Apple 9L0-064 exam practice questions and answers

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Exam Code: 9L0-064
Exam Name: Apple (OS X v10.8 Troubleshooting Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 68 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Please examine the image above. A customer with a MacBook Air (13-inch, Mid 2011) sees this
image on his screen. What would cause his Mac to display this image at startup?
A. Internet Recovery has started downloading the OS X Recovery system image.
B. The Mac is starting up from an external USB or Thunderbolt storage device.
C. EFI has detected a hardware issue.
D. Apple Service Diagnostics is loading.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A technician suspects that an application’s preference file is causing the app to crash at
launch.
Which of the following techniques would be best to confirm the issue?
A. Use a Time Machine backup to restore the entire User folder.
B. Delete the application, reinstall it, then try launching it again.
C. Startup from OS X Recovery, open Disk Utility and repair the startup disk.
D. Use “Go to Folder...” or press the Option key to access the user library, move the suspected
preference file to the desktop and then try launching the application.
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer would like to use target disk mode to transfer a large file from their Mac Pro using
OS
X Mountain Lion to a friend’s MacBook Pro using OS X Snow Leopard. The Mac Pro’s hard disk is
encrypted using FileVault 2. Which technique is the best to quickly transfer the file?
A. Place the Mac Pro with OS X Mountain Lion into target disk mode then transfer the file using
the Snow Leopard Finder.
B. Place the MacBook Pro with Snow Leopard into target disk mode then transfer the file using the
OS X Mountain Lion Finder.
C. Turn off encryption on the Mac Pro with OS X Mountain Lion, when de-encryption is finished
place it into target disk mode and transfer the file using the Snow Leopard Finder.
D. Use live partitioning in the Disk Utility to create a non-encrypted volume on the Mac Pro. Copy
the file to that volume, then place the Mac Pro into target disk mode and transfer the file using the
Snow Leopard Finder.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Your customer runs her small business on an iMac with OS X Mountain Lion. She would like to
keep her data secure with FileVault 2, but is worried that she will have to share her administrator
password with the rest of the staff. How should you address this concern?
A. The customer should enable the Automatic login feature in the User & Group preferences.
B. This is a limitation of FileVault 2. The customer will have to share her password to use the
feature.
C. Ask the customer to disable FileVault 2 when others wish to use the computer, then re-enable it
when they are done.
D. The customer can give other user accounts the ability to unlock the disk in the Security &
Privacy preferences when she enables FileVault 2.
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is a kernel extension in OS X?
A. A user specific software library.
B. A place to store global system preference settings.
C. A software driver that provides driver support for hardware, networking, and peripherals.
D. The system for starting, stopping and managing daemons, applications, processes, and scripts.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A user moves a file into a folder named “my stuff” and sees this message:
“You can put items into “my stuff,” but you won’t be able to see them. Do you want to continue?
Other users with sufficient permissions will be able to use the items.”
This means the user’s folder permissions to “my stuff” have been set to
A. Read only
B. Write only
C. Read & Write
D. Execute only
Answer: B

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NO.7 You are troubleshooting an application which bounces in the dock for a few seconds, then
stops
without launching or displaying an error message. What built-in utility is best for displaying
application and system messages that are not shown to a user?
A. Logger
B. Console
C. Terminal
D. System Information
Answer: B

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NO.8 What should customers be aware of if they need to use Safari or reinstall OS X Mountain Lion
when their Mac has been started from OS X Recovery?
A. A valid Apple ID is required to use Safari on OS X Recovery.
B. An internet connection is required to use Safari and reinstall OS X.
C. A Mac must have at least 4GB of memory to reinstall OS X Mountain Lion.
D. They must charge the Mac’s battery to 100% before starting from OS X Recovery.
Answer: B

