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Exam Code: M2020-623
Exam Name: IBM Risk Analytics for Asset Management Sales Mastery Test v1 Exam
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Exam Code: P2180-089
Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Cast Iron Technical Sales Mastery Test v1
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Exam Code: A2010-501
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NO.1 Which of the following regulations is driving the adoption of risk management analytics for
Hedge Funds and Asset Managers in Europe?
A. Sarbanes Oxley
B. Solvency II
C. Basel III
D. Alternative Investment Fund Managers Directive (AIFMD)
Answer: D

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NO.2 How does Algorithmics provides solutions to retain and attract business?
A. Through broader diversification and faster time to market for new products
B. Through reducing latency and improving automated services.
C. Through web-based interfaces for always-on connectivity.
D. Through self-service functionality for retail investors and wealth managers.
Answer: B

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NO.3 All North American based hedge funds (subject to size) are impacted by which of the following?
A. Dodd Frank
B. UCITS - Undertakings for Collective Investment in Transferable Securities
C. AIFMD - Alternative Investment Fund Managers Directive
D. Basel III
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www.risk.net/hedge-funds-review/news/ 2283386 /hedge-fund-managers-notready
-for-aifmd

NO.4 Which one of the following will the Chief Risk Officer (CRO) care about?
A. Performance
B. Attracting new capital
C. Portfolio management
D. Meeting regulatory compliance
Answer: D

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Reference:http://searchcompliance.techtarget.com/definition/Chief-risk-officer-CRO

NO.5 Fund managers require a consistent rigorous standard for risk assessment that:
A. Crosses all asset classes
B. Supports stocks.
C. Supports derivative instruments.
D. Supports fixed income investments.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C2010-572
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.3 Administration
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NO.1 Which statement is true about the Tivoli Monitoring Startup Center.?
A. it upgrades the current environment
B. it is a prerequisite component that must be installed
C. it deploys an entire IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.3 environment
D. it helps discover all monitored servers and any Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring agents
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which two Windows platforms can be used to install a Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring
Server? (Choose
two.)
A. Windows Server 2008 Standard Edition on Intel x86-32 (32 bit)
B. Windows Server 2008 Standard Edition on Itanium IA64 (64 bit)
C. Windows Server 2008 Enterprise Edition on Intel X86-64 (64 bit)
D. Windows Server 2008 Datacenter Edition on Intel X86-32 (32 bit)
E. Windows Server 2008 Datacenter Edition on Intel x86-64 (64 bit)
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 What is the last component to be upgraded from IBM Tivoli Monitoring (ITM) V6.xto
V6.2.3?
A. monitoring agent
B. event synchronization
C. Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
D. Tivoli Enterprise Portal desktop client
Answer: A

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NO.4 The firewall gateway feature in IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.3 is intended for which
communication
scenario?
A. remote Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server (TEMS) to Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
(TEPS)
B. Hub TEMS to IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus /Tivoli Enterprise Console
C. Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Agent to remote TEMS
D. TEPS to Hub TEMS
Answer: C

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NO.5 What does the activation of the self-describing agent feature trigger?
A. The agent configuration information is stored in a central inventory database.
B. The agent platform-specific information is stored in the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
embedded
database.
C. The agent environment file is given to the Warehouse Proxy agent and stored in the Tivoli
Data
Warehouse.
D. The agent application support files are distributed to and installed on all Tivoli Enterprise
Management
Servers.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which database and version is supported by IBM Tivoli Data Warehouse?
A. Oracle 9g
B. Oracle 10g
C. IBMDB2V8.5
D. IBM DB2 V7.2
Answer: B

