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Exam Code: HT0-201

Exam Name: CompTIA (CEA-CompTIA DHTI+ Exam)

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NO.1 Which of the following can cause ghosting in a video image?
A. Bent pin on an S-Video cable
B. Mislabeled component cables
C. Defective HDMI cable
D. Improperly terminated coax cable
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customer notifies the integrator that the system keypad reports trouble at a window. Upon
inspection, the customer finds the window closed and locked; the customer resets the system and it fails
to correct the issue. Which of the following steps should the integrator take to resolve the issue?
A. Check that the sensor is not misaligned.
B. Clean the space between the sensor and the plate.
C. Toggle the tamper switch to reset the sensor.
D. Bypass the zone.
Answer:A

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NO.3 Which of the following video outputs from a media PC provide the BEST picture quality, when
connecting the media PC to a projector?
A. SVGA
B. VGA
C. S-Video
D. DVI
Answer: D

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NO.4 When integrating a media server into a home theater, which of the following terms BEST describes
the technology used to protect the interest of copyright holders (e.g. multimedia content)?
A. Digital Rights Management (DRM)
B. MPEG Layer-3 (MP3)
C. Internet Key Exchange (IKE)
D. Content Management System (CMS)
Answer:A

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NO.5 When installing cables, which of the following is the BEST way of identifying the individual cables?
A. A cable chart mounted in the cabinet
B. A label at the tip of the cable
C. A label within six inches at each end of the cable
D. A penciled notation on the panel cover
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following is the primary purpose of impedance matched volume control?
A. Maintains proper speaker phase
B. Protects the amplifier from damage
C. Protects the digital systems from damage
D. Amplifies the speaker signal
Answer: B

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NO.7 When configuring surround sound systems, speaker delay is used to compensate for speaker:
A. distance.
B. power.
C. size.
D. efficiency.
Answer:A

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NO.8 According to Ohm's Law, which of the following is correct?
A. As voltage increases, resistance decreases
B. As amperage decreases, resistance decreases
C. As resistance decreases, amperage increases
D. As resistance increases, voltage increases
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following is a RF peer to peer mesh protocol used for lighting and other residential
electronics?
A. Z-Wave
B. X10
C. CEBus
D. Wi-Fi
Answer:A

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NO.10 Which of the following is the correct wiring order for an RJ-11 two line jack?
A. Black, Green, Red, Yellow
B. Black, Red, Green, Yellow
C. Red, Black, Green, Yellow D. Yellow, Red, Green, Black
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following is the correct signal flow for an analog multi-room audio system?
A. Source, Volume Control, Speaker, Amp
B. Source, Amp, Volume Control, Speaker
C. Amp, Source, Volume Control, Speaker
D. Speaker, Amp, Volume Control, Source
Answer: B

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NO.12 When certifying a CAT5 cable installation the integrator must perform which of the following tests?
A. Measure Impedance
B. Calculate Latency
C. Measure Attenuation
D. Measure Resistance
Answer: C

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NO.13 Wires that are installed in air returns above a ceiling must be:
A. fire proof.
B. fiberglass coated.
C. plenum rated.
D. teflon coated.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following communication methods will provide the maximum bandwidth for video
streaming through a media extender?
A. 100BaseT Ethernet
B. 802.11g
C. Z-Wave
D. Bluetooth
Answer:A

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NO.15 Which of the following BEST describes CAT5e?
A. Contains four pair of wires of various gauge
B. Contains two wires in a red fireproof jacket
C. Contains four twisted pairs of wires
D. Contains eight wires within a thick jacket with a rip cord
Answer: C

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NO.16 Each time the distance from the speaker is doubled, volume decreases by:
A. 3dB.
B. 6dB.
C. 12dB.
D. 24dB.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Small in-ceiling speakers are BEST suited for:
A. loud, bass intensive music (e.g. heavy metal, rock).
B. providing a sub-woofer for great bass reproduction.
C. background music and blending in with decor.
D. the user who wants perfect sound reproduction.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following would be the impedance of an 8 ohm and a 4 ohm speaker that are wired in
parallel?
A. 2.66 ohms
B. Less than 1 ohm C. 4 ohms
D. 12 ohms
Answer:A

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NO.19 Which of the following is MOST likely causing an intermittent flashing LED on an IR receiver when the
remote control is not being used?
A. The power supply is faulty and should be replaced.
B. The heat from a heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) register is being received as infrared
noise.
C. The radio frequency interference (RFI) is being received as noise.
D. A plasma display is emitting infrared noise.
Answer: D

