2014年3月1日星期六

9A0-182 latest Adobe certification exam questions and answers published

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Exam Code: 9A0-182
Exam Name: Adobe (Flex 4.5 ACE Exam )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 96 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-01

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NO.1 When design pattern is used to define the passing of typed data between the client and remote server?
A. Mediator
B. Factory
C. Fa ade
D. Data transfer Object
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which statement describes the access rules for a variable marked as private?
A. Any class
B. Any class that extends the class
C. The class itself
D. Other classes in the same package
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are creating a custom component, MyComp based on the UIComponent class. What statement
correctly declares the MyComp class.?
A. Public class MyComp extend UIComponent 0
B. Public class MyComp implements UIComponent 0
C. Public class UIComponent as MyComp 0
D. Public class MyComp base UIComponent
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the return type of the E4X statement: imageData.image
A. XML
B. XMLList
C. String
D. Array
Answer: A

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NO.5 Given the following snippet var ac ArrayCollection = new ArrayCollection().
ac.addItem(0).
ac addItem(1).
ac addItem(2).
ac.addItem(3).
acaddItemAt(2.l).
var kuint = ac[1]
What is the value of k?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: B

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NO.6 You have created a Flex application that contains a custom component with the id of myComp The
Application class needs to be altered whenever a property named score is updated inside myComp.
Which approach should be used to implement this functionality while encapsulation?
A. myComp would dispatch a custom event when score is changed
B. The Application anon class would bind to the score property in myComp
C. The Application class would add an event listener to the control updating score in myComp
D. The score property would be changed to a public property
Answer: A

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NO.7 Given the following code:
user firstName = "Bruno";
Which declaration would enable you to set the firstName property as shown?
A. public functionsetFirstName (value String):void{}
B. public function getFirstName{}: String{}
C. public function get firstName():void{}
D. public function set firstName(value String):void{}
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which annotation is used in an ActionScript class to map it to a corresponding Java class
A. [RemoteObject]
B. [Bindable]
C. [RemoteClass]
D. [ClassMap]
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which statement describes ArrayList and ArrayCollection components?
A. Both ArrayList and ArrayCollection can be used as data providers for Spark list-based controls
B. ArrayList collection are sortable and filterable
C. When using an Array as a data provider for a Spark list-based control, it will automatically be wrapped
within ArrayList
D. ArrayList supports cursors, unlike ArrayCollection
Answer: A

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NO.10 Give the ActionScript class:
public class MyClass implements IResizable { }
What can be said about MyClass?
A. MyClass inherits all the functionality of the IResizable class
B. MyClass is the super class of the IResizable class
C. IResizable is the super class of MyClass
D. MyClass must have all methods defined in IResizable
Answer: D

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Exam Code: CRCM
Exam Name: IFPUG (CERTIFIED REGULATORY COMPLIANCE MANAGER (CRCM))
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Total Q&A: 463 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-01

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NO.1 They also embrace the concept of risk-based compliance management. They expect
compliance management to be tailored to the bank, be it large or small, offering standard
or specialty financial services, simple or complex products lines, and adjusted as
appropriate for the customer base as that issued for the Bank Secrecy Act, also
establishes their expectations that a bank’s program be risk based. Who are they?
A. Outsourcing firms
B. Foreign financial service providers
C. Bank regulatory agencies
D. Risk management organizations
Answer: C

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NO.2 should include basic elements designed to understand and mitigate risk.
It usually includes:
Written program
Compliance-related policies and procedures
A. Tactical Compliance procedure
B. Rank solution
C. Compliance program
D. None of these
Answer: C

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NO.3 To be effective, compliance risk management professionals must design a framework to
ensure that bank management understands the risks and the steps that must be taken to
mitigate them. The many roles compliance professionals fill incorporate risk management
aspects including:
A. Coordinating regulatory exams to explain risks to examiners
B. Overseeing compliance training targeting higher risk areas
C. Tracking regulatory proposals and final rules to understand new risks
D. All of these
Answer: D