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NO.7 What are two ways to configure historical data collection? (Choose two.)
A. use the Command Line Interface history set of tacmd commands
B. through the History Collection Configuration window in the Tivoli Enterprise Portal
C. log into the Summarization and Pruning Agent GUI and select Configure Historical Data
Collection
D. use the separately installed Historical Data Collection Tool and connect to the Tivoli Data
Warehouse
E. right-click the Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server icon in the Manage Tivoli Enterprise
Monitoring
Services GUI and select Historical Data Collection
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 A customer wants to monitor critical processes on their Unix servers. During the
analysis it is found that
this will require the use of regular expressions. Can this be done using IBM Tivoli Monitoring
V6.2.3
(ITM)?
A. Yes. but a Universal agent is required.
B. Yes; but a custom agent must be built using the Agent Builder.
C. Yes; use the Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Agent for Unix operating systems.
D. No; ITM does not support the use of regular expressions for the names of processes.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: C2020-013
Exam Name: IBM SPSS Data Mining for Business Partners v2
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Exam Code: C2010-538
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.2 Implementation
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Exam Code: C2010-657
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.4 Implementation
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NO.1 What is the effect of setting these ObjectServer properties prior to starting the ObjectServer?
NHttpd.EnableHTTP : TRUE
NHttpd.ListeningPort : 8080
A. It defines whether the embedded HTTPD server will serve files from its document root.
B. It configures the embedded HTTP server so that the interfaces are active on an HTTP port (8080).
C. It configures the embedded HTTP server so that the interfaces are active on an HTTPS port (8080).
D. IT defines the security realm name of the basic HTTP authentication value that is returned to a
HTTP request in a HTTP(401) response when invalid or no credentials are provided.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which properties must be available in the probe to configure peer-to-peer failover?
A. Server, Mode, AutoSAF
B. Mode, PeerHost, PeerPort
C. Server, Connections, ServerBackup
D. Server, ServerBackup, PeerHost, PeerPort
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which combination of properties can be used to enable an ObjectServer to serve files to a
HTTP client?
A. NHttpd.EnableHTTP , NHttpd.ListeningPort, NHttpd.SSLEnable, NHttpd.SSLListeningPort
B. NHttpd.DocumentRoot, NHttpd.EnableFileServing, NHttpd.AccessLog, NHttpd.EnableHTTP
C. NHttpd.EnableHTTP , NHttpd.ListeningPort, NHttpd.DocumentRoot, NHttpd.EnableFileServing
D. NHttpd.AuthenticationDomain, NHttpd.SSLCertificate, NHttpd.DocumentRoot,
NHttpd.EnableFileServing
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which two statements are true about automations? (Choose two.)
A. Automations can communicate with each other and run programs on request.
B. Automations support full remote management of process agents from a single console.
C. Automations enable the ObjectServer to process alerts without requiring an operator to take
action.
D. Automations can be used to detect changes in the ObjectServer and to run automated responses
to these changes.
E. Automations provide an interface for defining and manipulating relational database objects such
as tables and views
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 Which command installs the probes and gateways in IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.4?
A. nco_patch
B. nco_install_obj
C. nco_create_integration
D. nco install integration
Answer: D

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NO.6 This line is added to the journal tab of a WebGUI tool:
Alert severity is CONVERSION(@Severity)
Assuming the tool is executed on a red event, what will appear in the Journal tab of the event this
tool is run against?
A. Alert severity is 4
B. Alert severity is 5
C. Alert severity is Critical
D. Alert severity is Warning
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which role is required to administer groups and roles in IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.4
WebGUI?
A. iscadmins
B. nco_admin
C. configurator
D. administrator
Answer: A

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NO.8 An installation of an ObjectServer on Redhat Linux has completed. The ObjectServer has been
set up to use PAM authentication. What must be increased to keep nco_pad from crashing?
A. the poolsize on the nco_pad command
B. the stacksize on the nco_pad command
C. the stackdump size on the nco_pad command
D. the memory space of the parent process to at least 2 GB
Answer: B

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Exam Name: Rational Team Concert V3
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NO.1 In addition to Release, Iteration, and Daily Work Planning, which three capabilities does
IBM Rational
Team Concert Support? (Choose three.)
A. Requirements Management
B. Work Item Management
C. Source Code Management
D. Build Management
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.2 In Scrum, what is a constantly prioritized to-do list of high-level work?
A. Sprint Backlog
B. Sprint
C. Product Backlog
D. Product
Answer: C

