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Exam Code: 1Z0-874
Exam Name: MYSQL (MySQL 5.0 Database Administrator Certified Professional Exam, Part II)
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Total Q&A: 140 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Assuming that the account 'joe'@'%' does not already exist on the server, executing the statement
mysql> CREATE USER 'joe'@'%' IDENTIFIED BY 'sakila'
will have the following consequences:
A. The account 'joe'@'%' is created on the server. However, clients cannot connect using this account
until further privileges have been assigned to the account.
B. The account 'joe'@'%' is created on the server. Clients may connect to the server using this account,
but will not be able to access any databases, tables or stored routines
C. The account 'joe'@'%' is created on the server. Clients may connect to the server using this account
and execute stored routines, but will not be able to access any databases or tables
D. Nothing; there is no such command as CREATE USER
Answer: B

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NO.2 How can the SHOW PROCESSLIST command be helpful when optimizing queries?
A. It shows if a query is using an index or not.
B. It shows how the server processes a query.
C. If checked periodically, it can reveal queries that cause other queries to hang.
D. It shows the percentage of processing power that each query is using on a server.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following best describes how the relay log works?
A. It records the times when the slave connects to the master.
B. When a slave receives a change from the master, it is recorded in the relay log first and
processed later.
C. When a slave receives a change from the master, it is processed first and then recorded in the relay
log.
Answer: B

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NO.4 The stored function year_to_date is created by the 'root'@'localhost' account as follows:
CREATE FUNCTION year_to_date ()
RETURNS DECIMAL(10,2)
SQL SECURITY DEFINER
BEGIN ...
END;
Within the routine body, a number of calculations are made on data in the financials table and the
calculated value is returned. The only account which can access the financials table is 'root'@'localhost'.
If a client connects with the account 'joe'@'localhost' and calls the year_to_date function, what will
happen?
A. The function will always execute as if it was 'root'@'localhost' that invoked it since SQL
SECURITY
DEFINER has been specified.
B. The function will not execute, as 'joe'@'localhost' does not have access to the financials table
C. The function will not execute as SQL SECURITY DEFINER has been specified. It would execute if
instead SQL SECURITY INVOKER had been specified
D. If the account 'joe'@'localhost' has the EXECUTE privilege on year_to_date, the function will complete
successfully
Answer: D

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NO.5 Given the following MyISAM table structure:
mysql> desc city;
+-------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------
+
| Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra
|
+-------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------
+
| ID | int(11) | | PRI | NULL | auto_increment
|
| Name | char(35) | | | |
|
| CountryCode | char(3) | | | |
|
| District | char(20) | | | | |
| Population | int(11) | | MUL | 0 | |
+-------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+
and the following SQL statement:
SELECT Population
FROM city
WHERE Population = 10000
ORDER BY Population
LIMIT 5;
Which of the following statements best describes how MySQL optimizer executes the query?
A. The optimizer uses the primary key column ID to read the index values, then uses the index on
Population to filter the results. The optimizer will always choose to use a unique index first, then use a
secondary index if available.
B. The optimizer uses the index on the Population column to search and filter the WHERE clause.
A temporary table is used to perform a filesort on the results, and then only 5 records are returned to the
client.
C. The optimizer uses the index on the Population column to search, filter and sort the Population column,
then returns 5 records to the client. The optimizer does not need to read the data rows, and can return
values from the index only, because the index contains just integer values that form a leftmost prefix for
the key.
D. The optimizer uses the index on the Population column to search, filter and sort the Population column,
and returns 5 records to the client. The optimizer does not need to read the data rows, and can return
values from the index only because only those columns where specified in the
SELECT statement.
E. The optimizer will never read data from disk, since MySQL caches both data and index in the key
buffer.
Answer: D

