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Exam Code: LOT-825
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Portal 6 Deployment and Administration)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 103 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-02

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NO.1 .Constance, a Portal user, is noticing that a portlet she utilizes takes a long time to render. Data is
drawn from other portlets, some of which access remote data. Which of the following can the
administrator implement to help reduce the time Constance waits for the portlet?
A. Portal clustering
B. Real-time database access
C. Parallelportlet rendering
D. Synchronousportlet transfer
Answer: C

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NO.2 Particular Portal productivity editors in the Document Manager portlet need to be disabled. Which
of the following tasks must be performed?
A. UsePortlet Management to edit the properties of the Productivity editors portlet application
B. Select the Edit link on the Document managerportlet and uncheck the editors that must be
disabled
C. Select the Design link on the Document managerportlet and uncheck the editors that must be
disabled
D. Use the Manage Document Librariesportlet, select the Configure link and uncheck the editors
that must be disabled
Answer: C

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NO.3 .You are utilizing ReleaseBuilder to stage configurations between two releases.
You are tracking which configuration entities were removed, added or changed compared to the
previous release. Which of the following are created to detect deviations between one
configuration and another?
A. Staged updates
B. Deletion updates
C. Differential updates
D. Configuration updates
Answer: C

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NO.4 .As the Portal administrator, you are exporting and transferring a document library from a staging
system to a production system. You have successfully created an empty shared directory to hold
the exported document library. Both the staging and production servers have write access to the
shared directory. When you move the document library from the staging system to the production
system, which of the following occurs to private drafts?
A. They are converted to submitted drafts
B. They are transferred without modifications
C. They will all be converted to the same UUID
D. They are appended a new document version number
Answer: B

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NO.5 Your WebSphere Portal environment is supposed to access a remote LDAP directory that is
supported by another group in your organization. However, they will not allow changes to be
made to their LDAP directory structure. Portal has requirements that cannot be met by their
structure. Which of the following is the best possible solution?
A. Do not utilize the remote LDAP directory and create a local Cloudscape directory
B. Utilize the remote LDAP directory and disable all features that require customization
C. Utilize the remote LDAP directory and create aLookaside database for additional profile
information
D. Copy the remote LDAP directory into a local LDAP source and make the necessary
customization needed to utilize the local source
Answer: C

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NO.6 A common portlet is available to multiple virtual portals. However, you do not wish the marketing
virtual portal to utilize a PIM portlet. Which of the following offers the ability to restrict the portlet
from the marketing virtual portal users?
A. Portal Access Control
B. Portlet Security Control
C. Virtual Portal Restriction
D. Websphere Member Manager
Answer: A

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NO.7 .When utilizing the IBM Portlet API, which of the following is valid regarding Cooperative Portlets?
A. They cannot use Click-to-Action
B. They support chained propagation of data
C. They cannot broadcast properties to all targetportlets at one time
D. They can only use wires to pass properties from sourceportlets to target portlets
Answer: B

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NO.8 .In which of the following circumstances will a Consumer use the XML configuration interface to
create a Producer when utilizing Web Services for Remote Portlets?
A. When the Consumer is offline
B. Every time that a Consumer needs to create a Producer
C. A Consumer does not create a Producer using the XML configuration interface
D. When there is no Web Services Definition Language document available to the Consumer
Answer: A

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NO.9 .Portlets can write message and trace information to log files to assist the portal administrator to
investigate portlet errors and special conditions and help the portlet developer test and debug
portlets. In which of the following locations are these logs maintained?
A. <app_server_root>/logs
B. <portal_server_root>/log/
C. <websphere_root>/portal/log
D. <app_server_root>/trace/logs
Answer: B

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NO.10 .Dana, a Portal user, is a member of multiple virtual portals in her company.
Within the virtual portals and PAC, you have made restrictions on what is visible, including
scoping
resources. Which of the following Portal resources may not be controlled in this manner?
A. Portlets
B. Web modules
C. Portlet Applications
D. Composite applications
Answer: D

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NO.11 .In order to implement a highly available END-TO-END security solution for a production portal
environment, which of the following sets of components would be most useful?
A. Netegrity SiteMinder, Credentials vault, Dynamic Cache, Deployment Manager hot standby
B. Tivoli Access Manager, Load Balancing Edge component, Portal Cluster, LDAP server cluster
C. Tivoli Access Manager, Portal Cluster, Credential vault, Network-Attached Storage devices
D. Tivoli Access Manager,Netegrity SiteMinder, WebSphere Information Integrator, LDAP server
cluster
Answer: B

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NO.12 Members of a WebSphere Portal cluster exist on multiple physical machines to distribute the
workload of a single logical WebSphere Portal image. What is this called?
A. Vertical scaling
B. Horizontal scaling
C. Multi-machine design
D. HTTP server separation
Answer: B

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NO.13 .Margaret is in the process of copying a finance portlet application using the administrative pages.
Which of the following is true regarding the portlet data and portlet application data when copied?
A. Theportlet application data and the portlet data are copied from the original portlet
B. Theportlet application and portlet are copied, but all the parameters are left blank for
configuration by the administrator
C. Theportlet application parameters are copied from the original application, but the portlet
parameters are left blank in the copied portlet
D. Theportlet application parameters are left blank since this is a new version of the portlet, but
the portlet parameters are copied from the original portlet
Answer: A

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NO.14 .The company developers have provided you a new portlet for deployment in your company's
Portal cluster. Which of the following is the correct way to deploy the portlet to the cluster?
A. Deploy theportlet to one Portal cluster member in the cell with identical configurations
B. Deploy theportlet to the Deployment Manager specifying which cluster should receive the new
portlet
C. Deploy theportlet to one Portal cluster member in the cell and let it propagate and run
wpsconfig to activate the portlet
D. Manually update the Deployment Managerwmcluster.xml file to include the new portlet name
and to which Portal cluster it should be deployed
Answer: C

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NO.15 .The business units of your enterprise have needs for their own portals. However, the demand on
server resources is not great enough to require parallel installations. In response, your enterprise
chose virtual portals. Which of the following are available across each of the virtual portals?
A. Portal search
B. Document management
C. Portal propertyfile definitions
D. Anonymous pages per virtual portal
Answer: D

