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Exam Code: 3M0-250
Exam Name: 3Com Certified Enterprise LAN Post-Sales Expert version 1.0
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
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Last Update: 2014-05-06

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Exam Code: 3M0-212
Exam Name: Certified Enterprise LAN Pre-Sales Expert version 3.2
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NO.1 Click the Task button. Drag each Switch 5500 model to the set of hardware features it supports.
Correct:
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice4
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice1

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NO.2 Which three features are only supported on the Switch 5500G-EI switch models? (Choose three.)
A.Port-based VLANs
B.24 or 48 10/100/1000 Mbps ports
C.PoE upgradeable power supply unit
D.Hot-swappable Application Module Slot
E.Four GBIC Small Form-factor Plug-in (SFP) ports
Correct:B C D

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NO.3 Click the Task button. Drag each Switch 5500 model to the recommended customer environment.
Correct:
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice1

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NO.4 Using 3Com's XRN technology, you can mix Switch 5500-SI and Switch 5500-EI model switches
to create a single switch stack.
A.True
B.False
Correct:B

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NO.5 Which Switch 5500 model(s) supports a 96 Gbps full-duplex XRN stacking connection?
A.Switch 5500-SI
B.Switch 5500-EI
C.Switch 5500G-EI
D.All of the above
Correct:C

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Exam Code: 3M0-200
Exam Name: 3COM 3M0-200
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
3M0-200 Exam Cost Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-05-06

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Exam Code: 3M0-211
Exam Name: Certified Enterprise LAN Specialist
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Last Update: 2014-05-06

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Exam Code: 3M0-700
Exam Name: Certified IP Telephony Specialist
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Last Update: 2014-05-06

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NO.1 Which three are true statements regarding 10 Gigabit technology and/or 3Com
products? (Choose three)
A. The 3 Com XFP 10G Fiber Transceivers use LC connects
B. IEEE 802.3X defines the 10GBASE-CX4 standard for Twin axial
C. 3Com supports 10G interface Modules for both the Switch 7700 and Switch 8800
D. The 10GBASE-T standard requires four-pair Category 5 or two-pair Category 6 UTP
wiring
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 Which four are Switching Fabric features/Functions on the Switch 8800? (Choose
four)
A. Each Switch Fabric has a data channel to every module
B. Supports a hot-swappable, load-balancing Switch Fabric.
C. There is a data channel between the two Switch Fabrics.
D. Each Switch Fabric has a management channel to every module
E. Supports a hot-standby, hot-swappable redundant Switch Fabric
F. The master Switch Fabric is always set to slot #1 unless the fabric in slot #1 fails
G. The master Switch Fabric provides route calculation and management for the entire
chassis
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.3 Which three are advantages of using 3Com's XRN Distribution Resilient Routing
(DRR) over Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)? (Choose three)
A. DRR is easy to configure and administer, VRRP is more complex to manage
B. DRR supports both IP unicast and IP multicast traffic, VRRP only supports IP unicast
routing
C. DRR fast failover is less than five seconds, VRRP fast failover can take as long as 60
seconds
D. DRR distributes routing table updates only, VRRP distributes the entire routing table
to update other devices
E. DRR distributes routing across all switches in the XRN Distributed Fabric on the
router interfaces, VRRP uses a single Master router for all routing
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.4 Which three are recommended guidelines for an XRN network? (Choose three)
A. Only enable Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) or Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
on edge switches
B. Do not insert Fabric interconnect Modules into the Super Stack 3 Switch 4900 or
Switch 40x0 switches
C. Run the same version of the Gigabit Multilayer Switching (MS) Software (4Xor
higher) across the fabric
D. Use fault-tolerant 3Comhardware, i.e the Switch 40x0 family that provides additional
levels of hardware fault tolerance
E. The XRN Fabric Modules should be installed while the fabric switch powered on. Hot
swapping XRN Fabric Modules is also recommended in the event of a failure
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.5 Which three are key requirements for the Access Layer (edge) of the network?
(Choose three)
A. Multilayer traffic prioritization
B. Multiple priority queues per port
C. Hardware-based Access Control List (ACLs)
D. Rate limiting and remarking for outgoing traffic.
E. MAC address authorization or IEEE 802.1X Network Login
F. Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) bandwidth allocation
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.6 Which Switch 7700 command would show if Port#4 on Ethernet Module #2 is a
member of a Link Aggregation (LA) group and is the "LA Master Port"?
A. display interface Ethernet 2/4
B. display interface Ethernet 2/04
C. display interface Ethernet 4/0/2
D. display link-aggregation Ethernet 2/4
E. display link-aggregation Ethernet 2/0/4
F. display link-aggregation Ethernet 4/0/2
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which component of XRN technology is defined as "A set of interconnected
switches that support Distributed Device Management (DDM), Distributed Link
Aggregation (DLA) and Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)"?
A. XRN Interconnect
B. XRN Distributed Fabric
C. XRN Interconnect Fabric
D. XRN Distributed Software
Answer: B