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NO.6 What are reasons to prefer using GRANT and REVOKE statements over editing the privilege tables
directly?
A. Using GRANT and REVOKE allows the server to figure out the right tables and do all the appropriate
work
B. All grant tables in memory are immediately updated on GRANT and REVOKE
C. Making changes directly to the grant tables, one must remember to execute flush privileges to make
the changes take effect
D. GRANT and REVOKE statements allow you to do more fine-grained tuning of user privileges than
does editing the grant tables directly.
E. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following best describes what the master.info file contains and how it is used?
A. It contains the values from the CHANGE MASTER statement.
B. When the slave restarts it looks for which master to use from this file.
C. It contains information about the master server, its slaves and its configuration.
D. It is used by an administrator to determine what slaves connect to the master, and other information
about the master server.
Answer: D

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NO.8 For which of the following objects can privileges be specified?
A. Host
B. Global
C. Database
D. Table
E. Column
F. Row
Answer: C

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NO.9 How can stored routines be used to check for constraints or legality of incoming data?
A. They can make use of the VALIDATE DEFINER setting.
B. They can not be used to check for constraints or legality of data.
C. They can check and only perform an action if the incoming values match a specified value.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Consider the following query:
GRANT ALL ON world.* TO 'web'@'hostname'
What privileges would this give this user?
A. All privileges including GRANT.
B. All privileges except GRANT.
C. SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE and DELETE
D. ALL can not be used when granting privileges.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following statements are required to create a key cache of 4 MB, assign the MyISAM table
world. City to it and preload the index.?
A. mysql> SET GLOBAL city_cache.key_buffer_size = 4194304;mysql> CACHE INDEX world.City IN
city_cache;mysql> LOAD INDEX INTO CACHE world.City;
B. mysql> ALTER TABLE world.city KEY_CACHE = 4194304;
C. mysql> CREATE CACHE FOR world.City SIZE = 4194304;
D. It is not possible to create a key cache for a specific MyISAM table, only the global key cache can be
used.
Answer: A

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NO.12 When working with stored routines, which of the following are true in regards to the effect on the
amount of data exchanged between client and server?
A. They may increase the amount of data exchanged.
B. They can help reduce the amount of data exchanged.
C. They have no effect on the amount of data exchanged.
Answer: B

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NO.13 With replication, what on the master is used to send commands to the slave?
A. The relay log.
B. The binary log.
C. The SQL Thread.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following best describes why InnoDB tables should always have primary keys and
why they should be short?
A. Because InnoDB uses primary keys to locate tables, and shorter keys make quicker lookups.
B. Because InnoDB uses primary keys to locate table rows, and shorter keys make quicker lookups.
C. Because InnoDB stores pointers in a log to all the primary keys and shorter keys make this log smaller.
Answer: B

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NO.15 You have been granted SELECT, INSERT and DELETE privileges on the table city in the world
database.
You log in, and exercise all your privileges without any problems.
While you are still connected and doing work, the administrator removes your DELETE privileges and
informs you by mail that you can no longer delete from table city.
Being skeptical, you decided to test your privileges and realize that you still have them all. What is are the
most likely causes of this?
A. The administrator forgot to revoke your UPDATE privilege
B. The administrator forgot to revoke your SELECT privilege
C. The administrator removed the DELETE privilege by performing an UPDATE directly on the
mysql.table_priv table
D. The administrator did not execute FLUSH PRIVILEGES
Answer: D

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NO.16 Consider the following:
mysql> EXPLAIN SELECT Name FROM Country WHERE Code = 'CAN'\G
*************************** 1. row ***************************
id: 1
select_type: SIMPLE
table: Country
type: const
possible_keys: PRIMARY
key: PRIMARY
key_len: 3
ref: const
rows: 1
Extra:
Which of the following best describes the meaning of the value of the type column?
A. The table has exactly one row.
B. Several rows may be read from the table.
C. Only one row of all its rows need to be read.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of the following statements are true of how access control is based?
A. It is based off of an access control table in the mysql database.
B. It is based off of grant tables in the mysql database.
C. It is based off of an access control list stored in the data directory.
D. It is based off of an access control list stored inside the .frm files of each table.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Consider the following GRANT statement:
GRANT USAGE ON *.* TO 'kofi'@'localhost' IDENTIFIED BY 'password'
What is the implications of executing that statement?
A. Kofi can access all database objects.
B. Kofi can access all his tables.
C. Kofi can display server system and status variables.
D. Kofi can grant privileges to others.
E. Kofi can access all database objects belonging to localhost.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following statements about the slow query log is true?
A. The slow query log will always contain just slow queries.
B. The slow query log may not always contain just slow queries.
C. The slow query log always logs more than just slow queries.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Privileges for using stored routines can be specified at the following levels:
A. Server-wide
B. Per database
C. Per routine
D. The ability to use stored procedures is not governed by the privilege system.
Answer: A,B,C