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NO.3 How is version control of process templates accomplished?
A. automatically by IBM Rational Team Concert on every save
B. by the naming convention of the templates
C. by keeping copies on a shared drive
D. by using IBM Rational Team Concert source control of the exported process template
Answer: D

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NO.4 Work Items presentation: Which is NOT part of the default work item presentations?
A. Plan Editor Preview
B. Inline Work Item Editor
C. Work Item Editor
D. Eclipse Work Item Editor
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which three options are available for defining build schedules? (Choose three)
A. at a continuous interval in minutes on selected days
B. at a particular time for defined days
C. during defined business hours
D. only if there are newly accepted changes
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.6 For what purpose should a project administrator use a value set definition.?
A. to display all users in a project or team area that have a specific role
B. to display a full list of team members
C. to enable a query to show only those work items related to a specific category
D. to write a query that lists all the users in a team
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which three statements are true about an IBM Rational Team Concert project area?
(Choose three.)
A. It has an associated process, which is a collection of practices, rules, and guidelines used
to organize
and control the flow of work.
B. It has a graphical chart that illustrates business priority ranking of a project relative to other
peer
projects.
C. It is typically based on a predefined process template, which can be optionally modified to
satisfy any
unique needs of the project.
D. It may optionally contain team areas that define the sub-teams that work on the project.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.8 When working with public dashboards, which two factors should be considered when
determining the
best strategy for saving changes?
A. number of widgets being customized and elapsed load time
B. proper permissions and type of dashboard
C. number of people with permissions to edit and type of edits
D. dashboard template configuration and widget selection
Answer: C

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Exam Code: A2090-731
Exam Name: DB2 9 DBA for Linux,UNIX and Windows
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Exam Code: C2010-590
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Exam Code: C2020-011
Exam Name: IBM SPSS Statistics Level 1 v2
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NO.1 A database named QA that was using archival logging crashed. An attempt to restart
it failed
with error code SQL0290N. Examination of the db2diag.log shows that the disk drive
containing
the system catalog table space SYSCATSPACE is not responding. Backup images of both
the QA
database and the SYSCATSPACE table space exist. After replacing the failed disk drive,
what is
the quickest method to bring the QA database back online?
A.Restore the QA database from the latest off-line backup image.
B.Restore the QA database from the latest off-line backup image and rollforward to end of
logs.
C.Restore the System Catalog table space from the latest SYSCATSPACE backup image
without rolling
forward.
D.Restore the System Catalog table space from the latest SYSCATSPACE backup image
and rollforward
to end of logs.
Correct:D

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NO.2 Which of the following authorities should a user have in order to QUIESCE the DB2
instance?
A.DBADM
B.SECADM
C.SYSMON
D.SYSMAINT
Correct:D

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NO.3 User 1 creates table T1 and subsequently creates view V1 based on table T1. User 1
grants
SELECT WITH GRANT OPTION on view V1 to user 2. User 2 grants SELECT privileges on
view V1
to user 3. The database administrator revokes CONTROL and SELECT privileges from user
1.
What is the status of privileges on view V1 after this sequence?
A.User 2 and user 3 still have SELECT privileges on view V1.
B.All privileges have been revoked and the view is marked inoperative.
C.User 3 still has SELECT privilege on view V1, but user 2's privilege has been revoked.
D.User 2 still has SELECT privilege on view V1, but user 3's privilege has been revoked.
Correct:B

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NO.4 A DBA wants to grant the SELECT privilege on table T1 to user USER1 and group
GRP1. USER1
and GRP1 have not been defined. What is the minimum that needs to be done to
successfully
grant this privilege?
A.Grant the SELECT privilege to USER1 and GRP1.
B.Define GRP1 and then grant the SELECT privilege.
C.Define USER1 and then grant the SELECT privilege.
D.Define USER1 and GRP1 and then grant the SELECT privilege.
Correct:A