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NO.16 .In planning to utilize collaboration components, the existing Quickplace server utilizes a central
LDAP directory based on Lotus Domino. Both the Quickplace and the LDAP server are accessed
via SSL. Which of the following is correct if you wish to enable an IBM Lotus Sametime server
into the environment?
A. Sametime must utilize SSL and must point to its own local directory
B. Sametime has the option of using SSL and must point to its own local directory
C. Sametime must utilize SSL and point to the same directory that Quickplace accesses
D. Sametime has the option of using SSL and point to the same directory that Quickplace
accesses
Answer: C

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NO.17 .Composite applications can be defined by which of the following?
A. A group of applications that share a common theme
B. A list of applications available to the personalization server
C. A cluster ofWebSphere Portal servers that share a common database
D. A compiled set of components that address a particular business need
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the following best describes the difference between horizontal cloning and vertical
clustering?
A. Vertical clustering takes advantage of the resources of a multiprocessor system; horizontal
cloning allows for upward scalability
B. Vertical clustering allows for users to authenticate against multiple LDAP sources; horizontal
cloning allows multiple servers to act as one server
C. Horizontal cloning replicates the back-end database in real-time; vertical clustering takes
advantage of multiple Websphere servers as a single cell
D. Horizontal cloning allows multiple HTTP servers to server in a failover scenario; vertical
clustering allows Portal servers to combine processor and memory into one virtual server
Answer: A

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NO.19 .ReleaseBuilder enables management of release configurations independent of which of the
following?
A. XML configurations
B. User configurations
C. Staged configurations
D. Generation configurations
Answer: B

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NO.20 .Which of the following statements BEST describes how WebSphere Portal's functionality is
implemented on the WebSphere Application Server?
A. WebSphere Portal is deployed as a Web Application on the WebSphere Application Server
B. WebSphere Portal runs as an Enterprise Application on the WebSphere Application Server
C. WebSphere Portal runs a servlet within the WebSphere Application Server's Web Container
D. WebSphere Portal is deployed as a portlet to WebSphere Application Server's Web Container
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-376
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0, Solution Design)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 98 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-02

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NO.1 There are multiple instances of a cluster queue. Which of the following is recommended practice for the
default binding (DEFBIND) parameter?
A. Allow the local WebSphere MQ administrators to define default binding as they think best for each
instance of the queue.
B. Require the WebSphere MQ administrators to set default binding to the same value for all instances of
the queue in the cluster.
C. The solution designer should consult with the development team and local WebSphere MQ
administrator to determine how best to configure default binding of each queue manager.
D. The best option is to accept the default setting for default binding on each queue manager, as it should
have been given the optimal setting by its WebSphere MQ administrator.
Answer: B

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NO.2 An application creates documents in PDF format, which are subsequently transmitted via WebSphere
MQ to a number of other servers in the network. Each server runs its own queue manager. The
documents received by some servers are consistently corrupted, whereas on other servers the
documents are intact. Other message traffic seems unaffected. What is the most likely source of this
problem?
A. The environment variable MQCCSID specifies an incorrect value on the affected servers.
B. Incompatible message compression parameters are configured on the sending and receiving channel
agents.
C. The network connection to the affected servers is unreliable and a message retry exit was not specified
on the sending channel agent.
D. The affected servers run different CCSIDs from the servers creating the documents and the message
descriptor specifies MQMD.Format as QSTR? causing message conversion.?QSTR? causing message
conversion.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following should generally be avoided if an application is being designed for optimal
efficiency?
A. Make messages nonpersistent if they do not need to be recoverable.
B. Code programs to open and close queues, or connect and disconnect from the queue manager only
once, if the queues or connection will be used again.
C. Bundle the data to be transmitted into as few messages as possible (e.g., rather than sending a
hundred 1MB messages, send one 100MB message).
D. Group a batch of messages within a unit of work where appropriate, so that they can be committed all
at once (e.g., get and put messages under syncpoint and commit them in groups of 10, rather than
committing them individually).
Answer: C

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NO.4 A master data management solution has been implemented for the enterprise. Updates with customer
and product data need to be distributed to several applications. What is the BEST approach given that not
all applications might be interested in every customer type?
A. Use the publish/subscribe paradigm.
B. Receive updates on application-specific queues. Message properties and selectors should be used for
filtering.
C. Browse a common queue for updates.
D. Use a request-reply pattern and query the MDM (Master Data Management) application.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A solution designer has requested that several queues on a z/OS queue manager be defined with index
type set to message ID, i.e., INDXTYPE(MSGID). Why would a designer use this setting?
A. It creates a permanent index of MSGIDs that are currently in use for this queue.
B. It allows MQGET commands to have significantly improved performance when getting messages by
message ID.
C. It ensures that any new MSGIDs are unique as well as making the retrieval of messages based on
message ID more efficient.
D. The queue manager will keep an index of MSGIDs that have already been used to make sure that the
message ID is unique when a new message is put.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which new feature in WebSphere MQ V7.0 needs to be taken into account when WebSphere MQ
solutions are deployed into mixed z/OS and distributed environments?
A. Queue sharing groups are now available between z/OS and other platforms; however, at least one
queue manager in the group must still be hosted on z/OS.
B. The use of WebSphere MQ Explorer for the administration of z/OS based queue managers no longer
requires a license for the Client Attachment Feature (CAF) for a limited number of users.
C. WebSphere MQ Client applications from distributed environments can now directly connect to z/OS
queue managers; the Client Attachment Feature (CAF) is no longer required.
D. A WebSphere MQ Client implementation on z/OS is now available, so that full WebSphere MQ no
longer needs to be installed on all z/OS systems that want to participate in message queuing.
Answer: B

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NO.7 An application queue is triggered for trigger type of DEPTH. Following this, what action should the job
or program that was started as a result of the trigger take before it ends, so that the queue will be
triggered again the next time that trigger depth (TRIGDPTH) is reached?
A. It needs to use MQSET or an ALTER QLOCAL command to reset triggering (TRIGGER) for the queue.
B. It needs to reset trigger depth (TRIGDPTH) for the queue through an MQSET or ALTER QLOCAL
command.
C. It needs to reset trigger depth (TRIGDPTH) and triggering (TRIGGER) for the queue, using MQSET or
an ALTER QLOCAL command.
D. No action needs to be taken. The queue manager will create the next trigger message when the
current depth of the queue once again reaches trigger depth (TRIGDPTH).
Answer: A