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NO.4 In a compliance program, tactical compliance procedures should be integrated into
business line procedures, such as how to deliver an Adverse Action Notice when an
application is declined. In this case:
A. Regulations should be applied consistently to procedures throughout the bank
B. Revisions to procedures should be based on compliance expertise and not mere editing
C. Providing solutions to mitigate any identified risk
D. Assisting business units in developing or revising policies and procedures to reflect
current regulatory requirements
Answer: A, B

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NO.5 A compliance professional’s responsibilities include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Understanding the business units operating environment and risk tolerance
B. Performing risk assessments with the assistance of business units to determine current
risk levels and risks associated with the bank’s products, lines of business, customers, and
locations, among other factors
C. Working with business units to ensure prompt corrective action for any detected errors
D. Assisting business lines with compliance training for employees, as needed
Answer: D

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Exam Code: BCP-420
Exam Name: BlackBerry (Maintaining BlackBerry Enterprise Server/Microsoft Exchange)
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Total Q&A: 102 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-01

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NO.1 Which three of the following services should be set to start manually on the standby instance of a
BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose three.)
A. BlackBerryMailStore Service
B. BlackBerry Synchronization Service
C. BlackBerry Policy Service
D. BlackBerry Router Service
E. BlackBerry Administration Service
F. BlackBerry Dispatcher Service
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 If the BlackBerry Policy Service were stopped, what impact would this have on a BlackBerry device user
who is trying to perform a wireless enterprise activation? (Choose one.)
A. Email messaging would be activated, the calendar and all organizer data items would be synchronized
B. Email messaging would be activated, the calendar would be wirelessly synchronized, and policies
would be applied
C. The activation would not begin because the policy cannot be applied
D. Email messaging would be activated, the calendar would not be synchronized, and policies would not
be applied until the user connects their BlackBerry device to their computer
E. The activation would not have begun because the activation email message did not arrive in the user
inbox.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which log file contains all the information regarding wireless calendar and mailbox application
interactions with the BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry Synchronization (SYNC)
B. BlackBerry Dispatcher (DISP)
C. BlackBerry Messaging Agent (MAGT)
D. Exchange Connector (CEXC)
E. BlackBerryMailStore Service (MAST)
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following is the first step that needs to be performed when attempting to assign a
BlackBerry device to an administrative user? (Choose one.)
A. Enable the user as a BlackBerry device user
B. Disable the user as an Administrative user
C. Select the messaging server and email address that should be associated to the Administrator account
D. Choose the BlackBerry PIN that should be assigned to the Administrator account
E. Choose the BlackBerry Enterprise Server that should be assigned to the Administrator account
Answer: A

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NO.5 If the BlackBerry Synchronization Service is stopped, what impact would this have on a BlackBerry
device user who is trying to perform a wireless enterprise activation? (Choose one.)
A. Email messaging would be activated, the calendar would wirelessly synchronize, and policies would be
applied to the BlackBerry device
B. Email messaging would be activated, policies would be applied to the BlackBerry device, and all
organizer data items would synchronize wirelessly
C. Policies would be applied however email messaging would not be activated
D. The user would not be able to begin the wireless activation unless the BlackBerry
Synchronization Service is started
E. Email messaging would be activated, policies would be applied to the BlackBerry device, and address
book items would be wirelessly synchronized
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which port is used for BlackBerry WLAN as well as BlackBerry Serial Bypass? (Choose one.)
A. 3101
B. 3201
C. 3501
D. 4101
E. 4201
Answer: D

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NO.7 If the BlackBerry Enterprise Server is having a problem communicating with a BlackBerry device user
mailbox, which is the first BlackBerryIf the BlackBerry Enterprise Server is having a problem
communicating with a BlackBerry device user? mailbox, which is the first BlackBerry Enterprise Server
component the system administrator should focus on when troubleshooting the issue? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerryMailStore Service
B. BlackBerry Dispatcher Service
C. Microsoft Outlook
D. BlackBerry Messaging Agent
E. BlackBerry Router Service
Answer: D