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NO.9 A customer with Os X Mountain Lion installed has decided to give his Mac to his son. How can
he
easily erase the hard disk and reinstall OS X Mountain Lion?
A. He should buy a OS X Mountain Lion USB drive from Apple, start up from it and choose the
erase and install option in the installer.
B. He must use target disk mode and perform the erase and install option in OS X Mountain Lion
from another Mac.
C. He should start up to OS X Recovery, use Disk Utility to erase the hard disk’s volume, then
choose the Reinstall OS X option.
D. He should use a OS X Lion USB Drive, startup from it and erase the hard disk using Disk Utility.
After installing OS X Lion, creating a new user, and installing software updates; he will then
download OS X Mountain Lion from the Mac App Store.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following are supported connection methods when transferring data from a PC
to a
Mac using Migration Assistant? SELECT TWO:
A. Fibre Channel
B. Target Disk Mode
C. Wi-Fi networking
D. Ethernet networking
E. Online Backup Services
Answer: C,D

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Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-109 PDF

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Exam Code: 4A0-109
Exam Name: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Triple Play Services)
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Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 The internal BSAN architecture is composed of which of the following?
A. Line Termination (LT) portion and a Network Termination (NT)
B. Link Termination (LT) portion and a Node Termination (NT)
C. Link Termination (LT) portion and a Network Termination (NT)
D. Line Termination (LT) portion and a Node Termination (NT)
Answer: A

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NO.2 True or False. The RG is typically provider managed in Triple Play Services?
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.3 Why does the RG operate as a DHCP server?
A. As a local backup in case the provider DHCP server is unreachable
B. The subscriber may choose to manage their own IP addresses
C. The RG will never operate as a DHCP server
D. To assign IP addresses to the internal home devices when operating in routed mode
E. To assign IP addresses to the internal home devices when operating in bridged mode
Answer: D

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NO.4 Choose the best answer to complete the following statement. Ethernet frames transmitted by the RG
contain:
A. 802.1Q VLAN ID of zero and 802.1P priority bits of all zero
B. 802.1Q VLAN ID randomly assigned by the RG and 802.1P priority bits of all zero
C. 802.1Q VLAN ID of zero and 802.1P priority bits randomly assigned by the RG
D. 802.1Q VLAN ID of one and 802.1P priority bits of all ones
E. 802.1Q VLAN ID of zero and 802.1P priority bits as assigned by the application
Answer: E

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NO.5 What are the minimum requirements for the Residential Gateway? Choose 2.
A. NAT support
B. Support Routed and bridged mode
C. Multicast (IGMP) support
D. Support IP packet filtering
E. Be able to terminate multiple access mediums
Answer: AC

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NO.6 The Alcatel 7302 ISAM is typically located in:
A. The customer home
B. The Serving Area Interface (SAI)
C. The provider Central Office (CO)
D. The video headend
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following may be connected to the RG in the subscriber home network? Choose the best
answer.
A. P.C.
B. TV with STB
C. Gaming console
D. LAN switch
E. Any Ethernet connected device
Answer: E

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NO.8 Which of the following is not a TPSDA network zone?
A. Home
B. Broadband Access
C. Broadband Aggregation
D. Broadband Metro
E. IP Services Edge
Answer: D

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NO.9 The Broadband Service Access Node (BSAN) may be:
A. The Alcatel 7330 FTTN ISAM
B. The Alcatel 7342 FTTU ISAM
C. Neither (a) or (b)
D. Both (a) and (b)
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which technical development allowed the deployment of IP protocol features at any point in the
network?
A. The invention of ATM
B. The IP enabling of the DSLAM
C. The usage of IP in the home network
D. The usage of an IP enabled BSA
Answer: B

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Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-M02 exam practice questions and answers

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Exam Code: 4A0-M02
Exam Name: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Mobile Gateways for the LTE Evolved Packet Core )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 140 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which of the following statements most accurately describes the MME?
A. The MME selects the SGW and the PGW for a given UE.
B. The MME is responsible for the bearer management.
C. The MME communicates with both the E-UTRAN and the EPC via GTP-C tunnels.
D. The MME performs the user authentication and authorization using the information provided by the
HSS
E. All of the above answers are correct.
F. Only answers A, B and D are correct.
Answer: F