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NO.8 An application is being designed which will send updates about customers to different applications.
Given the sensitive nature of the data, the sending application needs to manage which applications
receive the data. Which of the following is the best solution to ensure this?
A. Apply the publish-subscribe paradigm (one-to-many).
B. Each application should have its own queue on which it will listen for updates
C. All applications should listen on the same queue and after processing the message should update its
header so the last application process can remove it from the queue
D. All receiving applications should listen on the same queue and the sending application should send
separate copies of the message with attributes which allow the receiving applications to search the queue
for their own copies.
Answer: B

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NO.9 A bus company is implementing a solution which will display in real-time the arrival information of the
next bus on the bus stop sign. Each bus is sending information about its position at regular intervals. What
is the best way of implementing this solution given that there is limited bandwidth for communication? The
bus stop sign:
A. subscribes to messages published by the bus
B. queries a central system for bus position using SOAP over HTTP
C. replicates its own database every few minutes with a database stored on a central system
D. sends a message with a request every few minutes to a central system in order to query bus position.
All replies are compressed.
Answer: A

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NO.10 A suite of server applications is to be designed to support the graceful shutdown capabilities of
WebSphere MQ implemented via the ail ifA suite of server applications is to be designed to support the
graceful shutdown capabilities of WebSphere MQ implemented via the ?ail if quiescing?feature. Which of
the following best describes the use of this feature?
A. Applications that have this feature activated can request an extra grace period of a configurable length
that will allow them to complete critical processing before the queue manager will disconnect them.
B. Applications using this feature will be informed of the queue manager quiescing via a completion code
of MQCC_FAILED and a reason code of MQRC_Q_MGR_QUIESCING (or
MQRC_CONNECTION_QUIESCING) and will be disconnected automatically. Applications are expected
to
periodically attempt reconnection.
C. Using FAIL_IF_QUIESCING options where valid with MQI calls, an application can finalize MQ
processing, avoiding loss of data, before the queue manager is shut down.
D. When a queue manager is configured with the FAIL_IF_QUIESCING option and is being shut down, it
will reject all MQI calls with a completion code of MQCC_FAILED and a reason code of
MQRC_Q_MGR_QUIESCING (or MQRC_CONNECTION_QUIESCING) in order to assure fast and
reliable termination.
Answer: C

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NO.11 A solution developer is writing a C language application on a UNIX platform. There is a requirement
for the transactions to be processed within syncpoint control. What is the MINIMUM required MQ
component on the application platform to achieve this functionality?
A. WebSphere MQ Client Installation
B. WebSphere MQ Extended Transactional Client Installation
C. WebSphere MQ Server Installation
D. WebSphere MQ Server Installation with the XA capabilities configured
Answer: A

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NO.12 An organization has a widely distributed online environment, where applications are connected via
WebSphere MQ messaging. A business requirement is brought forward that certain mission critical
applications record audit trail data which is to be collected in a central location. No information can be lost.
A central data warehouse must be loaded daily with this information as soon as possible after end of
business. Which of the following proposed solutions is best in terms of the requirement, reliability and
overall performance? The audit trail data is:
A. written to a file on the local file system and transmitted to the central audit trail server via reliable file
transfer over WebSphere MQ.
B. sent as a persistent WebSphere MQ message and forwarded to the queue manager of the central
server asynchronously.
C. inserted into a central database table via a remote access database client under control of the local
WebSphere MQ transaction.
D. inserted into a local database table under two phase commit using WebSphere MQ as the transaction
manager and a bulk update is performed at end of day.
Answer: B

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NO.13 A solution designer is evaluating distribution scenarios and wants to understand the circumstances
where messages are not delivered as expected. Which of the following are reasons that a message is
placed on the DLQ?
A. A trigger monitor is unable to start the triggered program
B. The destination queue is full when the program puts the message to the local queue
C. The queue manager is quiescing when the program puts the message to the queue
D. A sending message channel agent is unable to perform data conversion when required for the
message
E. The program tries to put a message to an invalid local queue
Answer: A D

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NO.14 An application is required to retrieve rows from a relational database table and send them across
WebSphere MQ to a remote queue manager, where a receiving application consumes them. After a
successful MQPUT of a message, the corresponding row is to be deleted from the database. It is intended
to run this application using the free WebSphere MQ Client. The delivery of each message is to be
guaranteed. Which of the following is true about this implementation?
A. It cannot be done using the free WebSphere MQ Client; the Extended Transactional Client is required,
since two phase commits are needed for this solution.
B. It cannot be done using the free WebSphere MQ Client; a local queue manager is required to support
the guaranteed delivery of the messages.
C. This solution can be implemented using the free WebSphere MQ Client, provided that the receiving
application can recognize and handle repeated delivery of the same message.
D. This solution cannot be implemented using the free WebSphere MQ Client; persistent messaging is not
supported by the free WebSphere MQ Client.
Answer: C

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NO.15 The topic object for the topic x/y is defined with WILDCARD=PASSTHRU. Which of the following is the
most appropriate use of a wildcard for this topic?
A. Subscribe to topic x/y/#
B. Publish the information to topic x/y/#
C. Publish the information to topic x/y/+
D. It is not possible to use a wildcard with this topic
Answer: A

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NO.16 A solution designer is considering different API options for a new WebSphere MQ application. Only IBM
supported WebSphere MQ programming options should be considered. Which one of the following is not
supported by IBM?
A. XMS
B. JMS
C. Perl
D. WebSphere MQ classes for .NET
Answer: C

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NO.17 A new WebSphere MQ application with high volume requirements is being designed to run on Solaris.
The solution designer is concerned about the performance of the application. The WebSphere MQ for
Solaris V7 Performance Evaluation Report SupportPac provides all but one of the following types of
information to the solution designer. Which is NOT discussed in this document?
A. Suggestions for tuning WebSphere MQ
B. Information that can be used to size the company new applicationInformation that can be used to size
the company? new application
C. Evaluation of the relative cost of one WebSphere MQ API vs. another in different scenarios
D. Evaluation of the relative cost of persistent messages vs. nonpersistent messages in different
scenarios
Answer: C