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NO.8 Under which of the following conditions will an automatic failover from the active to the standby
instance of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server occur? (Choose one.)
A. All items above the failover threshold of the active instance of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server are
unhealthy and all items above the promotion threshold of the standby instance of the BlackBerry
Enterprise Server are unhealthy
B. All items above the failover threshold of the active instance of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server are
healthy and at least one item above the promotion threshold of the standby instance of the BlackBerry
Enterprise Server is unhealthy
C. All items above the promotion threshold of the active instance of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server are
healthy and at least one item above the failover threshold of the standby instance of the BlackBerry
Enterprise Server is unhealthy
D. At least one item above the promotion threshold of the active instance of the BlackBerry Enterprise
Server is unhealthy and all items above the failover threshold of the standby instance of the BlackBerry
Enterprise Server are healthy
E. At least one item above the failover threshold of the active instance of the BlackBerry
Enterprise Server is unhealthy and all items above the promotion threshold of the standby
instance of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server are healthy
Answer: E

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NO.9 A BlackBerry device user reports that when trying to browse any website from the BlackBerry device,
the following error message is displayed: "HTTP 403, Forbidden." Which two of the following options
should be used when troubleshooting the error? (Choose two.)
A. Verify Push Access Control is allowed for the user and request the user clear the cache on the browser
B. Verify Pull Access Control and/or Proxy mappings are configured correctly
C. Review the BlackBerry MDS Connection Service (MDAT) logs to verify if more than one user is
affected and ensure the firewall/proxy is not blocking the user from browsing
D. Restart the BlackBerry MDS Connection Service and BlackBerry Policy Service and then have the
user try browsing again
E. Create a blank IT Policy and apply it to the user and then have the user try again
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 A BlackBerry device has gone missing. Assuming that the BlackBerry device radio is on, which two of
the following administrative actions can be carried out to ensure that none of the data can be read on the
BlackBerry device? (Choose two.)
A. Specify a new BlackBerry device and cancel the wireless service
B. Remove the BlackBerry device user account from the BlackBerry Administration Service Remove the
BlackBerry device user? account from the BlackBerry Administration Service
C. Remove the BlackBerry device association and lock the BlackBerry device
D. Disable and erase data from the BlackBerry device
E. Specify a new BlackBerry device password and lock the BlackBerry device
Answer: D,E

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NO.11 All BlackBerry device users are reporting that email messages are delayed by 10-20 minutes to their
BlackBerry devices. Which three of the following should the system administrator check to resolve the
problem? (Choose three.)
A. That there is currently no maintenance being done on the Microsoft SQL Server that hosts the
BlackBerry Configuration Database
B. That there is currently no maintenance being done on any of the mail servers
C. How long it takes PIN messages to be delivered to users
D. Where the delay could be using the message receipt confirmation tool
E. Where the delay could be using the message flow tool
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.12 Which three of the following tools from the BlackBerry Resource Kit can a system administrator use to
help diagnose an email message delay issue for one or more BlackBerry device users? (Choose three.)
A. BlackBerry Message Flow Reporting (Messageflow.exe)
B. Message Receipt Confirmation (Messageconfirmconfig.exe)
C. BlackBerry Thread Analyzer (NoResponsecheck.exe)
D. BlackBerry Usage Monitoring Tool (OutOfCoverage.exe)
E. BlackBerry Enterprise Activation Status Reporting (eastatus.exe)
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.13 At which minimum level should a system administrator set a BlackBerry Enterprise Server service or
component log when investigating an issue? (Choose one.)
A. 1 - Error
B. 2 - Warning
C. 3 - Informational
D. 4 ?Debug
E. 5 ?Unknown
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which three of the following options are available in the BlackBerry Administration Service for enabling
high availability? (Choose three.)
A. Turn on Automatic Failover
B. Turn on Pooling
C. Turn on High Availability
D. Manual Failover
E. Turn on Automatic Connections Failover
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.15 Which two of the following options explain how active and standby instances of the BlackBerry
Enterprise Server are able to connect to the BlackBerry Infrastructure when both instances of the
BlackBerry Enterprise Server are running? (Choose two.)
A. The active instance of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server will initiate a tentative connection to the
BlackBerry Infrastructure.
B. The active and standby instances of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server will both establish a connection
to the BlackBerry Infrastructure.
C. The standby instance of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server will establish a connection to the BlackBerry
Infrastructure only when the active instance of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server has failed.
D. The standby instance of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server will initiate a tentative connection to the
BlackBerry Infrastructure.
E. The standby instance of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server relies on the active instance of the
BlackBerry Enterprise Server's connection to the BlackBerry Infrastructure.
Answer: B,D

