C. Management Console
D. Management Control
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which backup method is available with Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Linux Edition?
A. independent recovery point backup
B. recovery point set backup
C. incremental backup
D. file and folder backup
Answer: A

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NO.3 When installing the Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Agent on Windows Server 2008,
which two services are automatically installed on the host computer? (Select two.)
A. Symantec Alert service
B. Symantec SymSnap VSS Provider service
C. Symantec pcAnywhere Host service
D. SymSnapService service
E. Symantec FiashSnap service
Answer: B, D

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NO.4 Which functionality found in Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Windows Edition is also
available in Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Linux Edition?
A. converting an image file to a virtual hard disk
B. creating a backup every month on a specified day
C. managing backups using a local graphical console
D. restoring an entire computer to the same hardware
Answer: D

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NO.5 Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 (BESR) Is installed on a windows Server 2003 it Is then
used to deploy agents to five remote computers running windows Server 2003. and nve computers
running windows 7 Enterprise.
Regardless of the edition. how many total BESR licenses are required to license all machines in the
environment?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 6
D. 10
E. 11
Answer: E

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NO.6 Using the Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Management Solution, an administrator can
define which two types or backup policies? (Select two)
A. Backup Point Set
B. File and Folder Policy
C. Recovery Point Set
D. Independent Backup Point
E. Independent Recovery Point
Answer: C, E

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NO.7 An administrator has an internal drive that is only used for temporary storage. Which option must De
configured to disable status reporting for this drive?
A. Error Only status reporting
B. Configure status reporting
C. No status reporting
D. Full status reporting
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which tool is used in Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 to control permissions?
A. Permission Configuration tool
B. Rote-Dased Administration tool
C. Security Configuration tool
D. User Access Control tool
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which two options must be installed to migrate managed client computers from Symantec Backup
Exec System Recovery Manager 85 (BESR) to Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010
Management Solution? (Select two.)
A. Altiris Agent
B. BESR plug-in
C. Symantec Installation Manager
D. Symantec ThreatCon
E. BESR Management Console
Answer: A, B

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NO.10 Which configuration feature of Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 allows the recovery of
a remote machine by removing the requirement for external boot media?
A. Restore Anyware
B. LightsOut Restore
C. Cold Image Restore
D. Symantec pcAnywhere
Answer: B

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NO.11 An administrator needs to configure the Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Event log
logging level for only the most critical problems.
Which two steps are required to accomplish this? (Select two).
A. set the type of messages to High Priority Messages
B. set the type of messages to All Messages
C. set the type of messages to Medium and High Priority Messages
D. check the Errors check Dox
E. check the Errors and warnings check Dox
F. check me Errors, warnings, and informational check Dox
Answer: A, D

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NO.12 An administrator needs to create a new destination for the backup of a server with Symantec Backup
Exec System Recovery 2010 (BESR) Management Solution.
Which server requires access to the location?
A. the client server
B. the BESR Management Solution database server
C. the BESR Management Solution server
D. the UveUpdate server
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is the first required step tor managing computers from Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery
2010 Management Solution?
A. create resource targets
B. define backup policies
C. install the Alans Agent
D. discover computers on the network
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which two options are available to configure FTP offsite copy? (Select two)
A. Failover to alternate site
B. secure FTP
C. Limit connection attempts to
D. Connection mode
E. Limit number of copies
Answer: C, D

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NO.15 Which two options will activate the Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 (BESR) evaluation
period? (Select two.)
A. beginning the BESR installation program
B. running a dnve-based or file and folder backup
C. booting a system from the System Recovery Disk (SRD)
D. defining a drive-based or file and folder backup
E. completing the BESR Installation program
Answer: B, D

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NO.16 Which type of backup task for Linux is supported oy Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010
Management Solution?
A. offsite copy
B. recovery point set
C. file and folder backup
D. independent recovery point
Answer: D

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NO.17 What is the minimum amount of memory required to run Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery
2010 for Linux17
A. 256 MB
B. 384 MB
C. 512MB
D. 1 GB
Answer: A

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NO.18 What is me minimum memory that LightsOut Restore requires to run?
A. 512MB
B. 768 MB
C. 1 GB
D. 2 GB
Answer: C

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NO.19 In an organization, users are commonly working on their computers while Backups are occurring.
To improve application performance for users, how is Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010
tuned tor user performance to take priority over backups?
A. adjust Default Performance
B. suspend backups while the system is active
C. change Connection Mode
D. enable the Computer Responsiveness setting
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which option must be installed prior to installing Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010
Management Solution?
A. Symantec Management Console
B. Symantec Installation Manager
C. Symantec Backup Exec Infrastructure Manager
D. Symantec LiveUpdate
Answer: B

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