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NO.18 A company has an MQI application on Windows that continuously browses a queue to identify a
message before removing it for processing. The application has only one program reading the queue. The
company is experiencing increased volumes, and there is a need to add additional instances of the
browsing program. Which of the following options could help with splitting and managing the workload
across the multiple browsing programs?
A. Use browse with lock
B. Use browse with message under cursor
C. Use browse with priority sequencing
D. Use MQ cooperative browsing optionsUse MQ? cooperative browsing options
E. Share an object handle across the programs
Answer: A D

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NO.19 In designing a solution with availability in mind, the designer is considering the following two
alternatives, one using a cluster queue and the other using a shared queue. In each scenario, Queue
Managers QMA and QMB will both be capable of running Application A. In the first scenario, Application A
will run on QMA and QMB on Windows accessing cluster queue QA. In the second scenario, Application A
will run on QMA and QMB on z/OS accessing shared queue QA. Which of the following describes the
availability scenarios in the situation where QMA fails?
A. For Windows, the delivered messages on QA that Application A on QMA did not get to process are
available for processing by Application A on QMB
B. For z/OS, the delivered messages on QA that Application A on QMA did not get to process are
available for processing by Application A on QMB
C. For Windows, messages from QA that were in flight on QMA when it failed are made available for
processing on QMB
D. For z/OS, messages from QA that were in flight on QMA when it failed are unavailable for processing
by QMB
Answer: B

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NO.20 Queue Managers QMA and QMB both have a cluster queue definition for Q1. A sending application
resides on QMC, which is also part of the cluster. The messages being sent from QMC contain data from
the same account that needs to be processed at the destination (Q1) in the same order that the
messages were sent. Which one of the following is MOST LIKELY to enforce the sending order on the
destination queue, assuming the message can be routed to the destination queue?
A. The sending application sends the messages for the account within the same unit of work
B. The sending application specifies the destination Queue Manager and Queue name on the open for
Q1 and sends the messages for the account
C. The sending application opens Q1 with MQOO_BIND_ON_OPEN and sends the messages for the
account
D. Q1 is defined with DEFBIND(OPEN) and the sending application opens Q1 and sends the messages
for the account
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 1Z0-055
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g: New Features for 9i OCPs)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 150 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-01

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NO.1 View the Exhibit to examine the details for an incident.
Which statement is true regarding the status of the incident?
A. The DBA is working on the incident and prefers that the incident be kept in the ADR.
B. The incident is now in the Done state and the ADR can select the incident to be purged.
C. The incident has been newly created and is in the process of collecting diagnostic information.
D. The data collection for the incident is complete and the incident can be packaged and sent to Oracle
Support.
Answer: D

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NO.2 You performed an incomplete recovery and opened the database with the RESETLOGS option. The
LOG_ARCHIVE_FORMAT parameter is set to 'ora_%t_%s_%r.log'. Which statement regarding the
archived redo log files, created in an earlier incarnation of the database, is true?
A. The archived redo log files will be overwritten.
B. The archived redo log files are deleted automatically.
C. The archived redo log files should be moved to some other location.
D. The archived redo log files are still maintained because the file names are unique.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which two statements are true with respect to the maintenance window? (Choose two.)
A. A DBA can enable or disable an individual task in all maintenance windows.
B. A DBA cannot change the duration of the maintenance window after it is created.
C. In case of a long maintenance window, all Automated Maintenance Tasks are restarted every four
hours.
D. A DBA can control the percentage of the resource allocated to the Automated Maintenance Tasks in
each window.
Answer: AD

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NO.4 An online tablespace, TEST_TBS, is full and you realize that no server-managed tablespace
threshold alerts were generated for the TEST_TBS tablespace. What could be the reason, if the
TEST_TBS tablespace does not include autoextensible data files?
A. TEST_TBS is a small file tablespace.
B. TEST_TBS is a bigfile tablespace (BFT).
C. TEST_TBS is the default temporary tablespace.
D. TEST_TBS is a dictionary-managed tablespace.
Answer: D

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NO.5 While deploying a new application module, the software vendor ships the application software along
with appropriate SQL plan baselines for the new SQLs being introduced. Which two statements describe
the consequences? (Choose two.)
A. The plan baselines can be evolved over time to produce better performance.
B. The newly generated plans are directly placed into the SQL plan baseline without being verified.
C. The new SQL statements initially run with the plans that are known to produce good performance
under standard test configuration.
D. The optimizer does not generate new plans for the SQL statements for which the SQL plan baseline
has been imported.
Answer: AC

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NO.6 When executing a SQL workload, you choose to generate execution plans only, without collecting
execution statistics. Which two statements describe the implications of this? (Choose two.)
A. It produces less accurate results of the comparison analysis.
B. It automatically calls the SQL Tuning Advisor for recommendations.
C. It shortens the time of execution and reduces the impact on system resources.
D. Only the changes in the execution plan, and not performance regression, are detected.
Answer: AC

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NO.7 Which are the prerequisites for performing flashback transactions on your database? (Choose all that
apply.)
A. Supplemental log must be enabled.
B. Supplemental log must be enabled for the primary key.
C. Undo retention guarantee for the database must be configured.
D. Execute permission on the DBMS_FLASHBACK package must be granted to the user.
Answer: ABD

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NO.8 Which of the following information will be gathered by the SQL Test Case Builder for the problems
pertaining to SQL-related problems? (Choose all that apply.)
A. ADR diagnostic files
B. all the optimizer statistics
C. initialization parameter settings
D. PL/SQL functions, procedures, and packages
E. the table and index definitions and actual data
Answer: BCE

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NO.9 Examine the following PL/SQL block:
SET SERVEROUTPUT ON
SET LONG 10000
DECLARE report clob;
BEGIN
report := DBMS_SPM.EVOLVE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINE();
DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LINE(report);
END;
Which statement describes the effect of the execution of the above PL/SQL block?
A. The plan baselines are verified with the SQL profiles.
B. All fixed plan baselines are converted into nonfixed plan baselines.
C. All the nonaccepted SQL profiles are accepted into the plan baseline.
D. The nonaccepted plans in the SQL Management Base are verified with the existing plan baselines.
Answer: D