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NO.2 Based on the information shown in the exhibit, when the SGW receives an IP packet from the UE,
which of the following is the GTP TEID value expected to be received in the GTP packet header?
A. 0xd05025
B. 0x4b00805
C. 0x21
D. 0x4b00825
E. None of the above answers are correct.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following statements most accurately describes the Diameter protocol?
A. The Diameter is a peer-to-peer protocol that uses the TCP or SCTP as the transport protocol.
B. A Diameter peer could act as a Diameter client or a Diameter server to its remote peer.
C. The Alcatel-Lucent 7750 PGW acts as a Diameter client to the PCRF server via the Gx interface.
D. The Diameter protocol uses TCP and SCTP port number 3868.
E. All of the above answers are correct.
F. Only answers A and B are correct.
Answer: E

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NO.4 Which of the following LTE interfaces are used for the communication of user data? (Choose one best
answer)
A. The S1-MME interface and the S11 interface.
B. The S1-U interface.
C. The S5 interface.
D. The S1-U interface, the S5 interface and the LTE-Uu interface.
E. Only answers A, B and C are correct.
F. Only answers B and C are correct.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following most accurately describes the messages used to manage a Diameter
connection path?
A. The Capabilities-Exchange message
B. The Device-Watchdog message
C. The Credit-Control message
D. The Disconnect-Peer message
E. All of the above answers are correct
F. Only answers A, B and D are correct
Answer: F

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NO.6 In a 3G network, which of the following is used to build a PDP context between a UE and the GGSN
when a direct tunnel is not used?
A. An end-to-end GTP tunnel between the UE and the GGSN.
B. A Radio Access Bearer between the UE and the NodeB and a GTP tunnel between the NodeB and the
GGSN.
C. A Radio Access Bearer between the UE and the SGSN and a GTP tunnel between the SGSN and the
GGSN.
D. A Radio Access Bearer between the UE and the SGSN.
E. None of the above answers are correct.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A UE needs to get an IP address before it can communicate to any PDN over the LTE network. Which of
the following statements are FALSE regarding the process of the IP address allocation? (Choose two)
A. A PGW may obtain an IP address from a RADIUS server and assign it to the UE.
B. A PGW may assign the IP address from its local address pools.
C. An SGW may obtain a static IP address from the HSS server and assign it to the UE.
D. An SGW may obtain an IP address from a RADIUS server and assign it to the UE.
E. A PGW may obtain an IP address from a DHCP server and assign it to the UE.
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 The S5 is the interface used for the communication between the SGW and the PGW. Which of the
following transport protocols is used by this interface?
A. GTP/TCP
B. GTP/UDP
C. GTP/IP
D. GTP/SCTP
E. None of the above answers are correct
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the IP connectivity between a UE and a PDN?
A. A UE gets an IPv4 address and/or an IPv6 prefix per APN.
B. A PGW forwards the UE's IP packets to the PDN based on the address of the PDN server.
C. When a UE sends an IP packet to a PDN over the EPC core, the eNodeB forwards
theencapsulatedpacket to the SGW by looking into its IP routing table to determine how to reach the PDN
server.
D. The SGW forwards the UE's IP packets to the PGW based on the address of the PDN server.
E. Only answers C and D are correct.
F. Only answers A and B are correct.
Answer: F

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NO.10 Which of the following interfaces is not using the GTP-C protocol?
A. The X2 interface.
B. The S1-U interface.
C. The S4 interface.
D. The S5 interface.
E. The SGi interface.
Answer: E

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NO.11 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the UE paging process?
A. The SGW performs downlink data buffering while the S1 bearer is being established.
B. The SGW initiates the paging messages towards the UE.
C. The PGW is not aware of the paging process.
D. The UE initiates the service request procedure once it receives the paging message.
E. The paging procedure is controlled by the MME.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the S1-MME interface?
A. It is the control plane interface between the E-UTRAN and the MME.
B. It is used to signal the TEIDs for the S1 bearers between the eNodeB and the SGW.
C. The eNodeB receives the Paging messages over the S1-MME interface.
D. It is used for the management of the Radio Access Bearers.
E. It is based on the IP/UDP protocols.
Answer: E