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NO.8 The Switch 7700 or Switch 8800 can be used as the primary authentication service
or as a backup if the RADIUS server group is unavailable.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 4A0-103
Exam Name: Alcatel-Lucent Multiprotocol Label Switching
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Last Update: 2014-05-03

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NO.1 Click on the exhibit button below.
With fast reroute enabled, and given the following:
-Two protected LSPs with the path R1-R2-R3
-Both LSPs enable facility bypass and link protection.
When router R1 is the PLR, which router becomes the MP?
A. Router R1
B. Router R2
C. Router R3
D. Router R4
E. Router R5
Answer: B

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NO.2 Router R3 signals an LSP, reserving 1Gbps bandwidth on a 10Gbps link. RSVP configuration limits
reservable bandwidth to 20 percent on the egress interface. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The egress RSVP interface has 80 percent bandwidth unreserved.
B. LSPs can reserve an additional 9.9 Gbps bandwidth on this RSVP interface.
C. The head end reserves 100Mbps for the LSP
D. The egress RSVP interface has 1 Gbps bandwidth unreserved.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following statements best describes downstream unsolicited label distribution?
A. An LER may answer requests for label mappings immediately, without waiting for a label mapping from
the next-hop.
B. An LER may advertise label mappings to all peers for which it might be a next-hop for a given FEC.
C. An LER propagates a label mapping downstream for a FEC. only if it has a label mapping for the FEC
next-hop.
D. An LER will only distribute a label for a FEC when it has been requested to do so.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You wish to advertise LDP labels for all local networks; which is the most effective policy statement to
use?
A. from prefix-list direct
B. match local
C. from protocol direct
D. match protocol direct
E. from protocol local
Answer: C

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NO.5 Click on the exhibit button below.
Given the output below, which of the following statements are true? (Choose three)
A. A packet arriving with label 131066 and destined for prefix 10.10.10.243/32 will be forwarded out
interface 1/1/4, with label 131070.
B. LDP ECMP is enabled.
C. The router ¯ s sys t e m add r ess i s 10 . 10 . 10 . 242 / 32 .
D. There are multiple LSPs to reach FEC 10.10.10.244/32.
E. The router cannot receive any unlabeled packets destined for prefix 10.10.10 223/32.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.6 Which command can be used to verify the LDP settings for label distribution and retention?
A. show router ldp default
B. show router ldp parameters
C. show router ldp settings
D. show router mpls settings
E. show router mpls label-options
Answer: B

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NO.7 Click on the exhibit button below.
Assuming that LSP R1-R2-R3 requests the default fast reroute configuration, which router becomes a
DMP for the detour tunnels?
A. Router R1
B. Router R2
C. Router R3
D. Router R4
E. Router R5
Answer: E

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NO.8 Which of the following indicates the path over which an LSP's tail end router will return an RSVP RESV
message?
A. The IGP FIB.
B. The Reservation State Block (RSB)
C. The Path State Block (PSB)
D. The opaque database.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 4A0-107
Exam Name: Alcatel-Lucent Quality of Service
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4A0-107 VCE Dumps Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-05-03

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Exam Code: 4A0-101
Exam Name: Alcatel-Lucent Interior Routing Protocols and High Availability
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Exam Code: 4A0-104
Exam Name: Alcatel-Lucent Services Architecture
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NO.1 Point to multipoint MPLS Layer 2 VPN connectivity and encapsulation is described most accurately by
which of the following?
A. RFC 4448: Encapsulation methods for transport of Ethernet over MPLS.
B. RFC3201: Definitions of Managed Objects for Circuit to Interface Translation.
C. RFC 4762: VPLS over LDP Signaling
D. RFC 4364 BGP/MPLS Layer-3 VPN
Answer: C