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NO.5 Given the following situation: Table space ts1 with tables t1, t2, t3 Table space ts2 with
tables t4,
t5 Tables t1 and t4 have defined referential integrity on them (t1 is the parent, t4 is the child)
What
happens after restoring the table space ts1 and issuing the following command? db2
rollforward
db sample to 2006-06-16-14.21.56 and stop tablespace(ts1)
A.The roll forward is executed to the end of logs.
B.The roll forward is not executed and an error message is generated.
C.The roll forward is executed and table t4 is placed in set integrity pending state.
D.The roll forward is executed and tables t1 and t4 are placed in set integrity pending state.
Correct:C

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NO.6 USER1 needs to remove table TABLE1 from the PAYROLL database. Assuming
USER1 has no
privileges on TABLE1, which of the following must occur before USER1 will be allowed to
drop the
table?
A.A user with SYSADM authority must execute the statement GRANT DELETE ON table1
TO user1.
B.A user with DBADM authority must execute the statement GRANT CONTROL ON table1
TO user1.
C.A user granted DELETE WITH GRANT OPTION privilege on TABLE1 must execute the
statement
GRANT DELETE ON table1 TO user1.
D.A user granted CONTROL WITH GRANT OPTION privilege on TABLE1 must execute the
statement
GRANT CONTROL ON table1 TO user1.
Correct:B

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NO.7 As part of a high availability takeover strategy using HADR, the LOG INDEX BUILD
table
attribute for the APPLICANT table is set to OFF. What is the most likely effect of this change?
A.After failover, the APPLICANT table index may be rebuilt.
B.An attempt to create a unique index on the APPLICANT table will fail.
C.Index builds for the APPLICANT table on the primary system will take longer.
D.The LOGINDEXBUILD database configuration parameter overrides the table attribute.
Correct:A

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NO.8 A database administrator has HADR enabled and wants to do a LOAD WITH COPY
NO option on
the primary server. What happens on the standby server?
A.The Load is replicated without problems.
B.The Load will stop with an appropriate error message.
C.The Load will be automatically converted to NONRECOVERABLE and the standby
database will be
marked bad.
D.The Load will be automatically converted to COPY YES if the directory or device specified
on the
primary server is accessible for the standby database.
Correct:C

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Exam Code: A2010-503
Exam Name: Assess: IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.3 Fundamentals
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Exam Code: A2010-572
Exam Name: Assess: IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.3 Administration
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NO.1 Which statement is correct regarding the Hub Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server (TEMS) in an
IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.3 environment?
A. There can only be one active Hub TEMS in each environment.
B. There can be more than one active Hub TEMS in each environment.
C. The number of needed Hub TEMS is determined by an updated file during installation.
D. The number of needed Hub TEMS is dependent on the number of active links to agents.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which enhancement is added to the IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.3 (ITM) agent for UNIX OS?
A. Support for self-describing agents.
B. Support of monitoring file systems of the NES.
C. New TM capabilityto perform prerequisite checking for agents before performing an installation.
D. A varietyof metrics have been ported from the AIX Premium agent to the TM agent for UNIX OS.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which type of event integration can be performed with IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNI bus?
A. Bi-directional using the Event Console Agent
B. Bi-directional using the Event Integration Facility
C. Uni-directional using the Event Integration Facility
D. Uni-directional using the IBM Tivoli Monitoring Situation Update Forwarder
Answer: C

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NO.4 If an agent is going to save its metric data in the Tivoli Data Warehouse, it must communicate
with which two components? (Choose two.)
A. Warehouse Proxyagent
B. Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
C. Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server
D. Summarization and Pruning agent
E. Relational Database Management Server
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 What is a potential EIF destination?
A. Tivoli Event Reporter
B. Tivoli Enterprise Portal
C. Tivoli Netcool EIF Probe
D. IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNibus
Answer: D

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NO.6 What does the Warehouse Proxy agent do?
A. It provides dashboard visualization and reporting services for the Tivoli Data Warehouse.
B. It receives data collected by monitoring agents and moves itto the Tivoli Data Warehouse
database.
C. It analyzes and enriches the data that is collected by its monitoring agents and provides reports
about the performance and capacityof systems.
D. It provides the abilityto customize the length of time to save data and how often to aggregate
granular data in the Tivoli Data Warehouse database.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Jar for Service Management accelerates deployment, integration, and workflow automation
across which tools?
A. Only IBM tools
B. Only third-party tools
C. Only IBM and partnertools
D. IBM, partner, and third-partytools
Answer: D