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NO.13 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the Tracking Area (TA)?
A. A TA is a set of eNodeBs that are defined by a UE itself.
B. A TA is the smallest geographical area in which a UE can roam without performing a Tracking Area
Update (TAU) other than periodic TAU as required.
C. A Tracking Area Identity (TAI) is used to identify each tracking area.
D. The Tracking Area Identity (TAI) is assigned by the service provider.
E. One TA may be served by one or more than one MME.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the UE network attachment procedure?
A. The UE is served by an eNodeB.
B. The eNodeB selects one MME to serve the UE.
C. The MME selects one SGW to serve the UE.
D. The SGW selects one PGW to serve the UE
E. The PGW selects one PCRF server if required.
Answer: D

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NO.15 There is an active GTP path between an Alcatel-Lucent SGW and an Alcatel-Lucent PGW, On the
SGW. Which of the following CLI commands is used to check the "Restart Count" value of the PGW?
A. show mobile-gateway serving ref-point-peers s5
B. show mobile-gateway serving ref-point-stats s5
C. show mobile-gateway serving bearer-stats s5
D. show mobile-gateway serving path-mgmt-stats s5
E. None of the above answers are correct.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the EPS bearers?
A. The default bearer isinitiatedby either the UE or the PCRF.
B. The default bearer is always the first bearer established to an APN.
C. An AF server may initiate adedicatedbearer to a UE.
D. EPS bearers that connect a given UE to a single PGW may use different IP subnets.
E. The default bearer remains active throughout the lifetime of the APN connection.
Answer: A

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NO.17 Based on the information shown in the exhibit, which of the following is the PLMN ID?
A. 302
B. 720
C. 123456789
D. 9876543
E. 30201613
F. 302720
Answer: F

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NO.18 An Alcatel-Lucent SGW is only connected to an Alcatel-Lucent PGW. Based on the information shown
in the exhibit, how many GTP-C tunnels are established between the SGW and the PGW?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 6
Answer: E

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NO.19 Which of the following most accurately identifies a GTP tunnel on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 MG by
default?
A. ATEID
B. The System IP address
C. A UDP port number
D. ATEIDand the System IP address
E. ATEID, the System IP address and a UDP port number
Answer: E

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NO.20 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the eNodeB?
A. The eNodeBs maybeinterconnectTEIDwith each other via anX2 interface.
B. The eNodeB is an element of the EPC core.
C. The eNodeBs areconnectedto the EPC core via the S1 interface.
D. During an IMSI attach, the eNodeB selects an MME to service the UE.
E. The eNodeB performs the compression and encryption of the user data stream.
Answer: B

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NO.1 Wires that are installed in air returns above a ceiling must be:
A. fire proof.
B. fiberglass coated.
C. plenum rated.
D. teflon coated.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Each time the distance from the speaker is doubled, volume decreases by:
A. 3dB.
B. 6dB.
C. 12dB.
D. 24dB.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following does an astronomical time clock do?
A. Determines the ambient light at night with a photocell.
B. Calculates sunset and sunrise times based on geographical area.
C. Determines the start and end of each of the seasons.
D. Synchronizes the local time displayed with the official world time.
Answer: B

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NO.4 When certifying a CAT5 cable installation the integrator must perform which of the following tests?
A. Measure Impedance
B. Calculate Latency
C. Measure Attenuation
D. Measure Resistance
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following is the correct signal flow for an analog multi-room audio system?
A. Source, Volume Control, Speaker, Amp
B. Source, Amp, Volume Control, Speaker
C. Amp, Source, Volume Control, Speaker
D. Speaker, Amp, Volume Control, Source
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following is the correct wiring order for an RJ-11 two line jack?
A. Black, Green, Red, Yellow
B. Black, Red, Green, Yellow
C. Red, Black, Green, Yellow D. Yellow, Red, Green, Black
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following is a diplexer used for?
A. Allows two satellite tuners to use the same dish.
B. Connects the low noise block down converter (LNB) to the multi-switch.
C. Combines satellite and over the air (OTA) signals.
D. Allows one LNB to use two satellites.
Answer: C