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NO.16 After purchasing a used BlackBerry 6230 device, a BlackBerry device user reports that the BlackBerry
device does not display the option to begin the activation process after the system administrator has
configured the user for wireless enterprise activation. What should the system administrator do to resolve
this issue? (Choose one.)
A. Have the user perform a security wipe
B. Have the user delete and then restore the Desktop [SYNC] service book
C. BlackBerry 6230 devices cannot be wirelessly activated, the user will have to get a new
BlackBerry device
D. Verify that the BlackBerry device is running BlackBerry Device Software 4.0 or later
E. Integrate the email account on the BlackBerry Internet Service
Answer: D

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NO.17 The BlackBerry Monitoring Service can send notifications using which three of the following methods?
(Choose three.)
A. Phone (VoIP)
B. Email message
C. PIN message
D. SMS message
E. Instant Messaging
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.18 Which of the following default host and port combinations will a system administrator need to browse
to in order to configure the BlackBerry Monitoring Service? (Choose one.)
A. https://<servername>:8443/webconsole/app
B. https://<servername>/webconsole/app
C. http://<servername>/webconsole/app
D. http://<servername>:8080/webconsole/app
E. https://<servername>:7443/webconsole/app
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which IT administration option could a system administrator use to remotely change the password on a
BlackBerry device user's BlackBerry device? (Choose one.)
A. Specify Activation Password
B. Clear Activation Password
C. Resend IT Policy to Device
D. Specify New Password and Lock Device
E. You can remotely set the BlackBerry password
Answer: B

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NO.20 What could block an email message that has been delivered to the user mailbox from reaching the
BlackBerry device? (Choose one.)What could block an email message that has been delivered to the
user? mailbox from reaching the BlackBerry device? (Choose one.)
A. Reconciliation settings
B. SPAM blocker
C. Anti-virus quarantine
D. Email message filters
E. Synchronization settings
Answer: D

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Exam Code: BCP-521
Exam Name: BlackBerry (Integrating the BlackBerry MVS SIP Gateway Solution)
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Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-01

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NO.1 When an external caller calls an MVS user, the MVS user's BlackBerry smartphone fails to ring.
The MVS user is provisioned for BlackBerry device-initiated calling.
What is the likely cause of this failure? (Choose one.)
A. DTMF digits were rejected by the PBX as an invalid number
B. BlackBerry MVS Client did not create the call request
C. BlackBerry MVS Client did not receive the proper ANI number
D. BlackBerry MVS Client did not receive the call request
Answer: D

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NO.2 During a BlackBerry MVS installation, an MVS administrator is prompted to enter a MVS Data Manager
Hostname or IP Address.
Which IP Address value should this be? (Choose one.)
A. PBX
B. Serverwhere MVS is being installed
C. BlackBerry Enterprise Server
D. BlackBerry Configuration Database server
Answer: B

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NO.3 If the MVS BlackBerry Enterprise Server Connector is NOT started, what effect will this have on
BlackBerry MVS Services? (Choose one.)
A. Incoming MVS calls will be available
B. Outgoing MVS calls will be available
C. Message Waiting Indicator will be disabled
D. MVS work line will be unregistered
Answer: D