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NO.10 View the Exhibit exhibit1.
In the CUSTOMERS_OBE table, when the value of CUST_STATE_PROVINCE is "CA", the value of
COUNTRY_ID is "US"
View the Exhibit exhibit2 to examine the commands and query plans.
The optimizer can sense 8 rows instead of 29 rows, which is the actual number of rows in the table. What
can you do to make the optimizer detect the actual selectivity?
A. Set the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter to TYPICAL.
B. Change the STALE_PERCENT value for the CUSTOMERS_OBE table.
C. Set the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to FALSE.
D. Create extended statistics for the CUST_STATE_PROVINCE and COUNTRY_ID columns.
Answer: D

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NO.11 While performing the backup of the flash recovery area, you notice that one of the archived redo log
files is missing. You have multiple destinations for archived redo log files. What implications does it have
on the backup of the flash recovery area?
A. The backup succeeds but it would be without the missing archived log.
B. The backup fails because one of the archived redo log files is missing.
C. The backup succeeds because it fails over to one of the alternative archived redo log destinations.
D. During backup, you are prompted for the alternative destination for the missing archived redo log file.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Identify the activities performed as part of the Automatic SQL Tuning process in the maintenance
window? (Choose all that apply.)
A. generating the SQL profile
B. testing and accepting the SQL profile
C. generating a list of candidate SQLs for tuning
D. adding tuned SQL plans into the SQL plan baseline
E. tuning each SQL statement in the order of importance
F. generating baselines that include candidate SQL statement for tuning
Answer: ABCE

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NO.13 Which setting enables the baselines by default in Oracle Database 11g?
A. setting the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter to TYPICAL
B. adding filters to the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)
C. enabling Automated Maintenance Task using Oracle Enterprise Manager
D. setting the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to TRUE
Answer: A

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NO.14 You want to convert your existing non-ASM files to ASM files for the database PROD. Which method or
command would you use to accomplish this task?
A. Data Pump Export and Import
B. conventional export and import
C. the CONVERT command of RMAN
D. the BACKUP AS COPY.. command of RMAN
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which method would you use to undo the changes made by a particular transaction without affecting
the changes made by other transactions?
A. point-in-time recovery
B. execute the ROLLBACK command with transaction number
C. flashback the database to before the transaction was committed
D. determine all the necessary undo SQL statements from FLASHBACK_TRANSACTION_QUERY and
use them for recovery
Answer: D

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NO.16 View the Exhibit for the object interdependency diagram.
The PRODUCTS table is used to create the PRODCAT_VW view.
PRODCAT_VW is used in the GET_DATA procedure.
GET_DATA is called in the CHECK_DATA function.
A new column PROD_QTY is added to the PRODUCTS table.
How does this impact the status of the dependent objects?
A. All dependent objects remain valid.
B. Only the procedure and function become invalid and must be recompiled.
C. Only the view becomes invalid and gets automatically revalidated the next time it is used.
D. Only the procedure and function become invalid and get automatically revalidated the next time they
are called.
Answer: A

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NO.17 View the Exhibit to examine the error during the database startup.
You open an RMAN session for the database instance. To repair the failure, you executed the following as
the first command in the RMAN session:
RMAN> REPAIR FAILURE;
Which statement describes the consequence of the command?
A. The command performs the recovery and closes the failures.
B. The command only displays the advice and the RMAN script required for repair.
C. The command produces an error because the ADVISE FAILURE command has not been executed
before the REPAIR FAILURE command.
D. The command executes the RMAN script to repair the failure and removes the entry from the
Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR).
Answer: C

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NO.18 In your database, the RESULT_CACHE_MODE parameter has been set to MANUAL in the
initialization parameter file.
You issued the following command:
SQL>SELECT /*+ RESULT_CACHE */ sale_category, sum(sale_amt)
FROM sales
GROUP BY sale_category;
Where would the result of this query be stored?
A. PGA
B. large pool
C. shared pool
D. database buffer cache
Answer: C

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NO.19 You issued the following command:
CREATE GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE admin_work_area
(startdate DATE,
enddate DATE,
class CHAR(20))
ON COMMIT DELETE ROWS
TABLESPACE tbs_t1;
An index is then created on the ADMIN_WORK_AREA temporary table.
Which two statements are true regarding the TBS_T1 tablespace in the above command? (Choose two.)
A. It stores only the temporary table but not its indexes.
B. It stores both the temporary table as well as its indexes.
C. It must be a nondefault temporary tablespace for the database.
D. It can be a default or nondefault temporary tablespace for the database.
E. It must be the default temporary tablespace of the user who issues the command.
Answer: BD

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NO.20 Your system has been upgraded from Oracle Database 10g to Oracle Database 11g. You imported
SQL Tuning Sets (STS) from the previous version. After changing the OPTIMIZER_FEATURE_ENABLE
parameter to 10.2.0.4 and running the SQL Performance Analyzer, you observed performance regression
for a few SQL statements. What would you do with these SQL statements?
A. Set OPTIMIZER_USE_PLAN_BASELINES to FALSE to prevent the use of regressed plans.
B. Capture the plans from the previous version using STS and then load them into the stored outline.
C. Capture the plans from the previous version using STS and then load them into SQL Management
Base (SMB).
D. Set OPTIMIZER_CAPTURE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES to FALSE to prevent the plans from being
loaded to the SQL plan baseline.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 1Z0-521
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle EBS R12.1 Order Management Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 92 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-01