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Exam Code: C_TSCM62_64
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Order Fulfillment with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4)
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Total Q&A: 82 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 A customer is to be billed on the last day of the month, regardless of which day of the month the order
and delivery are processed. Which of the following procedures will fulfill this requirement?
A. Maintaining a customer-specific billing due list variant and scheduling a periodic job.
B. Maintaining a factory calendar with a single date per month and assigning it to the customer master
record of the payer.
C. Maintaining a billing date profile and assigning it to the sales document type.
D. Using the condition technique, assigning a billing date determination profile to the customer master
record of the payer.
Answer: B

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NO.2 The availability check (ATP) is carried out based on which of the following dates?
A. The material availability date
B. The transportation planning date
C. The goods issue date
D. The loading date
Answer: A

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NO.3 During sales order processing, a user will be alerted when stock is not available for material entered in
the sales order if the availability check was carried out. In which of the following ways will the user be
alerted about this situation?
A. An error message will appear on the status bar alerting the user to the situation.
B. The schedule line will be marked and highlighted by the system.
C. The availability control screen will be displayed.
D. The incompletion log will display the unconfirmed schedule line as a missing field.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following elements can directly influence whether an availability check will be performed?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. The schedule line category in the sales document
B. The item category in the delivery document
C. The check group in the material master
D. The item category in the sales document
E. The sales document type
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 In the system, it is possible to have zero stock available and still receive a confirmed schedule line in the
sales order. Which of the following states the reason for this confirmation.?
A. Stock will be taken from another delivery at the shipping point.
B. The system automatically searches other plants for inventory and transfers this inventory to the plant
with zero inventory in the sales order.
C. The availability check that was carried out included a replenishment lead time in the scope of check.
D. A stock transfer will be created by inventory management when you save the sales order.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following statements regarding the processing of the billing due list are correct? Note:
There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. The billing due list is used to process sales orders and deliveries that are due for billing.
B. The billing due list is used for the periodic creation of billing documents.
C. You can only use the billing due list to process documents due for billing on the same date.
D. Only the general billing interface can be used for processing the billing due list.
E. There are various selection criteria available for processing the billing due list, such as sold-to party,
sales organization and shipping point.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.7 Which of the following statements regarding material determination are correct? Note: There are 2
correct answers to this question.
A. Condition tables must be defined in Customizing (IMG).
B. The definition of the substitution reason determines whether a manual or an automatic substitution
process should be used.
C. The material determination procedure is assigned to a combination of sales areas, customer pricing
procedures, and document pricing procedures.
D. The relevant substitution reason is specified in the access sequence.
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 Which of the following data elements represent standard split criteria in billing creation? Note: There
are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Material group
B. Billing date
C. Terms of payment
D. Payer
E. Order reason
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.9 The entry for the assignment of the incompleteness procedures to the sales document types contains
the following information: Sales Type: OR Description: Standard Order Procedure: 11 Description: Sales
Order Field: IC-dialog is flagged. Which of the following conclusions can you draw from this entry?
A. Incomplete standard orders must be released in a dialog for further process steps.
B. Procedure 11 specifies which fields in standard orders (header data) are checked for completeness
and order type OR cannot be saved if any of the fields are incomplete.
C. Incomplete standard orders can be saved after a warning message (dialog) appears.
D. Incomplete standard orders can be saved.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following is controlled by the configuration of the billing type?
A. How account determination should take place.
B. How the item category within the billing document will be determined.
C. If a billing plan will be determined when using this billing type.
D. If order related billing is supported when using this billing type.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following Service Desk features provides all the functions to analyze and monitor an
entire SAP solution centrally?
A. root cause analysis
B. Implementation Roadmap
C. SAP Notes
D. SAP Solution Manager diagnostics
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following SAP NetWeaver components ensures company-wide unification of data and
information in heterogeneous IT environments?
A. Business Warehouse
B. Knowledge Management
C. Enterprise Portal
D. Master Data Management
Answer: D