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NO.20 The native resolution for 1080i is:
A. 1920 x 1280.
B. 1920 x 1080.
C. 1280 x 1080.
D. 1280 x 720.
Answer: B

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NO.21 If the speakers in an installation are out of phase, this means that:
A. the subwoofer is at the wrong angle.
B. the front and rear speakers are reversed.
C. the polarity of the speakers are reversed.
D. the angle of the speakers are incorrect.
Answer: C

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NO.22 An optical cable is used to transmit:
A. digital audio from a component to a receiver.
B. analog video from a component to a receiver.
C. analog audio from a component to a receiver.
D. digital video from a component to a receiver.
Answer:A

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NO.23 RG-6 coaxial cable is typically used in all of the following applications:
A. multi-room audio, telephone, intercom and temperature control.
B. thermostat, CCTV, smoke detectors and keypads.
C. home theater, lighting control and multi-room audio.
D. video, digital cable, and satellite applications.
Answer: D

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NO.24 Which of the following cabling would be MOST commonly used with digital volume controls?
A. Unshielded twisted pair
B. RJ-59
C. 16/4 solid conductors
D. Speaker Wire
Answer:A

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NO.25 When installing a security system, which of the following connectors would be used to connect the
security system to the telephone service demarcation?
A. RJ-31x
B. RJ-11
C. RS-232
D. DB-9
Answer:A

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NO.26 Which of the following determines if the alarm should sound or an entry delay should start?
A. The sensor itself
B. The way the zones are wired
C. The zone type
D. The digital dialer
Answer: C

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NO.27 Which of the following is a diplexer used for?
A. Allows two satellite tuners to use the same dish.
B. Connects the low noise block down converter (LNB) to the multi-switch.
C. Combines satellite and over the air (OTA) signals.
D. Allows one LNB to use two satellites.
Answer: C

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NO.28 Which of the following does an astronomical time clock do?
A. Determines the ambient light at night with a photocell.
B. Calculates sunset and sunrise times based on geographical area.
C. Determines the start and end of each of the seasons.
D. Synchronizes the local time displayed with the official world time.
Answer: B

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NO.29 Which of the following is the standard aspect ratio for HDTV?
A. 2.35:1
B. 4:3
C. 1.33:1
D. 1.78:1
Answer: D

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NO.30 Which of the following is the recommended placement of the rear surround speakers in a 5.1 surround
installation?
A. Directly to the left and right and slightly in front of the listener
B. Directly to the left and right and slightly behind the listener
C. Above and behind the listener
D. Directly behind the listener
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 040-444

Exam Name: ACSM (ACSM Registered Clinical Exercise Physiologist)

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NO.1 .Standard sites for the measurement of skinfolds include the
A. Medial thigh.
B. Biceps.
C. Infrailiac.
D. Forearm.
Answer: B

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NO.2 .The intervertebral disks have which of the following characteristics?
A. Calcified outer ring.
B. Gelatinous inner nucleus portion.
C. Gray matter surrounding the neural cell bodies.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.3 .Angular motion occurs when
A. A force is applied off-center to a freely- moveable object.
B. A freely-movable object moves in a straight line when a force is applied on-center.
C. An object is free to move only in a linear path.
D. All of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.4 .Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the "power position" used for lifting with proper
body mechanics?
A. Shoulders slouched.
B. Back straight.
C. Body bent forward from the hips.
D. Knees slightly bent.
Answer: A

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NO.5 .The C-shaped cartilages of the trachea allow all of the following to occur EXCEPT
A. Ciliated movement of mucus-secreting cells.
B. Distention of the esophagus.
C. Maintenance of open airway.
D. Prevention of tracheal collapse during pres- sure changes.
Answer: A

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NO.6 .Cartilage is categorized as which of the following types of connective tissue?
A. Loose.
B. Dense.
C. Fluid.
D. Supporting.
Answer: D

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NO.7 .In second-class lever,
A. The Axis is located between the effort force and the resistance.
B. The resistance is located between the effort force and the axis.
C. The effort force is located between the resistance and the axis.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.8 .Which of the following is the ability of a force to cause rotation of a lever?
A. Center of gravity.
B. Base of support.
C. Torque.
D. Stability.
Answer: C

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NO.9 .All of the following statements are true regarding long bones EXCEPT
A. Thediaphysis is composed of compact bone.
B. The epiphysis consists of spongy bone.
C. Most bones of the axial skeleton are of this type.
D. The central shaft encases themedullary canal.
Answer: C

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NO.10 .Which of the following is considered to be a "balland-socket" joint?
A. Ankle.
B. Elbow.
C. Knee.
D. Hip.
Answer: D