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NO.8 According to Ohm's Law, which of the following is correct?
A. As voltage increases, resistance decreases
B. As amperage decreases, resistance decreases
C. As resistance decreases, amperage increases
D. As resistance increases, voltage increases
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following would be the impedance of an 8 ohm and a 4 ohm speaker that are wired in
parallel?
A. 2.66 ohms
B. Less than 1 ohm C. 4 ohms
D. 12 ohms
Answer:A

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NO.10 An optical cable is used to transmit:
A. digital audio from a component to a receiver.
B. analog video from a component to a receiver.
C. analog audio from a component to a receiver.
D. digital video from a component to a receiver.
Answer:A

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NO.11 When integrating a media server into a home theater, which of the following terms BEST describes
the technology used to protect the interest of copyright holders (e.g. multimedia content)?
A. Digital Rights Management (DRM)
B. MPEG Layer-3 (MP3)
C. Internet Key Exchange (IKE)
D. Content Management System (CMS)
Answer:A

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NO.12 Which of the following is the recommended placement of the rear surround speakers in a 5.1 surround
installation?
A. Directly to the left and right and slightly in front of the listener
B. Directly to the left and right and slightly behind the listener
C. Above and behind the listener
D. Directly behind the listener
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following determines if the alarm should sound or an entry delay should start?
A. The sensor itself
B. The way the zones are wired
C. The zone type
D. The digital dialer
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following is a RF peer to peer mesh protocol used for lighting and other residential
electronics?
A. Z-Wave
B. X10
C. CEBus
D. Wi-Fi
Answer:A

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NO.15 When installing a security system, which of the following connectors would be used to connect the
security system to the telephone service demarcation?
A. RJ-31x
B. RJ-11
C. RS-232
D. DB-9
Answer:A

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NO.16 The native resolution for 1080i is:
A. 1920 x 1280.
B. 1920 x 1080.
C. 1280 x 1080.
D. 1280 x 720.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which of the following cabling would be MOST commonly used with digital volume controls?
A. Unshielded twisted pair
B. RJ-59
C. 16/4 solid conductors
D. Speaker Wire
Answer:A

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NO.18 Which of the following video outputs from a media PC provide the BEST picture quality, when
connecting the media PC to a projector?
A. SVGA
B. VGA
C. S-Video
D. DVI
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following BEST describes CAT5e?
A. Contains four pair of wires of various gauge
B. Contains two wires in a red fireproof jacket
C. Contains four twisted pairs of wires
D. Contains eight wires within a thick jacket with a rip cord
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following communication methods will provide the maximum bandwidth for video
streaming through a media extender?
A. 100BaseT Ethernet
B. 802.11g
C. Z-Wave
D. Bluetooth
Answer:A

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NO.21 A customer notifies the integrator that the system keypad reports trouble at a window. Upon
inspection, the customer finds the window closed and locked; the customer resets the system and it fails
to correct the issue. Which of the following steps should the integrator take to resolve the issue?
A. Check that the sensor is not misaligned.
B. Clean the space between the sensor and the plate.
C. Toggle the tamper switch to reset the sensor.
D. Bypass the zone.
Answer:A

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NO.22 Which of the following can cause ghosting in a video image?
A. Bent pin on an S-Video cable
B. Mislabeled component cables
C. Defective HDMI cable
D. Improperly terminated coax cable
Answer: D

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NO.23 When configuring surround sound systems, speaker delay is used to compensate for speaker:
A. distance.
B. power.
C. size.
D. efficiency.
Answer:A

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NO.24 RG-6 coaxial cable is typically used in all of the following applications:
A. multi-room audio, telephone, intercom and temperature control.
B. thermostat, CCTV, smoke detectors and keypads.
C. home theater, lighting control and multi-room audio.
D. video, digital cable, and satellite applications.
Answer: D