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NO.13 You want to restrict what materials a customer can order. What do you use to achieve this?
A. Material group
B. Assortment module
C. Material listing
D. Product hierarchy
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following SAP NetWeaver components realizes cross-system application processes?
A. SAP Exchange Infrastructure (SAP XI) / SAP Process Integration (SAP PI)
B. SAP Master Data Management (SAP MDM)
C. SAP Enterprise Portal (SAP EP)
D. SAP Business Warehouse (SAP BW)
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following statements regarding the free goods process is correct?
A. Free goods with exclusive bonus quantity will always create a subitem.
B. Free goods with inclusive bonus quantity will always take place without a subitem being generated.
C. The free goods calculation rule only allows for whole unit free goods bonus increments.
D. Free goods with exclusive bonus quantity must contain the same material for the ordered goods and
the free goods.
Answer: A

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NO.1 A customer recently ordered a zEnterprise with a zBX. Which of the following is the best action a
specialist could take to ensure the customer is satisfied with the new zBX?
A. Propose Advanced Technical Support Contract for the zBX
B. Enroll the customer in IBM Technical Support for BladeCenter
C. Schedule a workshop with administration and operational teams from all platforms included in the
zEnterprise system
D. Propose an Early Ship Program (ESP) for running their Windows applications
Answer: C

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for 10 IFLs for production with an additional 10 IFLs for CBU to provide DR to another site. The memory
required is 1TB for production and 1TB for CBU requirements. Which of the following is the minimum
processor model that meets the customer requirements?
A. M15 z196
B. M32 z196
C. M66 z196
D. M49 z196
Answer: D

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NO.3 An HP customer has several HP/UX servers. The CFO is concerned about the lack of support for the
HP proprietary operating systems, and the strategic move to Intel servers by HP. The CFO is considering
a move to z10. Which of the following information should the System z Sales Specialist use to address
this situation?
A. Industry articles confirming the new direction for HP
B. Industry articles related to recent HP corporate issues
C. References of customers successfully migrating from HP to z10
D. Introduce the CFO to the IBM Migration Factory
Answer: C

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NO.4 A prospective zEnterprise customer is fascinated with the addition of the zBX products. The sales
specialist is discussing the flexibility of System z family of servers. Which of the following is a key aspect?
A. Binary compatibility between servers
B. Hot pluggable processor and memory boards
C. Consistent CoD features with entire family
D. Ability to interchange features between systems
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer asks the System z specialist to recommend which type of channel (FCP or FICON) to use
for z/OS and z/VM Linux on System z. The customer is concerned about storage attachment. Which of
the following list all valid channel options?
A. - FCP and / or FICON for z/VM
- FICON for z/OS
B. - FCP for z/VM
- FICON for z/OS
C. - FCP or FICON for z/VM
- FICON for z/OS and z/VM
D. - FICON for z/VM
- FICON for z/OS
Answer: A

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NO.6 A zEnterprise customer is interested in Parallel Sysplex. Which of the following is required to put
System z into a Parallel Sysplex environment?
A. A coupling facility, a z/OS partition, and a Sysplex timer
B. A coupling facility, two z/OS partitions, Server Time Protocol (STP), and coupling connectors
C. Two z/OS partitions, and a Sysplex Timer
D. A coupling Facility, a VM partition, a Server Time Protocol (STP).and coupling connectors
Answer: B