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NO.1 ACME runs on the PTO fulfillment model.
All the business rules for configuring the model are set up using configurator, which makes it initial for
configuring PTO models.
Which statement is true?
A. A routing needs to be defined for PTO model.
B. Ship the model completely or the individual options.
C. Process the configured item to generate the work order.
D. After selecting the all options, the PTO model must be processed to get the configured.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Identify three correct statements regarding explicit and implicit acceptance. (Choose three)
A. Action attribute - Fulfillment Acceptance is necessary for implicit acceptance
B. An implicit acceptance request set ha two concurrent request:
1. Generate Pre-billing Acceptance program for pre-billing, implicit acceptance
2) Revenue contingency Analyzer for post-billing implicit acceptance.
C. Execution of concurrent program is not needed to perform post billing, implicit acceptance.
D. CSR can enter explicit acceptance via the order information portal or the order import correction.
E. An acceptance comment field is available on order header level (Order information/other tab) of the
sales order form.
F. An implicit acceptance deferral reason must be defined in AR with an event attribute using ship
confirmation date and expiration days.
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.3 An order has five lines with line status of staged/pick confirmed.
There is no record on the delivery tab in the shipping transaction from for this order.
What could be the possible solution?
A. Resolve the shipping exception.
B. Enable shipping privilege for the user.
C. Auto create delivery from the pick release form.
D. Auto create delivery from the delivery transaction form.
E. Auto create delivery from the shipping transaction form.
Answer: E

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NO.4 Identify three correct statements about cascading attributes. (Choose three)
A. Enable Quit code OM_Header_to _line_Cascade.
B. Enable the key profile option OM: sales order form: Cascade Header changes to the line.
C. The cascading attributes feature is applicable for user interface, but not for an API (Process order)
D. When an update constraint is violated for a line attribute, the constraint will allows updates to other
lines.
E. There are only two modes (Automatic and Manual) for the profile OM: sales order form Cascade
Header change to line.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 The item sub inventory report output contains _______. (Choose three)
A. EOQ
B. Source type
C. Locator control
D. Focus forecast
E. Fixed Lot multiple
F. Min-max information
Answer: B,E,F

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NO.6 A key business user requirement to those users should be able to create sales order with distributor
keys trokes.
Which four setup options facilitate reduced data entry? (Choose four)
A. Defaulting rules
B. Transaction types
C. OM: invoice source
D. Processing constraints
E. Automatic attachments rules
F. OM: invoice transaction type
G. OM: enable Related items and manual substitutions
Answer: A,B,E,G

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NO.7 ACME has offices in various countries and its customers and supports are based around the globe.
Given that the addresses are formatted in each country, how would you setup the system to handle this
situation?
A. Ser up the address as a context-sensitive key Flexfield.
B. Ser up the address as a free format segmented value set.
C. Ser up the address as a context-sensitive descriptive field
D. Ser up the address as a dependent value set country-specific segments.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which option identifies the requirements to ship confirm a sale order line?
A. The item attribute is shippable and shipping is an activity in the line work flow.
B. The item attribute is shippable, the line status is picked and shipping is an identity to the lines workflow.
C. The item attribute is shippable, the line status Booked, and shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.
D. The item attribute is shippable, the line status Entered, and shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.
E. The item attribute is shippable, the line status Shipped, and shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.
F. The item attribute is shippable, the line status Awaiting, and shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.
Answer: B

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NO.9 The seeded OM workflow contains a number of item types. Identify five valid item types? (Choose five)
A. Ship Only
B. Order Only
C. OM Standard
D. Order Header
E. OM price Only
F. Return for Credit
G. OM change Order
H. OM blanket Header
Answer: B,C,D,G,H

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NO.10 Which three statements are about freight carriers? (Choose three)
A. Freight carriers can be defined only in transportation.
B. Freight carriers are used for customer shipments.
C. Freight carriers are specific to inventory organization.
D. General ledger accounts can not be associated with freight to collect associated costs.
E. Inter organization transfer uses an associated general ledger account to specify the freight.
F. Freight carriers are used for shipments to and from customers, suppliers, and internal organizations.
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.11 Allowing a negative on hand balance is set at _________.
A. The Entity Level
B. The Subinventory Level
C. The operating Unit Level
D. The Item master inventory level
E. The Inventory organization level
Answer: E

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NO.12 Identify four functional setup steps that you would perform for ATP base on collection data. (Choose
four)
A. Define price lists
B. Define ATP rules
C. Setup stock locations
D. Setup transit lead time
E. Set up pricing modifiers
F. Select the ATP item attribute
G. Set up profile INV: capable to promise
Answer: B,D,F,G

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NO.13 Identify three true statements regarding freight and special charges. (Choose three)
A. Accrual is valid application method for modifier type of freight/special charges.
B. Basic pricing provides seeded freight and special charges type of modifier list.
C. You can define your own implementation-specific freight and special charges type of the modifier list.
D. You can use the range price breaks in creating modifiers for freight and special charges if you are using
only Basic pricing.
E. You can handle your own implementation-specific freight cost type or freight charges type codes for
use in modifiers for calculating freight and special charges.
F. When there are two equal modifiers with the highest precedence in an incompatibility level, the pricing
engine selects the modifier that provides the best benefit to the customer.
Answer: B,E,F

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NO.14 Identify three correct statements regarding the credit card encryption features? (Choose three)
A. Credit type is displayed as card brand.
B. The entire card information is stored at the order-line level.
C. Oracle payment is the single repository for multiple payment mode information access applications
modules.
D. Oracle payment is the single repository for multiple payment mode information access set up options.
E. The main idea behind the credit card security code and credit encryption is the make the credit card
and bank account information more centralized across the application and hence more secure.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.15 Which three statements are true regarding OM system parameters? (Choose three)
A. System parameters can be set with different values of different operating units.
B. System parameters can not be set with different values for different operating units.
C. The profile OM: credit sales person for freight on sales has been changed to an OM system.
D. The system parameter OM Employee for self service order has been changed to an OM system
parameter with the same name.
E. The system parameter name OM employee for self service order in single OM system parameter which
ha not changed to an OM profile.
F. The profile OM employee for self service order is the only OM responsibility level profile, which has
been changed to an OM system parameter with a new name requestor for drop ship order created by
external users.
Answer: A,C,F

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Total Q&A: 49 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-01