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NO.2 The diagram above shows the MPLS packet format for transporting L2 services over an MPLS
transport tunnel. In the diagram what does "YYYYY" represent?
A. Service VC label
B. Control word
C. Inner label
D. TCP/IP header
Answer: B

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NO.3 Martini encapsulation typically makes use of the control word in which of the following situations?
(Choose two)
A. Ethernet
B. ATM AAL5
C. TDM
D. HDLC
E. Frame Relay
Answer: BE

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NO.4 Identify the correct labels for the Martini encapsulation diagram above.
A. XX Transport Label, YY VC Label, ZZ Control Word
B. XX VC Label, YY Transport Label, ZZ Control Word
C. XX VC Label, YY Control Word, ZZ Transport Label
D. XX Control Word, YY VC Label, ZZ Transport Label
E. XX Control Word, YY Transport Label, ZZ VC Label
Answer: A

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NO.5 The diagram above shows the MPLS packet format for transporting L2 services over an MPLS
transport tunnel. What encapsulation method is represented by ZZZZZ above?
A. Kompella
B. Alcatel
C. Martini
D. HDLC
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 4A0-M01
Exam Name: Alcatel-Lucent IP/MPLS Mobile Backhaul Transport
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4A0-M01 Practice Exam Total Q&A: 150 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-05-03

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Exam Code: 4A0-M02
Exam Name: Alcatel-Lucent Mobile Gateways for the LTE Evolved Packet Core
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4A0-M02 Practice Test Total Q&A: 140 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-05-03

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Exam Code: 4A0-100
Exam Name: Alcatel-Lucent Scalable IP Networks
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4A0-100 Exam PDF Total Q&A: 180 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-05-03

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NO.1 The IANA is responsible for:
A.Intra-city ISP traffic.
B.Allocation of the global IP address space.
C.Allocating IP addresses for residential customer traffic.
D.Allocating North American IP addresses .
ANSWER: b

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NO.2 Which network was created to replace ARPANET?
A.INWG
B.ALOHANET
C.IETF
D.NSFNET
ANSWER: d

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NO.3 Which of the following best describes a repeater?
A.A passive device simply used to connect two or more cables. Does not generate or amplify any signals.
B.A device that receives and retransmits a signal out its ports, but does not do any Layer 2 analysis of the
data.
C.A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 2 destination address, makes a decision on
which ports the signal should be retransmitted.
D.A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 2 destination address, makes a decision on
which ports the signal should be retransmitted.
E.A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 3 destination address, makes a decision on
which ports the signal should be retransmitted.
ANSWER: b

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NO.4 To transmit its segments of data across the network TCP uses the services of which layer
A.Application Layer.
B.Transport Layer.
C.IP Layer.
D.Data Link Layer
ANSWER: c

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NO.5 Which organization first considered cross-platform networking support to be a necessity?
A.IBM.
B.US Military.
C.Alcatel-Lucent.
D.NASA.
E.Bell Labs
ANSWER: b

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NO.6 Which of the following is a feature of Layer 3?
A.Provides an universal addressing scheme
B.Ensures data is delivered across the Layer 2 network.
C.Provides reliable data transfers.
D.Provides a physical interface to the network.
ANSWER: a

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NO.7 which of the following is the best description of well known ports?
A.Well known ports apply to routers only and are used for communication and control traffic. Well known
port numbers are assigned by IANA and can have any value.
B.Well known ports are used by TCP and UDP. Well known port numbers range from 1024 to 65535 and
are assigned by IANA.
C.Well known port numbers are used by both TCP and UDP. Well known port numbers range from 1 to
1023 and are assigned by IANA.
D.Well known ports numbers are used by TCP only. Well known port numbers are assigned by IANA and
can have any value.
ANSWER: c

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NO.8 You are configuring your Alcatel-Lucent 7750SR Service Router from the Command Line Interface
(CLI), and after entering a lengthy command, wish to return directly to the ROOT context. Which control
command allows you to do this quickly?
A.Ctrl-z
B.Ctrl-c
C.Esc
D.Shift-Page Down
ANSWER: a

