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Exam Code: C4090-455
Exam Name: High Volume Storage Fundamentals V3
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Last Update: 2014-05-07

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Exam Code: C2140-135
Exam Name: Rational Host Access Transformation Services (HATS) v7.1
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Last Update: 2014-05-07

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Exam Code: 000-744
Exam Name: DS4000 Technical Version 1
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NO.1 On which environment(s) are HATS Web applications, developed using the HATS
Toolkit, supported to
be deployed and run?
A. Eclipse RCP and Lotus(R) Expeditor Client
B. IBM WebSphere application server production runtime
C. IBM and non-IBM Portal Server production runtime
D. any J2EE-compatible application server available on the market
Answer: B

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NO.2 What would most improve end user response time for a HATS application?
A. decreasing the timer of the screen settling algorithm
B. using fast 3270e with a host supporting contention resolution
C. increasing the timer of the screen settling algorithm
D. using fast 3270e with a 5250 host
Answer: B

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NO.3 In the Lotus Expeditor Client environment, HATS rich client applications can be
managed, deployed,
and controlled in a number of ways. What is NOT a supported environment?
A. Lotus Expeditor Server, which contains the Device Manager Server component
B. WebSphere Portal, which allows for centrally-administered, role-based access to
applications
C. Eclipse update site, which provides provisioning and updating using a standard Web
server
D. WebSphere Application Server, which allows for centrally-administered, role-based access
to
applications
Answer: D

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NO.4 How might a developer use a shared global variable?
A. share a variable value between the sessions of two different users
B. share a variable value that can be used in a future session
C. share a variable value between two different applications being accessed by a single user
D. share a variable with a non-HATS Web application
Answer: C

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NO.5 To help with debugging HATS applications on a test or production system, a display
terminal window
can be displayed. Which statement is FALSE about the display terminal window?
A. Turning on the display terminal option can seriously affect performance or overload the
server.
B. The display terminal functions can be turned on using the extended HATS application
button
Standard.?
C. It is possible to interact with the host application using the host screen in the terminal
window.
D. The display terminal functions can be turned on for any new host connections by selecting
the Enable
Display Terminal box on the Trace Settings panel.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-744
Exam Name: IBM (DS4000 Technical Version 1)
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Total Q&A: 140 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-01

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NO.1 What is the minimum number of HDDs required for RAID 6?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D

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NO.2 When configuring a customer's multimedia sequential I/O environment, what must you do?
A. use a small segment size with many disks
B. select a stripe size that is the same or an even multiple of the I/O size
C. use small segment size in conjunction with RAID 0
D. select a segment size that minimizes the occurrences of a single I/O on multiple drives
Answer: B

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NO.3 In the Major Event Log (MEL), what does immediate Availability Initialization (IAF) completed on
logical drive" indicate?
A. The drive has been internally reformatted.
B. The drive has just become accessible by the host.
C. LUN has just been replaced.
D. Hot sparing has occurred.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer is combining two separate IT operations in one central location. They are using a DS4800.
Performance has been marginal. You look at the DS4800 Performance Monitor and observe that they are
well within the DS4800 performance specifications. Which tool can be used to determine the cause of the
problem?
A. Capacity Magic
B. Bandwidth Estimator
C. IOMeter
D. Disk Magic
Answer: D

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NO.5 Three hosts are redundantly connected to a DS4000 system. Two are running a non-clustered
Windows 2003 Server and the other is running Red Hat Linux. How many Storage Partitions are used in
this configuration?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.6 When examining a profile you see the following:
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 8 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 8]
How should this be configured for enclosure loss protection?
A. Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
B. Drive at Enclosure 3, Slot 1 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 3, slot 1]
C. Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 17 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 17]
D. Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 15, slot 19]
Drive at Enclosure 15, Slot 19 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Answer: B

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NO.7 In addition to the storage administrator's e-mail address, what information do you need to set up
e-mail alerts to be sent to the storage administrator?
A. sender's SMTP server address, the sender's e-mail address
B. sender's POP server address, the sender's e-mail address
C. storage administrator's POP server address, the sender's e-mail address
D. storage administrator's SMTP server address, the sender's e-mail address
Answer: A

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NO.8 What best describes a drive in eplaced status?
A. a drive that has replaced a failed drive and needs to be revived in order to complete the data recovery
process
B. a temporary status for a drive that has replaced a failed drive, but has not yet been reconstructed
C. a hot spare that has spared out for a failed drive in an array causing the hot spare to become the active
drive in the array
D. the final state of a drive that has replaced a failed drive and has been reconstructed
Answer: B

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NO.9 What does a flashing green LED on a drive indicate?
A. status ok
B. drive active
C. failed drive
D. hot spare in use
Answer: B