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NO.7 A System z new IT Director has a defined policy of deploying all new applications on distributed
platforms. The Director feels these platforms are oodA System z new IT Director has a defined policy of
deploying all new applications on distributed platforms. The Director feels these platforms are ?ood
enough?and less costly than their mainframe. A new, WebSphere-based, mission-critical core application
is under development and the customer has asked for price quotes on the infrastructure for its
deployment. Which of the following meets these needs?
A. System z Solution Edition for WebSphere
B. System z BX for WebSphere
C. System z Solution Edition for Application Development
D. System z Solution Edition for DB2 and POWER7 servers for the application tier
Answer: B

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NO.8 A customer signed an order for a new z196 system. What document should be used to verify the
environment?
A. zEnterprise Red Book
B. SAPR Guide
C. zEnterprise Operations Guide
D. zEnterprise Product and Planning Guide (PPG)
Answer: A

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NO.9 Rising cost and complexity of distributed infrastructure due to "out of control" growth of servers
supporting development, test, and production of Web and Java applications is the biggest concern for
customer. Which of the following is the most complete advantage of Solution Edition for WebSphere?
A. Discounted price for System z hardware and maintenance, z/OS, DB2 for z/OS, and WAS for z/OS
B. Discounted price for System z hardware, z/OS and free maintenance for three years
C. Discounted price for WAS for z/OS and DB2 for z/OS
D. Discounted price for System z hardware and no charge DB2 for z/OS
Answer: A

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NO.10 A customer is willing to buy one z196 with four zBX. The manager of the mainframe department is
concerned about the acoustical noise from the zBX. What action should be done in order to address this
concern?
A. Order Rear Door Heat eXchanger to minimize BladeCenter noise.
B. IBM Site and Facilities Services can provide sound attenuation panels for data center walls and
ceilings
C. Order IBM acoustic door
D. Order 3rd party vendor acoustic attenuation enclosures for BladeCenter
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-M67
Exam Name: IBM (IBM LotusLive Technical Sales Mastery Test V1)
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Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Taylor, a paid subscriber to LotusLive Meetings, would like to host a meeting with a customer.
How would Taylor invite his customer (guests)?
A. Taylor can share his meeting URL containing the meeting ID or ask them to visit the LotusLive site and
enter the meeting ID to join. His guest will simply need to enter their name before joining.
B. Taylor customer could not participate in the meeting since they are guests. He would have to record the
meeting and send a link to the video recording.
C. Taylor could share his meeting URL containing the meeting ID, but when the customer click on the link,
they will be prompted to register. Once registered, they can then participate in the meeting.
D. Taylor would have to pay an additional cost for his guest to get registered. Once registration is
complete, they could join the meeting by visiting LotusLive site, authenticating with their credentials and
entering the meeting ID to join.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which platform(s) can a customer run LotusLive on.?
A. Windows only
B. Windows and Linux
C. Windows, Linux and Mac
D. LotusLive does not run on a platform because it has its own operating system.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Tags are a very popular way of searching the content. Bob has emails related to XYZ customer.
How can he tag the emails and use this capability to search it later with LotusLive iNotes?
A. Bob can tag all incoming and outgoing email related to XYZ customer and sort his inbox via tag at a
later time.
B. Bob can right-click on all the emails related to XYZ customer and choose the tag option to find these
emails later in XYZ folder.
C. Tagging email and Tag Searching is not available in LotusLive iNotes.
D. Bob can navigate to iNotes mail, select the tag words, select the related emails and create a rule which
can be used to search at a later time.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-M93
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Datacap Taskmaster Capture Product Fundamentals Tech Mas)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 The two main databases serviced by Taskmaster Server are called:
A. Alpha and Beta.
B. Test and Production.
C. Maintenance and Security.
D. Admin and Engine.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following is TRUE.?
A. Taskmaster Server pushes work to machines dedicated to a specific task.
B. Taskmaster clients ask Taskmaster server if there is any work to be done.
C. Only one Taskmaster client may perform a given Task.
D. Batch routing depends on the Taskmaster server configuration.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is a primary competitive advantage of Rulerunner Service?
A. Actions only return TRUE or FALSE.
B. It is decoupled from Taskmaster so it can be used with other applications.
C. It is the only capture product with claims of being rule driven.
D. It is open source.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-M74
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Information Mgmt Content Manager Tech Mastery Test V1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Event logging is stored in:
A. A file
B. The Library Server Database
C. The Resource Manager Database
D. The Websphere Database
Answer: B