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NO.25 If the speakers in an installation are out of phase, this means that:
A. the subwoofer is at the wrong angle.
B. the front and rear speakers are reversed.
C. the polarity of the speakers are reversed.
D. the angle of the speakers are incorrect.
Answer: C

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NO.26 When installing cables, which of the following is the BEST way of identifying the individual cables?
A. A cable chart mounted in the cabinet
B. A label at the tip of the cable
C. A label within six inches at each end of the cable
D. A penciled notation on the panel cover
Answer: C

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NO.27 Which of the following is the standard aspect ratio for HDTV?
A. 2.35:1
B. 4:3
C. 1.33:1
D. 1.78:1
Answer: D

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NO.28 Which of the following is the primary purpose of impedance matched volume control?
A. Maintains proper speaker phase
B. Protects the amplifier from damage
C. Protects the digital systems from damage
D. Amplifies the speaker signal
Answer: B

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NO.29 Small in-ceiling speakers are BEST suited for:
A. loud, bass intensive music (e.g. heavy metal, rock).
B. providing a sub-woofer for great bass reproduction.
C. background music and blending in with decor.
D. the user who wants perfect sound reproduction.
Answer: C

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NO.30 Which of the following is MOST likely causing an intermittent flashing LED on an IR receiver when the
remote control is not being used?
A. The power supply is faulty and should be replaced.
B. The heat from a heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) register is being received as infrared
noise.
C. The radio frequency interference (RFI) is being received as noise.
D. A plasma display is emitting infrared noise.
Answer: D

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NO.1 You are selecting memory to put in to a laptop. Which of the following types of RAM chips would you
most likely select?
A. 72 PIN
B. 240 PIN
C. 184 PIN
D. 144 PIN
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following refers to the data rate supported by a network connection or interface?
A. Spam
B. Preboot Execution Environment (PXE)
C. Bandwidth
D. Branding
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are working with a team that will be bringing in new computers to a sales department at a company.
The sales team would like to keep not only their old files, but system settings as well on the new PC's.
What should you do?
A. Do a system backup (complete) on each old machine, then restore it onto the new machines.
B. Copy the files and the Windows Registry to a removable media then copy it onto the new machines.
C. Use the User State Migration tool to move the system settings and files to the new machines.
D. Use the Disk Management tool to move everything to the new computer.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following slots on a motherboard are best for a video card? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. PCI
B. PCIe
C. EISA
D. AGP
Answer: B, D

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NO.5 Which of the following types of parental controls is used to limit access to the Internet contents?
A. Monitoring control
B. Usage management tool
C. Content filter control
D. Bandwidth control
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following is a circuit board that is used to extend slots for expansion cards and provides the
ability to connect additional expansion cards to the computer?
A. Audio/modem riser
B. Secure Digital (SD) card
C. Riser card
D. Communication and Networking Riser (CNR)
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the maximum cable length to connect a device to an IEEE 1394a port?
A. 12 meters
B. 5 meters
C. 4.5 meters
D. 10 meters
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following parts of the computer is built-in to the motherboard?
A. Joystick
B. Mouse
C. Sound card
D. CD-ROM drive
Answer: C

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NO.9 You are working in a Windows network environment. Which of the following accounts/groups have
many advanced permissions not needed by occasional users? Each correct answer represents a part of
the solution. Choose two.
A. Guest
B. Standard user
C. Administrator
D. Power Users
Answer: C, D

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NO.10 Which of the following statements about a smart card are true? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is a device that contains a microprocessor and permanent memory.
B. It is used to securely store public and private keys for log on , e-mail signing and encryption, and file
encryption.
C. It is a device that routes data packets between computers in different networks.
D. It is a device that works as an interface between a computer and a network.
Answer: A, B