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NO.10 You arrive at a customer site to implement the DS4000 solution and find that the customer wants to use
RAID 1+0 instead of RAID 5 for everything. What is a possible concern in this situation?
A. capacity
B. random IO performance
C. throughput performance
D. disk rebuild times
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which statement is FALSE regarding hot spare drives in the DS4000 subsystem?
A. The storage server will attempt to find a spare in the same enclosure as the failed drive first.
B. The storage server will give preference to a spare the same size as the failed drive.
C. The storage server will use a spare with at least the same capacity as the failed drive.
D. The controller may use a spare that is larger than the failed drive and block the remaining capacity
from use.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which statement about DS4000 firmware upgrades is true?
A. The controller firmware and NVSRAM files are closely tied to each other and must be installed in the
proper combination.
B. Controller firmware and NVSRAM upgrades always require the ESM firmware to be upgraded at the
same time.
C. Only one controller must be accessible via the Ethernet or fiber in order to perform a controller
firmware upgrade.
D. The controller firmware and NVSRAM are independent from each other and can be upgraded at
different times.
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is one disadvantage of managing a storage subsystem through the Fibre Channel IO path?
A. The fibre cable used for data IO cannot be used for management commands.
B. An access logical drive is required to communicate with the controllers.
C. Management commands cannot be encapsulated by the Fibre Channel protocol.
D. Ethernet cables to the controllers are also required to send management commands.
Answer: B

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NO.14 In the exhibit, which management method is being used?
A. in-band
B. rlogin
C. client-host-band
D. out-of-band
Answer: D

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NO.15 How do you configure SNMP traps in the Storage Manager GUI?
A. from the Subsystem Management window, use the Storage Subsystem menu
B. from the Subsystem Management window, use the Advanced menu
C. from the Enterprise Management window, use the Advanced menu
D. from the Enterprise Management window, use the Edit menu
Answer: D

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NO.16 When creating a FlashCopy of a logical drive, a repository logical drive is created. The repository
logical drive is for metadata and copy-on-write data when a change is made to the FlashCopy source
logical drive. By default, what is its size?
A. 10% of the source volume
B. 20% of the source volume
C. 50% of the source volume
D. 100% of the source volume
Answer: B

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NO.17 You have been called in to assist the storage administrator who has been using Global Mirror with an
Enhanced Remote Mirroring (ERM) configuration to mirror the company inventory database from
headquarters to a data warehouse at a remote site. The storage administrator has been re-evaluating this
approach and needs your help to change the mirroring mode to Metro Mirroring for better control over
data going to the remote site. What must you do to help the storage administrator make the change?
A. advise the storage administrator to purchase two new licenses
B. break and re-establish the mirror relationship
C. back up the inventory data to tape
D. make the mode change in Storage Manager
Answer: D

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NO.18 When performing an array migration, what is NOT required?
A. verification that there is no logical drive name duplication between the source and target systems
B. removal of mappings for all logical drives within the array being migrated
C. documenting the stripe order of the drives in the array for proper placement on the target subsystem
D. Advanced Maintenance Place Array Offline
Answer: C

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NO.19 A customer wants to use SATA drives to reduce costs. Which application matches SATA use?
A. TSM
B. Exchange
C. application with low IOPS
D. write once, read many times
Answer: C

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NO.20 To generate a premium feature key that can be installed on a DS4000 subsystem, you must provide
certain information to IBM. This information includes the IBM machine type/model and what additional
information?
A. serial number, activation code, feature enable identifier and e-mail address
B. serial number, activation code, and e-mail address
C. activation code, e-mail address, controller firmware level
D. serial number, and e-mail address, drive firmware level
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-744

Exam Name: IBM (DS4000 Technical Version 1)

Exam Code: 000-667

Exam Name: IBM (Architectural Design of SOA Solutions)

Exam Code: 000-446

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Content Manager OnDemand for i5/OS)

Exam Code: 000-417

Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Information Analyzer V8.0)

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NO.1 An OnDemand system administrator runs the STRDSMOND command specifying a specific
application group and sets the RUNASM parameter to *YES.Which statement reflects how ASM will run?
A.ASM will run for all application groups.
B.ASM will run for only the application groups specified for DSM.
C.ASM will fail unless you have named a specific policy to process.
D.ASM will run in the same batch job immediately after STRDSMOND completes.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer intends to store all of its archive data into DR550 or Centera storage devices.Which
statement is true?
A.An OnDemand storage set links directly to a DR550 or a Centera device.
B.TSM cannot be configured to interface with Centera devices.
C.TSM can be configured to interface with DR550 or a Centera devices.
D.OnDemand can write directly to Centera devices; therefore TSM is not required.
Answer: C

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NO.3 A report layout contains multiple account numbers (each containing 10 numeric characters) per page
but there are some inconsistencies when locating account numbers.Often, a description field will overlap
into the account number column.These numbers do not appear sequentially.What can be used to ensure
that the indexer will collect only the account number and not part of the description?
A.Define the field with a mask and offset values
B.Define the field based on a floating trigger
C.Define the field based on a floating trigger with mask values
D.Define the field based on a floating trigger with mask and offset values
Answer: C

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NO.4 After installing the OnDemand Web Enablement Kit (ODWEK) software, what must be done before you
can begin configuring the ODWEK initialization file for your operating environment?
A.Configure the HTTP server.
B.Configure the OnDemand server.
C.Configure the client PC.
D.Configure the Web Application Server.
Answer: A