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NO.11 .rteries are large-diameter vessels that carry blood away from the heart. As they course through
the body, they progressively decrease in size until they become
A. Arterioles.
B. Anastomoses.
C. Venules.
D. Veins.
Answer: A

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NO.12 .Which of the following bones articulates proxi- mally with the sternal manubrium and distally with
the scapula and is helpful to palpate in electrode placement?
A. Scapula.
B. Sternum.
C. Clavicle.
D. Twelfth rib.
Answer: C

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NO.13 .The most common site used for measurement of the pulse during exercise is the
A. Popliteal.
B. Femoral.
C. Radial.
D. Dorsalis pedis.
Answer: C

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NO.14 .An abnormal curve of the spine with lateral deviation of the vertebral column is called
A. Lordosis.
B. Scoliosis.
C. Kyphosis.
D. Primary curve.
Answer: B

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NO.15 .Blood leaving the heart to be oxygenated in the lungs must first pass through the right atrium and
ventricle. Through which valve does blood flow when moving from the right atrium to the right
ventricle?
A. Bicuspid valve.
B. Tricuspid valve.
C. Pulmonic valve.
D. Aortic valve.
Answer: B

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NO.16 .The prime movers for extension of the knee are the
A. Bicepsfemoris.
B. Bicepsbrachii.
C. Quadricepsfemoris.
D. Gastrocnemius.
Answer: C

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NO.17 .Who first described that a body immersed in fluid is buoyed up with a force equal to the
weight of the displaced fluid?
A. Einstein.
B. Freud.
C. Whitehead.
D. Archimedes.
Answer: D

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NO.18 .A standard site for the measurement of circumfer- ences is the
A. Abdomen.
B. Neck.
C. Wrist.
D. Ankle.
Answer: A

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NO.19 .Slapping of the foot during heel strike and increased knee and hip flexion during swing are
characteristic of
A. Weakness in the gluteusmedius and minimus.
B. Weakness in the quadricepsfemoris.
C. Weakness in theplantarflexors.
D. Weakness in thedorsiflexors.
Answer: D

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NO.20 .The arm is capable of performing all of the following motions EXCEPT
A. Flexion.
B. Abduction.
C. Inversion.
D. Supination.
Answer: C

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NO.21 .The law of inertia
A. States that a body at rest tends to remain at rest, whereas a body in motion tends to con-tinue
to stay in motion with consistent speed and in the same direction unless acted on by an outside
force
B. States that the velocity of a body is changed only when acted on by an additional force
C. States that the driving force of the body is doubled and that the rate of acceleration is also
doubled.
D. States that the production of any force will create another force that will be opposite and equal
to the first force.
Answer: A

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NO.22 .Which type of musculoskeletal lever is most common?
A. First-class.
B. Second-class.
C. Third-class.
D. Fourth-class.
Answer: C

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NO.23 .Functions of bone include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Support for the body.
B. Protection of organs and tissues.
C. Production of red blood cells.
D. Production of force.
Answer: D

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NO.24 .A client in your exercise class has been complaining of back pain with no ridiculer symptoms. This
person has been treated medically and is now joining the exercise program to improve flexibility in
the low back. Which exercise would be most appropriate for this person to address the stated
goal?
A. Hip flexor stretch.
B. Knee-to-chest stretch.
C. Gastrocnemius stretch.
D. Lateral trunk stretch.
Answer: B

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NO.25 .Which of the following will increase stability?
A. Lowering the center of gravity.
B. Raising the center of gravity.
C. Decreasing the base of support.
D. Moving the center of gravity farther from the edge bf the base of support.
Answer: A

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NO.26 .Pain caused by low back muscle guarding and spasm in the absence of signs of disk herniation is
often treated with muscle stretching. Which of the following is (are) helpful stretching activities for
the low back?
A. Knee to chest.
B. Double-knee to chest.
C. Lower trunk rotation.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.27 .A baseball pitcher has been complaining of weakness in the lateral rotation motions of the
shoulder. You have been asked to evaluate him for a strengthening program. Which of the
following muscles would you have him concentrate on strengthening?
A. Subscapularis.
B. Teres major.
C. Latissimus dorsi.
D. Teres minor.
Answer: D

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NO.28 .Running is a locomotor activity similar to walking but with some differences. In comparison to
walking, running requires greater
A. Balance.
B. Muscle strength.
C. Range of motion.
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.29 .Blood from the peripheral anatomy flows to the heart through the superior and inferior venae
cavae into the
A. Right atrium.
B. Left atrium.
C. Right ventricle.
D. Left ventricle.
Answer: A