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NO.1 Your application includes a standard tab set TSl with two tabs. You want the tabs to show up only in
page 1 but not in page 2. Which actions achieve the stated requirement?
A. Edit the tab definition. In the Tab Also Current for Pages field, specify the page number for which the
tab is to be rendered.
B. Edit the tab definition. Select "Current pageExpression 1" for Condition Type and then specify page 1 in
the "Expression 1* field. Repeat this process for the other tab.
C. Edit the tab definition. Select "Current pageisNOT in Expression 1" for Condition Type and then specify
the page number for which the tab is to render in the "Expression 1" field.
D. Change the region template on the page where the tabs should not be rendered.
Answer: A

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NO.2 There are four departments listed as radio group, appearing one below the otherina form (View Exhibit
A). You want to edit the item attributes so that they appear as shown in Exhibit B
(horizontally, next to each other). Which action would you take to satisfy this requirement?
Exhibit A
A. Change "Begin on new Line" attribute of radio group to No and set "Begin on New Field" attribute to
Yes.
B. Change "Begin on new Line" attribute of radio group to Yes and set "Begin on New field" attribute to
Yes.
C. Change "Begin on new Line ±a ttri bu t e o f r ad i o g r oup t o N o and se t " Beg i n on N e w fi e l d " a ttri bu t e t o N o .
D. Edit the List of Values section for the item. Change the "Number of Columns" attribute to the number of
columns that should be displayed horizontally.
E. Edit the List of Values In Shared Components. Specify the number of columns that you want the List of
Values to span.
Answer: D

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NO.3 The Interactive Report is displayed in Exhibit 2Exhibit 2 .?
Which combination of three actions would need to take place to create the interactive report?
A. Create an Interactive Report region to show the list of EMPLOYEES and PRODUCTS based on the
Customer ID.
B. Create an Interactive Report region that contains a query between the CUSTOMERS,
EMPLOYEES, PRODUCTSand SALEStable.
C. Create an SQL Report region that contains a query between the CUSTOMERS, PRODUCTS
andSALES tables only.
D. Create a filter on Customer FIRST_NAME and LAST_NAME.
E. Create a Control Break on Sales Representative.
F. Concatenate FIRST_NAME and LASTJYAME for both CUSTOMERS and EMPLOYEES in the query.
Answer: E

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Exam Code: 1Z0-547
Exam Name: Oracle (Sun Storage 7000 Unified Storage Systems Essentials)
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Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-01

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NO.1 Which three items are available via the Status Dashboard in the Browser User Interface (BUI).?
A. Summary of storage pool and main memory usage
B. Known hardware faults
C. Status of each physical network port
D. Status of services on the appliance
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.2 Which two statements regarding thin provisioning are true?
A. The property for thin provisioned may only be set on a LUN
B. The property for thin provisioned may be set on a share or LUN
C. A LUN that is thinly provisioned will only represent to the host the physical amount of space used
D. A thinly provisioned LUN will represent to the host the defined LUN size, and not the actual physical
space used
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 What does the term "outlier elimination" that is used in the 7000-series system mean?
A. Truncating chronological data
B. Removing inactive client sessions
C. Throttling throughput with busy clients
D. Blocking errant processes
E. Cropping the highest data points from view
Answer: E

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NO.4 What type of I/O workload is likely to get the most benefit from read SSDs?
A. Random write
B. Random read
C. Sequential read
D. Sequential write
E. Mixed random and sequential write
Answer: B

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NO.5 Enterprise solid state devices (SSDs) based on Mash technology are a critical component of the
7000-series systems. Which statement is true?
A. Flash technology completes operations as fast as, or better than, DRAM.
B. Enterprise SSDs support bad block management, wear leveling, and error correction codes (ECC) for
data integrity
C. Read-optimized SSDs are used in place of NVRAM to host the ZFS Intent Log (ZIL)
D. Write-based SSDs are used to extend the ZFS cache (L2ARC) for reads and writes
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which three are supported methods for viewing system statistics?
A. Analytics
B. Solaris stat tools: iostat(1M), vmstat(1M), and so on
C. Appliance CLI
D. Oracle SunPlex Manager
E. SNMP
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.7 Log devices are designed to improve the performance of asynchronous write workloads.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which two items are the correct and supported ways to add user accounts to the 7000-series system?
A. Editing/etc/passwd and/etc/shadow
B. After logging in to the BUI as root, click the Maintenance: Users: Add User via the plus (+) sign and fill
out the blanks; click Apply.
C. Using ssh, add users via the CLI by configuration users create . Set the properties, and commit.
D. Using ssh, add users via the CLI by configuration users user newname
where newname is the new
userID to be added.
E. From the BUI as root, click Configuration: USERS: plus(+) sign to add a new user and fill out the blanks;
click add.
F. Add user accounts in active directory, LDAP, or NIS. User accounts don t usually need to be added to
the 7000.
Answer: D,E

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NO.9 Which three statements are true?
A. One share can have multiple protocol access to its data
B. The identity mapping feature can manage Windows and UNIX user Identities simultaneously on the
same share.
C. All shares within one project can share common settings.
D. Snapshot and Replication can be done at the share level only.
E. One of the share properties that protects the share against accidental deletion of the share is read
only.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.10 Which Command Line Interface (CLI) command provides hardware status details?
A. Maintenance hardware show
B. Hardware status is not available through the CLI
C. Status hardware show
D. Status dashboard hardware
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 1Z0-859
Exam Name: Oracle (Java Enterprise Edition 5 Web Component Developer Certified Professional Upgrade Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 119 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-01

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NO.1 Given an HttpServletRequest request and HttpServletResponse response, which sets a cookie
"username" with the value "joe" in a servlet?
A. request.addCookie("username", "joe")
B. request.setCookie("username", "joe")
C. response.addCookie("username", "joe")
D. request.addHeader(new Cookie("username", "joe"))
E. request.addCookie(new Cookie("username", "joe"))
F. response.addCookie(new Cookie("username", "joe"))
G. response.addHeader(new Cookie("username", "joe"))
Answer: F