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NO.5 To create a default date-range search option for a report to specify the last six months, which task must
be completed?
A.Change the application group default date-range interval.
B.Change the Folder - Field Information default date-range interval.
C.Change the Application - Load Information default date-range interval.
D.Change both the folder and the application default date-range intervals.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which command(s) would be used to delete both the index data and documents stored during the load
process?
A.DLTRPTOND
B.RMVIDXOND and RMVRPTOND
C.RMVRPTOND
D.DLTIDXOND and DLTRPTOND
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two can be used to view data that is output from the AFP2HTML transform? (Choose two.)
A.the AFP2HTML applet
B.the native Web browser
C.the AFP Plug-in
D.the Line Data applet
E.the Adobe Acrobat Reader
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 What can be specified when defining a report using the Report Wizard?
A.Segment Date format
B.logical view
C.Postprocessor Parameters
D.Large Object support
Answer: D

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NO.9 To load data into a TSM controlled data storage device, which attribute must match the OnDemand
storage node attributes defined within a Storage Set?
A.TSM node name and password
B.Copy Group name and password
C.Policy Set name and password
D.Policy Domain name and password
Answer: A

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NO.10 An administrator wants to store a System Log message whenever a user deletes an annotation.The box
in the Application Group Message Logging for Annotation Delete is checked.A test is performed to
validate that messages are being stored as expected.The administrator deletes an annotation and then
queries the System Log for the proper message (Message number 70), but nothing is returned.Which
additional required step should be completed for the proper message to be logged?
A.Annotation delete message logging must be selected for the administrator's userid.
B.The System Log does not have an option to store a message for annotation deletions.
C.Administrator permissions allow annotations to be deleted and so no message is stored.
D.Application Group Messages must be checked in the System Logging section of the System
Parameters.
Answer: D

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NO.11 A company plans to store a 6500-page document in OnDemand.Which action should be used to view
a few pages in this document at a time?
A.Create a table index.
B.Enable large object support.
C.Use fewer triggers when indexing.
D.Add an application ID to the application group.
Answer: B

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NO.12 An application group specifies to Migrate Data from cache as "When Data is Loaded".A report is
archived into OnDemand.In addition to the CACHE directory, a copy of the archived report is placed into
which directory?
A.ASMAGGREGATION
B.ASMREQUEST
C.TMP
D.LOAD
Answer: B

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NO.13 Before using the Report Wizard to define a PDF report, what must be installed on the PC running the
OnDemand Administrative Client?
A.The PDF Indexer
B.Adobe Acrobat
C.Adobe Acrobat Reader
D.The OnDemand PDF Wizard
Answer: B

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NO.14 What must be enabled on the browser for the OnDemand Web Enablement Kit to function properly?
A.cookies
B.active scripting
C.script debugging
D.ActiveX controls
Answer: A

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NO.15 An OnDemand administrator has received an error message indicating that journaling needs to be
restarted for the OnDemand database files.Which command would be used to accomplish this task?
A.Select the restart journaling option from the OnDemand Administrative client.
B.Use the RSTONDJRN command.
C.Use the RSTJRNOND command.
D.Run program QRLCSTRJ with parameter PARM(RLC) from the command line.
Answer: D

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NO.16 A company would like the ability to notify the security administrator whenever there is a failed log in
attempt by a user.Which series of steps must the company complete to accomplish this goal?
A.Check the Failed Login checkbox in both the System Logging and User Exit Logging sections on the
System Parameters window.
B.Check the Failed Login checkbox in the User Exit Logging section on the System Parameters window.
C.Write a user exit program to send a message to the system administrator and check the Failed Login
checkbox in both the System Logging and User Exit Logging sections on the System Parameters window.
D.Write a user exit program to send a message to the system administrator and check the Failed Login
checkbox in the User Exit Logging section on the System Parameters window.
Answer: D

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NO.17 What does a validation string used by OnDemand validate?
A.the load information for the current page
B.the field information for the current page
C.that the current page can be indexed and stored
D.that the current page can be viewed with the logical view
Answer: D

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NO.18 An Advanced Function Printing Data stream (AFPDS) report is displayed using the OnDemand
Client.An error message is displayed indicating that the requested font is not found.Which action should
be performed to keep those error message from being displayed in the future?
A.Update the code pages in the ICU Font Library.
B.Repackage the OnDemand Client installation with AFP font support.
C.Update the *.cp files in the FONT\MAPS directory.
D.Update the ICU Data Library with custom conversion tables.
Answer: D

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NO.19 A customer is looking for a way to do a broad search across the entire enterprise for content stored on
their websites, file systems, and DB2 Content Manager.Which product provides this capability?
A.OmniFind
B.DB2 CommonStore
C.DB2 Content Manager
D.WebSphere Information Integrator Content Edition
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which function does the OnDemand server run to allow users to connect to an OnDemand system
through the Client for Windows?
A.the arscnct job
B.the client/server job
C.the arssockd job
D.the DB2 Connect job
Answer: C

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