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NO.30 .In the organization of skeletal muscle, the muscle cell contains the contractile proteins.
Which of the following is a contractile protein?
A. Myosin.
B. Muscle fascicle.
C. Myofibril.
D. Muscle fiber.
Answer: A

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Exam Name: BlackBerry (Maintaining a BlackBerry Enterprise Server v5.0 in an IBM Lotus Domino Environment)

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NO.1 What credentials are required to perform a wireless enterprise activation of Wi-Fi enabled BlackBerry
devices over a Wi-Fi connection? (Choose one.)
A. Activation server address, e-mail address and password
B. E-mail address and password
C. Activation server address
D. Activation server address and password
E. Activation server address and e-mail address
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which three of the following BlackBerry Enterprise Server components could a system
administrator use to successfully perform a wired enterprise activation? (Choose three.)
A. BlackBerry Desktop Manager
B. BlackBerry Administration Service
C. BlackBerry Configuration Panel
D. BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager
E. BlackBerry OTASL
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button to open this item. Once you have completed this item and have selected Done, you
may click Next to proceed to the next item.
Answer:

NO.4 Which two of the following BlackBerry Enterprise Server versions for IBM Lotus Domino can be
upgraded to version 5.0? (Choose two.)
A. 2.2.7 SP7
B. 4.0 SP5
C. 4.0 SP7
D. 4.1 SP1
E. 4.1 SP2
F. 4.1 SP3
Answer: C,F

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NO.5 Assuming that the BlackBerry Monitoring Service is installed separately on its own server, on which
two locations would the system administrator need to install the SNMP Service in order for the BlackBerry
Monitoring Service to receive SNMP trap data from all the BlackBerry Enterprise Server components?
(Choose two.)
A. The server that hosts the BlackBerry Monitoring Service
B. The server that hosts each remote BlackBerry Enterprise Server component
C. The server that hosts the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
D. The server that host the BlackBerry Monitoring Service and BlackBerry Enterprise Server
E. The server that hosts each remote BlackBerry component and the BlackBerry Monitoring Service
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 Which three of the following are pre-requisites for PGP encryption to be implemented in the BlackBerry
Enterprise Solution? (Choose three.)
A. Set the PGP Universal Server Address IT policy rule in the IT policy that you assign to
BlackBerry device users.
B. Instruct users to install the PGP Support Package for BlackBerry devices on their BlackBerry devices.
C. Instruct users to install the BlackBerry Security Package tool.
D. Instruct users to enroll with PGP when their BlackBerry devices prompt them to.
E. Wirelessly regenerate encryption keys from the BlackBerry device.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.7 Which of the following is the default port number that the BlackBerry Monitoring Service Trap Listener
will bind to? (Choose one.)Which of the following is the default port number that the BlackBerry
Monitoring Service? Trap Listener will bind to? (Choose one.)
A. 152
B. 142
C. 162
D. 125
E. 110
Answer: C

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NO.8 In the BlackBerry Monitoring Service, which three of the following formats can be used to format a
generated report? (Choose three.)
A. .txt
B. .pdf
C. .csv
D. .doc
E. .html
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.9 Which three of the following incomplete enterprise activation states can be tracked using the BlackBerry
Administration Service? (Choose three.)
A. Ongoing
B. Pending
C. Password Set
D. Failed
E. Password Not Set
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.10 Which three of the following policies are the default application control policies? (Choose three.)
A. Default Optional
B. Standard Required
C. Default Recommended
D. Standard Optional
E. Default Disallowed
F. Standard Disallowed
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.11 Which task must be running on a target IBM Lotus Domino server in order to support IBM Lotus Notes
links? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry Enterprise Server
B. BlackBerry Router
C. Adminp
D. Agent Manager
E. HTTP
Answer: E

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NO.12 Which three types of authentication methods are available for BlackBerry device users to log in to
BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager? (Choose three.)
A. BlackBerry Administration Service
B. Microsoft SQL Server Authentication
C. Domino Mailbox
D. Active Directory
E. IBM Lotus Notes ID
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.13 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button to open this item. Once you have completed this item and have selected Done, you
may click Next to proceed to the next item.
Answer:

NO.14 At which two levels can organizer data synchronization field mappings be modified? (Choose two.)
A. User level
B. Server level
C. Group level
D. Domain level
Answer: A,D