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NO.2 Event logging is set in the System Administration tool for: .?
A. Each itemtype part
B. All itemtypes alike
C. An itemtype
D. Worknode
Answer: C

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NO.3 IBM Content Manager v8.4.1 added an important functionality. What is it?
A. Ability to call out to FileNet BPM processes
B. LDAP integration capability with Microsoft Active Directory
C. Integration with TSM DR-550 Server
D. Use of Tivoli Total Access Manager in lieu of AD
Answer: A

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NO.4 What are the different Item Types that can be created in IBM Content Manger v8?
A. Item and Document
B. Resource and File
C. Item, Document, Resource and Document Part
D. Item, Document, Resource and File
Answer: C

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NO.5 In IBM Content Manager v8.4, the WEBi Client is available as well as the eClient. What would
determine your choice of a client as of the Webi version 1.0.3?
A. eClient can do email
B. Client for Windows cannot do email
C. WEBi does not yet recognize advanced document routing decision making
D. eClient can recognize versions in CM
Answer: C

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Exam Code: LOT-918
Exam Name: IBM (Developing Portals & Web Apps IBM WebSphere Portlet Fact 7.0)
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Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Tim has a web application that accesses a database through a provider model containing SQL Call
builders. He thinks there might be a performance problem with one or more of the database calls. How
can he get WebSphere Portlet Factory to log detailed performance information about all aspects of the
database access.?
A. He needs to use a SQL Override builder; this builder provides several fields that enable
detailed logging of performance information for database access.
B. He must enable DEBUG-level database performance tracing in the Log4J properties file and redeploy
the WAR file.
C. He must enable the Log Server Stats field in each SQL Call builder.
D. No changes are required; WebSphere Portlet Factory automatically logs performance statistics for all
executed actions, such as database access calls.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Anna has been testing a model and is concerned about the time certain actions seem to be taking. Her
development environment is a high-end system, and other portlets she has developed have not exhibited
the kind of response time lag that she and her testers perceive. She suspects one of the data services
builders is experiencing network latency, but is unsure where the real problem lies. What actions can she
take to help isolate the performance issue?
A. Add counters to the builder calls that are suspect.
B. Consult the performance log, which is created by default with each model run.
C. Enable system tracing in the run configuration tab to log the execution time for each action (page or
method).
D. Dedicate a larger Java HEAP_SIZE to the main method associated with the model that is suspect.
Answer: C

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NO.3 The primary use for the WebSphere Portlet Factory server configuration is?
A. To deliver your application to a production server.
B. To deploy, run, and test your application on a development server.
C. To create a WAR file for manual deployment to a production or development server.
D. To give your application access to APIs that are specific to the target server.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Pat wants to know how many web service calls are being made in a given time frame, how long on
average each web service call is taking, and how many web service calls are failing. How can Pat obtain
such performance information?
A. That information is not yet available from the WebSphere Portlet Factory web service support, but the
application can be built to log this information itself, if desired.
B. WebSphere Portlet Factory logs all requests, average latency and faults, in the deployed applications
WEB-INF/logs/event.log file.
C. WebSphere Portlet Factory logs web service requests, average latency and faults, in the deployed
applications WEB-INF/logs/serverStats.txt log file.
D. Enable this logging using the Performance field in the Web Service Call builder, and the
information comes back with the web service call results to the consumer model.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Jeffrey is reviewing the following section of a debugTracing.txt log.
What can he infer from this part of the log?
A. The main method took no time to execute.
B. The appMainPage took 46 seconds to load.
C. The varSampleApp variable changed during or after the appMainPage loaded.
D. The varSampleApp variable was set to Chicago prior to the loading of the appMainPage.
Answer: C

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