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NO.11 Which of the following is designed to infiltrate or damage a computer without the consent of the owner.?
A. Shareware
B. Malware
C. Freeware
D. Stealware
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following is a file management tool?
A. Windows Explorer
B. Device Manager
C. MSCONFIG
D. Defrag
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following statements does the UK Parliament state in the Computer Misuse Act 1990?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Unauthorized access to the computer material is punishable by 6 months imprisonment or a fine "not
exceeding level 5 on the standard scale".
B. Personal data shall be adequate, relevant, and not excessive in relation to the purpose or purposes for
which they are processed.
C. Appropriate technical and organizational measures shall be taken against unauthorized or unlawful
processing of personal data and against accidental loss or destruction of, or damage
D. Unauthorized modification of computer material is subject to the same sentences as section 2
offences.
Answer: A, D

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NO.14 Which of the following is used by Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) to provide data encryption?
A. IDEA
B. TKIP
C. RSA
D. RC4
Answer: B

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NO.15 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a Windows 2000
domain-based network. A user working on a Windows 2000 Professional client computer reports that he
is unable to access some files on the hard disk. However, he is able to successfully log on and access
other files. What should Mark do to resolve the issue?
A. Instruct the user to log off and log on again.
B. Enable the user account on the computer.
C. Check the file permissions on the hard disk drive.
D. Check the hard disk drive using the SCANDISK utility.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which of the following identifies a wireless network and is sometimes referred to as a "network name"?
A. BSSID
B. SSID
C. BSS
D. IBSS
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which of the following cache levels are implemented on microprocessors? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Level 5 (L5) cache
B. Level 2 (L2) cache
C. Level 0 (L0) cache
D. Level 1 (L1) cache
Answer: B, D

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NO.18 You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a wireless local area network
(WLAN). You want to prevent your wireless access point from being accessed by intruders. What will you
do to accomplish the task?
A. Implement auditing.
B. Implement WEP.
C. Implement SSL.
D. Implement IPSec.
Answer: B

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NO.19 A customer has come to you wanting upgrade the video card in his laptop. What would you
recommend?
A. A PCI Express card
B. Upgrade is not possible
C. A PCMCIA card
D. An AGP Card
Answer: B

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NO.20 You need to alter disk partitions in Windows XP prior to upgrade to Windows Vista. Which Windows
utility should you use for this?
A. Disk Defragmenter
B. The Registry
C. Disk Management
D. System Configuration Utility
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which of the following is the most secure authentication scheme and uses a public key cryptography
and digital certificate to authenticate a user?
A. Form-based authentication
B. Basic authentication
C. Digest authentication
D. Certificate-based authentication
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following security practices are included in the Implementation phase of the Security
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A. Establish Design Requirements
B. Perform Static Analysis
C. Use Approved Tools
D. Execute Incident Response Plan
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 Which technology can be used to help ensure the efficient transport of VoIP traffic?
A. DNS
B. QoS
C. H.323
D. RSTP
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Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Prepare initial documents for system certification and accreditation
B. Conduct the risk assessment and use the results to supplement the baseline security controls
C. Determination of privacy requirements
D. Initial delineation of business requirements in terms of confidentiality, integrity, and availability
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 Which of the following components of a VoIP network is frequently used to bridge video conferencing
connections?
A. MCU
B. Videoconference station
C. IP Phone
D. Call agent
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following is an XML-based framework developed by OASIS and used to exchange user,
resource and service provisioning information between cooperating organizations?
A. SOAP
B. SAML
C. SPML
D. XACML
Answer: C

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NO.7 The Security Development Lifecycle (SDL) consists of various security practices that are grouped under
seven phases. Which of the following security practices are included in the Requirements phase.?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Incident Response Plan
B. Create Quality Gates/Bug Bars
C. Attack Surface Analysis/Reduction
D. Security and Privacy Risk Assessment
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 You need to ensure that a session key derived from a set of long-term public and private keys will not be
compromised if one of the private keys is compromised in the future?
A. Perfect forward secrecy
B. Secure socket layer
C. Secure shell
D. Security token
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following is a declarative access control policy language implemented in XML and a
processing model, describing how to interpret the policies?
A. SAML
B. SOAP
C. SPML
D. XACML
Answer: D