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NO.15 Where would a system administrator configure BlackBerry Alert Service notifications? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry Monitoring Service
B. BlackBerry Administration Service
C. BlackBerry Configuration Panel
D. BlackBerry MDS Integration Service Application Console
E. BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which three of the following BlackBerry Enterprise Server components can be installed remotely or
configured to run separately from the original instance of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose
three.)
A. BlackBerryRouter Service
B. BlackBerry Policy Service
C. BlackBerry Dispatcher Service
D. BlackBerry Attachment Service
E. BlackBerry Monitoring Service
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.17 Which three of the following steps should a system administrator perform when a BlackBerry device
user reports that address book synchronization between the BlackBerry device and the email application
is not working? (Choose three.)
A. Ensure desktop email application is configured to work with the server copy of the address book
B. Ensure the user is enabled for wireless address book synchronization
C. Ensure the user does not have any IT policies applied that would prevent wireless
synchronization
D. Ensure the user is able to browse using the BlackBerry Browser
E. Ensure the user is able to synchronize calendar appointments wirelessly
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.18 When performing a wireless enterprise activation, where does the activation email message come from
that is delivered to the user mailbox? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerryMailStore Service
B. BlackBerry Dispatcher
C. Organizations firewall
D. BlackBerry Infrastructure
E. Wireless service providers network
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which toolscan a system administrator use to move a BlackBerry device user between two instances
of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose two.)
A. BESUserAdminClient
B. BlackBerry Administration Service
C. BlackBerry Server Configuration Panel
D. BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager
E. EAStatus
Answer: A,B

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NO.20 A system administrator wants to install BlackBerry Enterprise Server software version 5.0 into an
environment. Which two versions of IBM Lotus Domino are supported for this type of installation?
(Choose two.)
A. 5
B. 6
C. 6.55
D. 7
E. 8
Answer: D,E

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Exam Code: 1Z0-871

Exam Name: MYSQL (MySQL 5.0 Developer Certified Professional Exam, Part I)

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NO.1 Which of the following statements are true? Databases don't have a default character set or collation.
A. Databases don't have a default character set or collation.
B. Database have a default character set and a default collation.
C. When creating a table within a database without specifying a character set and a collation, the default
character set and collation from the database are being used.
D. If a default character set and collation are defined for a database, settings for tables defined in that
database will be ignored.
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 You want to create two databases, test and Test. Which of the following statements is true?
A. You can create both databases because database names in MySQL are case sensitive.
B. You can create both databases when your operating system supports case sensitive directory names.
C. You can create both databases when you quote delimited the database names like `test` and `Test`.
D. You can create both databases since t and T are different in the ASCII character set.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following statements will return a list of all of the databases with a name that starts with
'pro'?
A. LIST DATABASES WHERE NAME LIKE 'pro%'
B. SHOW DATABASES WHERE NAME LIKE 'pro%'
C. SELECT DATABASES WHERE NAME LIKE 'pro%'
D. LIST DATABASES LIKE 'pro%'
E. SHOW DATABASES LIKE 'pro%'
F. SELECT DATABASES LIKE 'pro%'
Answer: E

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NO.4 Which of the following statements will provide a list of all of the databases with a name that starts with
'world'?
A. SELECT SCHEMA_NAME AS `Database` FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.SCHEMATA
WHERE SCHEMA_NAME LIKE 'world%'
B. SELECT SCHEMA_NAME AS `Database` FROM SCHEMATA_INFORMATION.SCHEMATA
WHERE SCHEMA_NAME LIKE 'world%'
C. SELECT NAME AS `Database` FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.DATABASE WHERE NAME
LIKE 'world%'
D. SELECT NAME AS `Database` FROM SCHEMATA_INFORMATION.DATABASE WHERE
NAME LIKE 'world%'
Answer: A

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NO.5 Ignoring any warnings that may be issued, which of the following statements will delete the `world`
database and its entire contents on execution, but return no error if it doesn't exist?
A. DROP DATABASE `world` IGNORE ERRORS
B. DROP IF EXISTS DATABASE `world`
C. DROP DATABASE IF EXISTS `world`
D. DELETE DATABASE `world` IGNORE ERRORS
E. DELETE IF EXISTS DATABASE `world`
F. DELETE DATABASE IF EXISTS `world`
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following are true in relation to character set and collation relationships in MySQL?
A. A collation may belong to only one character set.
B. A collation may belong to many character sets.
C. A character set may have only one collation.
D. A character set may have many collations.
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 Consider the following:
Which of the quoted values below will be returned for the name field in the SELECT results?
A. ' Tom'
B. ' Tom '
C. 'Tom'
D. 'Tom '
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following are a valid identifier for the user table in the mysql database.?
A. mysql.user
B. `mysql.user`
C. `mysql`.`user`
D. mysql.`user`
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.9 In non-strict mode, assuming that the table city does not already exist and you execute the following
sequence of commands: CREATE TABLE city (city_name CHAR(5)) INSERT INTO city (city_name)
VALUES ('NEW YORK'), ('TOKYO'), (23+345), ('LONDON') -- Ignoring any errors or warnings that may be
issued, which values are now in the table?
A. 'NEW YORK', 'TOKYO', '23+345', 'LONDON'
B. 'NEW Y', 'TOKYO', '23+34', 'LONDO'
C. 'NEW YORK', 'TOKYO', ' ', 'LONDON'
D. 'NEW Y', 'TOKYO', '368', 'LONDO'
E. 'NEW YORK', 'TOKYO', '368', 'LONDON'
Answer: D