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NO.1 Which type of evidence can be added to FTK Imager?
A.individual files
B.all checked items
C.contents of a folder
D.all currently listed items
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which three items are displayed in FTK Imager for an individual file in the Properties window? (Choose
three.)
A.flags
B.filename
C.hash set
D.timestamps
E.item number
Answer: ABD

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NO.3 In FTK, which search broadening option allows you to find grammatical variations of the word "kill" such
as "killer," "killed," and "killing"?
A.Phonic
B.Synonym
C.Stemming
D.Fuzzy Logic
Answer: C

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NO.4 When previewing a physical drive on a local machine with FTK Imager, which statement is true?
A.FTK Imager can block calls to interrupt 13h and prevent writes to suspect media.
B.FTK Imager can operate from a USB drive, thus preventing writes to suspect media.
C.FTK Imager can operate via a DOS boot disk, thus preventing writes to suspect media.
D.FTK Imager should always be used in conjunction with a hardware write protect device to prevent
writes to suspect media.
Answer: D

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NO.5 When using FTK Imager to preview a physical drive, which number is assigned to the first logical
volume of an extended partition?
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
Answer: D

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NO.1 A simple system comprises of the following memory map:
Flash - 0x0 to 0x7FFF
RAM - 0x10000 to 0X17FFF
When conforming to the ABI, which of the following is a suitable initial value for the stack pointer?
A. Top address of RAM (0x18000)
B. Top address of flash (0x8000)
C. Bottom address of RAM (0x10000)
D. Bottom address of flash (0x0000)
Answer: A

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NO.2 A standard performance benchmark is being run on a single core ARM v7-A processor. The
performance results reported are significantly lower than expected. Which of the following options
is a possible explanation?
A. L1 Caches and branch prediction are disabled
B. The Embedded Trace Macrocell (ETM) is disabled
C. The Memory Management Unit (MMU) is enabled
D. The Snoop Control Unit (SCU) is disabled
Answer: A

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NO.3 What view in a debugger displays the order in which functions were called?
A. The Call Stack view
B. The Memory view
C. The Registers view
D. The Variables view
Answer: A

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NO.4 When setting the initial location of the stack pointer and the base address of the heap, the
ARM EABI requires that the:
A. Base address of the heap must be the same as the initial stack pointer.
B. Stack pointer must be 8-byte aligned.
C. Heap must be in external RAM.
D. Initial stack pointer must be the lowest addressable memory location.
Answer: B

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NO.5 When the processor is executing in Thumb state, which of the following statements is correct
about the values stored in R15?
A. Bits[31:16] are duplicated with bits[15:0]
B. The PC value is stored in bits[31:1] and bit[0] is treated as zero
C. The PC value is stored in bits[31:16] and bits[15:0] are undefined
D. The PC value is stored in bits[15:0] and bits[31:16] are undefined
Answer: B

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NO.6 In an ARMv7-A processor, which control register is used to enable the Memory Management
Unit (MMU)?
A. The ACTLR
B. The SCTLR
C. The TTBCR
D. The CONTEXTIDR
Answer: B

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12. A simple method of measuring the performance of an application is to record the execution
time using the clock on the wall or a wristwatch.
When is this method INAPPROPRIATE?
A. When executing the software using a simulation model
B. When the processor is a Cortex-R4
C. When instruction tracing is enabled
D. When the processor is not executing instructions from cache
Answer: A

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NO.7 Printf statements could be used to achieve which of the following debug tasks?
A. Observe changes to a local variable in a function
B. Capture a real-time trace of program execution
C. Debug boot code, before a call to the C main() function
D. Stop the processor at an interesting location in the code
Answer: A

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NO.8 In a Cortex-A9 processor, when the Memory Management Unit (MMU) is disabled, which of
the following statements is TRUE? (VA is the virtual address and PA is the physical address)
A. VA == PA; No address translations; instructions and data are not cached
B. VA! = PA; No address translations; instructions may be cached but not data
C. VA == PA; Address translations take place; data may be cached but not instructions
D. VA == PA; No address translations; instructions may be cached but not data
Answer: D

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