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NO.10 In which of the following activities an organization identifies and prioritizes technical, organizational,
procedural, administrative, and physical security weaknesses?
A. Social engineering
B. Vulnerability assessment
C. White box testing
D. Penetration testing
Answer: B

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NO.11 In which of the following attacks does an attacker intercept call-signaling SIP message traffic and
masquerade as the calling party to the called party and vice-versa?
A. Call tampering
B. Man-in-the-middle
C. Eavesdropping
D. Denial of Service
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following stages are involved in the successful implementation of a collaboration platform?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Ongoing collaboration solution design
B. Federated identity management
C. Platform implementation
D. Product and service integration
Answer: A,C

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NO.13 Which of the following are the functions of a network security administrator? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Backing up the files
B. Writing computer software
C. Maintaining and implementing a firewall
D. Developing, maintaining, and implementing IT security
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.14 Collaboration platform offers a set of software components and services that enable users to
communicate, share information, and work together for achieving common business goals. What are the
core elements of a collaboration platform?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
A. Product and service integration
B. Real-time communication
C. Change management
D. Team collaboration
E. Messaging
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.15 You work as a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc. You need to conduct network reconnaissance,
which is carried out by a remote attacker attempting to gain information or access to a network on which it
is not authorized/allowed.
What will you do?
A. Use a SuperScan
B. Use a netcat utility
C. Use a vulnerability scanner
D. Use an idle scan
Answer: C

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NO.16 You work as a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc. You want to allow some users to access a
particular program on the computers in the network. What will you do to accomplish this task?
A. Apply remote access policies
B. Apply NTFS permissions
C. Apply group policies
D. Apply account policies
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of the following protocols is used extensively in communication and entertainment systems that
involve streaming media, such as telephony, video teleconference applications and web-based push to
talk features?
A. SIP
B. MGCP
C. H.323
D. RTP
Answer: D

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NO.18 You work as a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc. You want the clients and servers in your
organization to be able to communicate in a way that prevents eavesdropping and tampering of data on
the Internet. Which of the following will you use to accomplish the task?
A. EFS
B. WEP
C. SSL
D. MS-CHAP
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following is frequently used by administrators to verify security policies of their networks
and by attackers to identify running services on a host with the view to compromise it?
A. Fuzzer
B. Port scanner
C. MegaPing
D. UDP scan
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following terms is about communicating the user's need and ability to communicate, and
the medium through which that communication may occur?
A. Data sharing
B. Presence
C. Instant messaging
D. Audio conferencing
Answer: B

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Exam Code: BI0-210
Exam Name: COGNOS (IBM Cognos 8 BI Professional)
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Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 If you are successful with this exam, do you agree to have your name made available to relevent IBM
personnel for project staffing?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following MOST clearly states the value of using a methodology?
A. It provides a philosophy of development that maximizes return on investment.
B. It helps consultants progress in a systematic way to insure all critical steps are addressed.
C. It helps project managers estimate the cost and effort in developing a solution.
D. It ensures that early mistakes are avoided in developing a solution.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following BEST describes the relationship or differences between Iterative Approach and
Cognos SIM?
A. The Iterative Approach is a specific technique used to iterate through the Design phase.
B. The Iterative Approach is a series of steps defined in the Analysis and Development phases of Cognos
SIM.
C. The Iterative Approach is a philosophy of development while Cognos SIM is a collection of tasks,
documents, and techniques to guide development.
D. Cognos SIM is the current Cognos development standard and is intended to replace the Iterative
Approach for development of BI applications.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following is a significant cause of failure when using the technology-focused approach to
BI Application development?
A. Users often have difficulty understanding new technology.
B. New technology often contains internal flaws and errors that affect the delivered solution.
C. The solution is focused on a single subject area.
D. Developers often focus on just the data.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Are you an:
A. IBM Customer
B. IBM Partner
C. IBM Employee
Answer: A

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