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NO.10 Is the following statement true or false? "Each database corresponds to a single directory under data
directory, regardless of what storage engine table uses in the database"
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C_BOCR_08

Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate – Crystal Reports 2008)

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NO.1 You must create a static array in a Crystal report to be used for numeric calculations in other formulas.
How can you do this?
A. Global NumberVar Array newArray := Array (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
B. Global NumberVar Array newArray := MakeArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
C. Global NumberVar Array newArray := CreateArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
D. Global NumberVar Array newArray := DefineArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two methods can you use to change the appearance of an object that you add to a Crystal report?
(Choose two.)
A. Hold down CTRL + Spacebar and click on the object.
B. Right-click the object and use the Format Editor.
C. Select the object and use the Formatting toolbar.
D. Drag-and-drop the object to the Formatting toolbar.
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 Which method can you use to insert field objects into a Crystal report?
A. Select the Field option from the Insert menu.
B. Right-click the area where you want the field object to appear, then select Insert Field Object from the
Context menu.
C. Click the field name, drag it to the desired position and release the mouse button to insert.
D. Click the Field button on the Formatting toolbar.
Answer: C

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NO.4 When should you use parameters?
A. When creating conditional Top N reports.
B. When identifying the data source location.
C. When identifying trends in data.
D. When creating dynamic groups.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which two statements describe how optional prompts behave in Crystal Reports 2008? (Choose two.)
A. If no value is entered in the prompt, all values are returned.
B. If no value is entered in the prompt, no values are returned.
C. If the parent prompt is optional, the child prompt must be optional.
D. If the child prompt is optional, the parent prompt must be optional.
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 Which two formulas can you use to determine whether the content of a string is a number? (Choose
two.)
A. IsNumber({Orders.Customer ID})
B. NumberText({Orders.Customer ID})
C. IsNumeric({Orders.Customer ID})
D. NumericText({Orders.Customer ID})
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 You copy a report from BusinessObjects Enterprise and modify the report. Which two methods can you
use to save changes back to BusinessObjects Enterprise? (Choose two.)
A. Save the report using the Report Explorer.
B. From the Main menu, select Save and choose Enterprise.
C. From the Main menu, select Save and choose Web Folders.
D. Save the report using the Repository Explorer.
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 Which special field can you use to display the date a report was last changed?
A. Modification Date
B. Modification LastDate
C. Modification LastUpdate
D. Modification Time
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which three lines of code will generate an error? (Choose three.)
A. Local Number x := 1;
B. Local NumberVal x := 1;
C. Local NumberVar x := 1;
D. Local NumberValue x := 1;
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.10 What two configuration options are valid for long Lists of Values (LOV) in Crystal Reports 2008?
(Choose two.)
A. UI Batch Size
B. Database Timeout
C. Maximum LOV Size
D. Maximum Rowset Records
Answer: A,C

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NO.11 You need a report that shows all customers and allows the report reader to view either a report listing all
days in the month to date or to view only the customers with daily sales greater than $5000. You decide to
use report alerts to accomplish this. Which formula properly sets the alert condition.?
A. Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000
B. Sum ({Orders.Order Date}, {Orders.Order Amount}, "daily") > 5000}
C. IF Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000 THEN crCondition = "Enabled"
D. IF Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000 THEN AlertMessage =
"Enabled"
Answer: A

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NO.12 You want to use the Workbench feature to manage multiple reports and publish them to
BusinessObjects Enterprise as object packages. Your manager is concerned that any Crystal user could
access and make changes to the reports located on the Workbench. How can you address your
manager's concerns?
A. Encrypt object packages.
B. Password protect object packages.
C. Assign appropriate permissions to object packages that are published to BusinessObjects Enterprise.
D. Track changes on object packages using the Dependency Checker.
Answer: C