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NO.4 A BlackBerry MVS customer needs to provision a group of BlackBerry MVS users so they will be able to
use BlackBerry MVS in a Voice over Wi-Fi only mode.
Which two tasks should the MVS administrator perform to provide the customer with this capability?
(Choose two.)
A. Within the MVS users settings configuration, set When Wi-Fi is unavailable, use Mobile to NO
B. Within the MVS users settings configuration, set Default line for outgoing calls to Voice over Wi-Fi
C. Within the Class of Service configuration, select the VoWi-Fi check box
D. Within the Class of Service configuration, disable User may change the default network for BlackBerry
MVS calls
E. Within the Class of Service configuration, enable User may change the default network for BlackBerry
MVS calls
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 A customer with an Avaya PBX infrastructure is interested in purchasing BlackBerry MVS. The
customer needs to deploy BlackBerry MVS using a TDM configuration. The PBX environment includes
the Avaya components listed below.
Avaya S8730 Media Server configured for High Availability
Avaya Communication Manager 5.2
Avaya G650 Media Gateways
Which component does the customer need to facilitate the BlackBerry MVS integration? (Choose one.)
A. Dialogic Media Gateway
B. AudioCodes Mediant Gateway
C. Avaya Aura Session Manager
D. Avaya SIP Enablement Server
Answer: B

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NO.6 A European company has integrated its Avaya Communication Manager to the AudioCodes Mediant
Gateway with an E1 interface.
Which E1 signaling protocol is required.? (Choose one.)
A. SIP
B. CAS
C. QSIG
D. 5ESS
Answer: C

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NO.7 DTMF tones are blocked from reaching the SIP Gateway. How will this affect MVS users? (Choose
one.)
A. Calls over the Wi-Fi network will fail
B. Calls over the mobile network will fail
C. BlackBerry MVS Client will show as unregistered
D. DTMF tones will not be recognized on a conference bridge
Answer: B

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NO.8 An IP-to-IP solution has just been configured. There are two Proxy Sets in the configuration. What two
entities do the Proxy Sets represent? (Choose two.)
A. BlackBerryMVS Server
B. BlackBerryDispatcher
C. Vendor Media Gateway
D. Vendor IP PBX
E. BlackBerry Router
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 What is the minimum number of BlackBerry MVS Servers needed to support 14,000 users in a High
Availability environment? (Choose one.)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is the way to test the Add Participant to a Call feature for an individual MVS user without
impacting existing users if most features are disabled during installation? (Choose one.)
A. Create a new template
B. Create a new Feature Set
C. Create a new Class of Service
D. Create a new Telephony Connector
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which of the following describe situations when MySQL generates warnings?
A. When it is not able to completely fulfill a request.
B. When a system-level error occurs.
C. When an action has possible unintended side-effects.
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Which of the following best describes how a column prefix index works and why its an advantage?
A. A Column prefix allows for a shorter index, making it read less from disk,
B. A Column prefix allows for a shorter index name, making less code to be written.
C. A Column prefix is another name for a left-most prefix, which is usefully with multi-column indexes.
Answer: A

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NO.3 For maximum efficiency in join operations of one column from each of two tables, which of the following
statements regarding indexes are true?
A. In a LEFT JOIN such as table1 LEFT JOIN table2 ON table1 .a = table2.b, the column b in table2
should always be indexed
B. A LEFT JOIN would not benefit from either of the participating columns being indexed
C. In an INNER JOIN, either, but not both, columns participating in the join should be indexed
D. In an INNER JOIN, both columns participating in the join should be indexed
E. An INNER JOIN would not benefit from either of the participating columns being indexed F. In a LEFT
JOIN such as table 1 LEFT JOIN table2 ON table 1 .a = table2.b, the column a in table 1should always be
indexed
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 Using column prefix indexing helps reduce
A. The amount of time to write a query
B. The number of results returned
C. The amount of disk I/O needed
D. The amount of disk space needed
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 Which of the following best describes the major trade-offs for MylSAM fixed-length types vs.
variable-length types, respectively?
A. Fixed-length are slower, but require less disk space, as variable-length are faster, but require more disk
space.
B. Fixed-length are faster and require less disk space, as variable-length are slower and require more
disk space.
C. Fixed-length are faster, but require more disk space, as variable-length are slower, but require less disk
space.
D. Fixed-length are slower and require more disk space, as variable-length are faster and require less
disk space.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following are valid optimization techniques?
A. Rewrite queries to use indexes
B. Use EXPLAIN
C. Use ORDER BY
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 Which of the following is a valid method to restrict the amount of records returned from SHOW
WARNINGS.?
A. SHOW WARNINGS LIMIT
B. SHOW WARNINGS LIMIT
C. limit can not be used with show warnings
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 Which of the following statements are true?
A. The MylSAM storage engine should be preferred when you expect many reads and few updates to
occur
B. The MylSAM storage engine should be preferred when you expect a mix of many reads and many
updates to occur
C. The InnoDB storage engine should be preferred when you expect many reads and few updates to
occur
D. The InnoDB storage engine should be preferred when you expect a mix of many reads and many
updates to occur
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 When executing multi-row operations, what should be the first thing you look for to see if anything
unexpected happened?
A. Warning/Error Count.
B. Warning/Error Codes.
C. Warning/Error messages.
Answer: A