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NO.8 If Java is not initially installed, which version is installed when the Tivoli Enterprise Portal client
is run?
A. IBMJava6
B. IBMJava7
C. Oracle Java 6
D. Oracle Java 7
Answer: B

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Exam Code: C-TPLM30-66
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Enterprise Asset Management (Maintenance & Repair) with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP6
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Exam Code: C_TBIT44_73
Exam Name: SAP Certfied Development Associate - Process Integration with SAP NetWeaver (PI 7.3) (C_TBIT44_73)
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Exam Code: C-A1FIN-10
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Financials with SAP Business All-in-One Solution Exam
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NO.1 SAP Best Practices are preconfigured packages that can be used for different purposes in
various phases of an implementation project.
Why would you set up a system by activating an SAP Best Practices package? (Choose two)
A. To introduce new functions that are not offered in the Business Suite
B. To accelerate the implementation of SAP applications
C. To quickly set up a prototype system for specification workshops, trainings, and demos
D. To correct settings in a productive system
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 Which currency types are available for budgeting on internal orders? (Choose three)
A. Controlling area currency
B. Object currency
C. Company code currency
D. Freely-definable currency
E. Transaction currency
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 When you make a change to an asset, at what point does the planned depreciation change in
Asset Accounting?
A. After a posting to a fixed asset
B. After depreciation is run and posted to the general ledger
C. After depreciation is run without being posted
D. After depreciation is run and posted to the fixed assets ledger
Answer: A

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NO.4 During the preparation phase, you create a project charter and define project standards and
procedures. These elements give the project manager the authority to conduct a project within
scope, quality, time, and cost and resource constraints.
Which approach would you recommend for scope change requests?
A. Since the project is a fixed scope project, reject all scope change requests.
B. Only accept scope change requests after integration and acceptance tests.
C. Collect scope change requests and hand them over to development immediately.
D. Document scope change requests according to the change requests plan and decide on
realization.
Answer: D

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6. Which components are part of the SAP Business All-in-One solutions? (Choose three)
A. Preconfigured business processes
B. Help portal
C. NetWeaver Business Client
D. Documentation and training material
E. GuiXT
Answer: A,C,D

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7. How do you use the Solution Builder to package your own solution? (Choose two)
A. Add a Customizing step to your building blocks using a report.
B. Use solution builder to automatically transfer a solution into a new scenario map.
C. Export the structure of your solution into an xml file.
D. Create building blocks that contain your delta settings.
Answer: C,D

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8. The ASAP Focus Methodology defines a proposal framework as an accelerator to help you
produce the proposal document during the evaluation phase.
Which document is part of the proposal framework?
A. Sales presentations
B. Marketing collateral
C. Customer qualification questionnaire
D. Solution scope document
Answer: D

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9. Which "additional" planning method is available for internal orders if you have information
about sources of supply and vendors' prices based on quantities?
A. Unit cost planning
B. Activity input planning
C. Overall planning
D. Primary cost planning
Answer: A

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10. Along with SAP NetWeaver Business Client (NWBC), SAP provides a NWBC demo kit for
partners. This contains the welcome page and workbenches to enhance the user interface.
What are the required steps to install and run the NWBC demo kit? (Choose three)
A. Configure the user interface according to your specific needs.
B. Import the transport request from the NWBC demo kit into your system.
C. Download the NWBC demo kit from the SAP Help Portal under alias /bestpractices.
D. Download the NWBC demo kit from the SAP Service Portal under alias /bestpractices.
E. Order the NWBC demo kit per OSS message with reference to SAP Note 1040010.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.5 When a document is posted, a number is assigned to that document.
Where does this number come from?
A. Document source
B. Document area
C. Document type
D. Posting key
Answer: C

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