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NO.13 What is the reason you cannot insert a Group layout chart in the Page Header section?
A. You do not have access to the database.
B. The Page Header section is suppressed.
C. A Group layout chart cannot be placed in the Page Header section.
D. You have not saved the report with data.
Answer: C

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NO.14 After you select a BusinessObjects Universe to use as the data source for a Crystal report, you create
a query using the BusinessObjects Query Panel. What must you do to access the underlying data
source?
A. Create a local cache of the data source.
B. Create a connection to the data source.
C. Create a local ODBC resource for the data source.
D. Log in to BusinessObjects Enterprise.
Answer: D

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NO.15 In Crystal Reports you select multiple report objects at the same time. Which two menu options become
available when you right-click one of the selected objects? (Choose two.)
A. Move
B. Insert
C. Delete
D. Copy
E. Cut
Answer: D,E

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NO.16 You are creating a Crystal report to show just the Top N countries in an international sales report based
on total sales for the previous quarter. The value of N is dynamic.
Which method must you use to achieve the required result?
A. Using the Group Select Expert, create a parameter to set the value of N. Add a conditional formula to
view just the Top N countries.
B. After creating a parameter to set the value of N, reference that parameter within the Group Sort Expert.
Refresh the report setting the value of N in the parameter to show just the Top N countries.
C. Using the Group Sort Expert, create a parameter to set the value of N. Refresh the report setting the
value of N in the parameter to show just the Top N countries.
D. After creating a parameter to set the value of N, refresh the report to view just those countries with a
grand total that is greater than N.
Answer: B

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NO.17 You create a new Crystal report and want to add a Top N sort, but the Group Sort Expert is inactive.
How can you activate the Group Sort Expert?
A. Insert a group name field.
B. Insert a summary field.
C. Insert a running total field.
D. Insert a formula field.
Answer: B

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NO.18 You want to see a list of formulas containing references to a specific field. Which method can you use?
A. Browse Field
B. Repository Explorer
C. Formula Field Search
D. Global Formula Search
Answer: D

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NO.19 You design a Crystal summary report that is grouped by Region then by Customer Name. The Details
section is hidden. The report includes a bar chart that displays total orders by Customer Name for each
Region group. Which procedure will display the chart beside the sections that show Customer Name and
Total Sales?
A. Place the chart in the Group Header #1 section and format the section to Underlay Following Sections.
B. Place the chart in the Details section and format the section to suppress if duplicated.
C. Place the chart in the Group Footer #2 section and format the section to Underlay Following Sections.
D. Place the chart in the Group Footer #2 section and format the section to suppress if duplicated.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which formula uses the correct syntax to assign a variable a value in Crystal syntax?
A. Numbervar x; x = 5;
B. Dim x as Number x = 5
C. Dim x as Number x := 5
D. Numbervar x; x := 5;
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C_EPMBPC_70

Exam Name: SAP (Business Planning and Consolidation with SAP BPC 7.0)

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NO.1 Which step is required to store a comment to a filled cell in an Excel pop-up in BPC for NetWeaver.?
A. Save the Excel workbook locally.
B. Enable comments in the Application parameters.
C. Assign a keyword.
D. Enable comments in the Application Set parameters.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What tasks can be done using the Web Administration?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Changing documents type but not document subtype
B. Activating but not deactivating auditing
C. Adjusting the version number of a report template
D. Setting up file types
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 Who is notified when a step is completed using Business Process Flow?
A. BPF User
B. BPF Manager
C. BPF Owner
D. BPF Reviewer
Answer: C

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NO.4 What actions are possible with work status?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Using it only with entity and time type dimensions
B. Bypassing it while executing a data management package
C. Linking it to multiple hierarchies for an Application
D. Launching it from the content library
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 What interfaces can you use during the step Define Action when setting up a BPF?
A. Manage Books, BPC Web, BPC for Word
B. BPC Administration, BPC for Excel, BPC for Word
C. Data Audit, BPC for Excel, BPC for PowerPoint
D. Journal, BPC for Excel, BPC for Word
Answer: D

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NO.6 For which scenario is it impossible to use the work status?
A. To allow or disallow a user to modify data
B. To lock a region of data in an Application
C. To lock a step in a Business Process Flow
D. To track the status of a planning process
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is a restriction for BPC validation rules in BPC for NetWeaver?
A. A BPC validation rule cannot use a BAdI implementation.
B. Multiple BPC validation rules cannot be applied to multiple dimension members of a dimension.
C. Multiple BPC validation rules cannot refer to the same dimension member.
D. A BPC validation rule cannot refer to multiple driver dimensions.
Answer: D