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NO.2 Given the function invocation expression ${my:reverse("42")}, and that the function reverse is mapped
into a Java method called reverse, which two are valid signatures for the Java method reverse? (Choose
two.)
A. public int reverse(String val)
B. public String reverse(String val)
C. public static int reverse(String val) D. public static String reverse(int val)
D. private static double reverse(double val)
E. public int reverse(String value, String name)
F. public static int reverse(int value, String name)
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 Given the relationship:
The tag handler MyTag extends SimpleTagSupport. At runtime, the doTag method throws a
SkipPageException.Which three events occur after the SkipPageException is thrown?
(Choose three.)
A. Evaluation of page2.jsp stops.
B. Evaluation of page1.jsp stops.
C. The MyTag instance is NOT reused.
D. Evaluation of page2.jsp continues.
E. Evaluation of page1.jsp continues.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.4 Given a web application in which the request parameter productID contains a product identifier.
Which two EL expressions evaluate the value of the productID? (Choose two.)
A. ${productID}
B. ${param.productID}
C. ${params.productID}
D. ${params.productID[1]}
E. ${paramValues.productID}
F. ${paramValues.productID[0]}
G. ${pageContext.request.productID}
Answer: B,F

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NO.5 For a given ServletResponse response, which two retrieve an object for writing text data? (Choose two.)
A. response.getWriter()
B. response.getOutputStream()
C. response.getOutputWriter()
D. response.getWriter().getOutputStream()
E. response.getWriter(Writer.OUTPUT_TEXT)
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 response.addCookie(c);
B. 10. Cookie c = new Cookie("creditCard", usersCard);
11. c.setHttps(true);
12. c.setMaxAge(10368000);
13. response.setCookie(c);
C. 10. Cookie c = new Cookie("creditCard", usersCard);
11. c.setSecure(true);
12. c.setMaxAge(10368000);
13. response.addCookie(c);
D. 10. Cookie c = new Cookie("creditCard", usersCard);
11. c.setHttps(true);
12. c.setAge(10368000);
13. response.addCookie(c);
E. 10. Cookie c = new Cookie("creditCard", usersCard);
11. c.setSecure(true);
12. c.setAge(10368000);
13. response.setCookie(c);
Answer: C

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11.DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
Place the events in the order they occur.
Answer:
12.You are creating a servlet that generates stock market graphs. You want to provide the web browser
with precise information about the amount of data being sent in the response
stream.Which two HttpServletResponse methods will you use to provide this information?
(Choose two.)
A. response.setLength(numberOfBytes);
B. response.setContentLength(numberOfBytes);
C. response.setHeader("Length", numberOfBytes);
D. response.setIntHeader("Length", numberOfBytes);
E. response.setHeader("Content-Length", numberOfBytes);
F. response.setIntHeader("Content-Length", numberOfBytes);
Answer: B,F

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13.Which two prevent a servlet from handling requests? (Choose two.)
A. The servlet's init method returns a non-zero status.
B. The servlet's init method throws a ServletException.
C. The servlet's init method sets the ServletResponse's content length to 0.
D. The servlet's init method sets the ServletResponse's content type to null.
E. The servlet's init method does NOT return within a time period defined by the servlet container.
Answer: B,E

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NO.7 Given an HttpSession session, a ServletRequest request, and a ServletContext context, which
retrieves a URL to /WEB-INF/myconfig.xml within a web application?
A. session.getResource("/WEB-INF/myconfig.xml")
B. request.getResource("/WEB-INF/myconfig.xml")
C. context.getResource("/WEB-INF/myconfig.xml")
D. getClass().getResource("/WEB-INF/myconfig.xml")
Answer: C

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NO.8 Given:
Which statement, at line 16, retrieves an InputStream for the file /WEB-INF/myresrc.bin?
A. new InputStream("/WEB-INF/myresrc.bin");
B. ctx.getInputStream("/WEB-INF/myresrc.bin");
C. ctx.getResourceAsStream("/WEB-INF/myresrc.bin");
D. new InputStream(new URL("/WEB-INF/myresrc.bin"));
E. getClass().getResourceAsStream("/WEB-INF/myresrc.bin");
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which two are valid values for the <transport-guarantee> element inside a <securityconstraint> element
of a web application deployment descriptor? (Choose two.)
A. NULL
B. SECURE
C. INTEGRAL
D. ENCRYPTED
E. CONFIDENTIAL
Answer: C,D

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NO.10 c.setSecure(true);

NO.11 For an HttpServletResponse response, which two create a custom header? (Choose two.)
A. response.setHeader("X-MyHeader", "34");
B. response.addHeader("X-MyHeader", "34");
C. response.setHeader(new HttpHeader("X-MyHeader", "34"));
D. response.addHeader(new HttpHeader("X-MyHeader", "34"));
E. response.addHeader(new ServletHeader("X-MyHeader", "34"));
F. response.setHeader(new ServletHeader("X-MyHeader", "34"));
Answer: A,B

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NO.12 c.setAge(10368000);

NO.13 A developer is designing a multi-tier web application and discovers a need to log each incoming client
request. Which two patterns, taken independently, provide a solution for this problem.? (Choose two.)
A. Transfer Object
B. Service Locator
C. Front Controller
D. Intercepting Filter
E. Business Delegate
F. Model-View-Controller
Answer: C,D

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NO.14 Your company has a corporate policy that prohibits storing a customer's credit card number in any
corporate database. However, users have complained that they do NOT want to re-enter their credit card
number for each transaction. Your management has decided to use client-side cookies to record the
user's credit card number for 120 days.
Furthermore, they also want to protect this information during transit from the web browser to the web
container; so the cookie must only be transmitted over HTTPS. Which code snippet creates the
"creditCard" cookie and adds it to the out going response to be stored on the user's web browser?
A. 10. Cookie c = new Cookie("creditCard", usersCard);

NO.15 Which three are true about the HttpServletRequestWrapper class? (Choose three.)
A. The HttpServletRequestWrapper is an example of the Decorator pattern.
B. The HttpServletRequestWrapper can be used to extend the functionality of a servlet request.
C. A subclass of HttpServletRequestWrapper CANNOT modify the behavior of the getReader
method.
D. An HttpServletRequestWrapper may be used only by a class implementing the
javax.servlet.Filter interface.
E. An HttpServletRequestWrapper CANNOT be used on the request passed to the
RequestDispatcher.include method.
F. An HttpServletRequestWrapper may modify the header of a request within an object
implementing the javax.servlet.Filter interface.
Answer: A,B,F

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