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NO.8 For which dimension can you activate a data audit trail for an Application?
A. Category
B. Account
C. Time
D. Entity
Answer: A

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NO.9 How do you control inserting records into the database in BPC?
A. Via Work Status
B. Via Business Rules
C. Via Distributor and Collector
D. Via Audit
Answer: A

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NO.10 What value is used in the destination flow column of the currency conversion business rule when there
is no subtable type dimension in the Application?
A. Same as in the destination account column
B. Same as in the source account rate type column
C. Same as in the source flow column
D. Same as in the formula column
Answer: C

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NO.11 What settings do you need for Source Account to calculate the liability account 'annual net income'
(ANI)?
A. Expense, Destination Account = Revenue and ANI, do not reverse sign
B. Revenue and Cost, Destination Account = ANI, do not reverse sign
C. Revenue and Cost, Destination Account = ANI, reverse sign
D. Expense, Destination Account = Revenue and ANI, reverse sign
Answer: B

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NO.12 What tasks are accomplished during full optimization in BPC for NetWeaver?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Creating a copy of the MultiProvider for the BPC Application
B. Closing the open request after posting 50,000 records
C. Updating DB statistics for the InfoCube
D. Compressing and indexing the InfoCube
E. Executing a data model analysis and alerting if the data model can be improved
Answer: C,D

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NO.13 What fields are required to eliminate the investment when using the 'All Formula'?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Source Account
B. Destination Group Account
C. Destination Equity Account
D. Destination Minority Interest
E. Destination All Account
Answer: A,E

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NO.14 Where do you set the data audit to capture transactional data changes?
A. At Appset level in Admin Console
B. At Appset level in Web Admin
C. At Application level in Admin Console
D. At Application level in Web Admin
Answer: D

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NO.15 What is the consequence in BPC for NetWeaver when updating the web admin parameters without
entering the required parameters?
A. Warnings
B. Nothing
C. Crashes
D. Errors
Answer: B

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Exam Code: C_TFIN52_65

Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Financial Accounting with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP5)

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NO.1 Your customer runs an SAP ERP system with New General Ledger Accounting activated.
What do you need to do for Profit Center updates to be part of the general ledger?
A. Activate transfer prices in Profit Center Accounting.
B. Set up the same group currency for all company codes and profit centers.
C. Deactivate document splitting for profit centers.
D. Assign the Profit Center Update scenario to the ledger.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What does the posting key control.? (Choose three)
A. Account type
B. Document type
C. Field status
D. Debit/credit indicator
E. Number range
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 In a payment run, the data entered for a payment method in the document may differ from the master
data.
How is this resolved by the system?
A. Document data overrides master data.
B. The payment run stops and the system issues an error message.
C. The payment run temporarily stops, and the system prompts you to correct the data. After you have
corrected the data, the payment run continues.
D. Master data overrides document data.
Answer: A

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NO.4 You want to use external number assignment for specific document types.
What is the special feature of external number assignment?
A. The numbers can be alphanumeric.
B. The number ranges can overlap.
C. The number ranges can be used across all company codes.
D. The system issues the numbers automatically.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following objects can you post to via the cash journal? (Choose two)
A. Asset master
B. Accrual Engine
C. Customer
D. One-time customer
E. Material master
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 What is the maximum number of line items of an FI document?
A. Unlimited
B. 999
C. 99
D. 9999
Answer: B

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NO.7 If a vendor is also a customer, it is possible to clear both roles against each other.
Which settings are necessary to implement this? (Choose two)
A. The "Clearing with Vendor" field must be selected in the customer account, and the corresponding field
must be selected in the vendor account.
B. The vendor and the customer must be assigned to the same group account.
C. The vendor number must be entered in the customer account or the customer number must be entered
in the vendor account.
D. The payment program must be set up to allow debit checks for vendors and credit checks for
customers.
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 Which of the following lists can be printed to help you edit a dunning proposal? (Choose two)
A. Condensed master data
B. Blocked accounts
C. Blocked line items
D. Sales statistics
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 What do you define when you configure a dunning procedure?
A. Dunning levels and the language of the dunning note
B. Dunning levels and account determination to post dunning interest
C. Dunning charges for each dunning level and customers to be dunned
D. Dunning levels and dunning charges for each dunning level
Answer: D

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NO.10 What are the prerequisites for setting up cross-company cost accounting? (Choose two)
A. The same chart of accounts is used for all company codes.
B. The same fiscal year is used for all company codes.
C. The same variant for open periods is used for all company codes.
D. The same currency is used for all company codes.
Answer: A,B

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