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statement?
A. An error would be returned, as this is not valid syntax.
B. The number of current warnings would be returned.
C. The total number of warnings server-wide would be returned
Answer: B

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NO.1 For which of the following events is the moving average cost recalculated?
A.Stock entry.
B.Stock release.
C.Completion of a production order.
D.Purchase order submission.
Answer:A B C D

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NO.2 How is the available quantity calculated in SAP Business One?
A.Quantity in stock - quantity committed + quantity ordered.
B.Quantity in stock + quantity committed - quantity ordered.
C.Quantity in stock + quantity ordered.
D.Quantity in stock - quantity committed.
Answer:A

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NO.3 Kathryn from Roses and Sunflowers gift shop creates a purchase order for an item, which is out of
stock. The current stock level for the item is zero. There are no open purchase orders or sales orders for
this item. After she has selected the item in the purchase order, she notices that there is a 4 in the
'Quantity' field. Why?
A.The value in the 'Items per Purchase Unit' field on the 'Purchasing Data' tab is 4.
B.The value in the 'Factor 2' field on the 'Purchasing Data' tab is 4.
C.The value in the 'Required (Purchasing UoM) Inventory Level' field is 4.
D.The value in the 'Quantity Per Packaging Unit' field on the 'Purchasing Data' tab is 4.
Answer:A B C D

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NO.4 Sophie created a query and now wants to print a report from the query. What must Sophie do before
she can print the query results?
A.Link her query to a base template using the Query Manager.
B.Link her query to a base template using the Print Layout Designer.
C.Link her query to a base template using the Query Print Layout tool.
D.Link her query to a base template using the Query Generator.
Answer:A

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NO.5 What functions are available in the Human Resources module of SAP Business One?
A.Payroll processing
B.Shift planning
C.Employee master data
D.Recording and evaluation of absences
E.Tracking of employee costs and salaries
Answer:A B C D E

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NO.6 Which elements of a query are optional when you create a query with the Query Wizard?
A.Conditions
B.Table entries
C.Field entries
D.Grouping
E.Sorting
Answer:A B C D E

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NO.7 Which statements are correct regarding inventory valuation methods?
A.With moving average cost valuation, stock is valued by dividing the total value by the total quantity.
B.With moving average cost valuation, you must enter a cost price into the item master record.
C.With standard cost valuation, stock may need to be periodically revalued.
D.With first in - first out valuation, stock is valued using the cost of the oldest item.
E.With first in - first out valuation, stock is valued using the cost of the most recent item.
Answer:A B C D E

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NO.8 Sophie created a user-defined query and linked a template to it using the query print layout function.
After she designed the template she realized that she needs to add an additional column of data to the
report. Can Sophie add new columns to the existing report?
A.No. Since Sophie can only change static report information and cannot add database fields to the
matrix data, she must create a new query and assign it to a new print template.
B.No. Once Sophie has assigned the template to the query, she cannot make any changes to any field in
the report.
C.Yes. Sophie can add new columns to the report by creating a new database field in the repetitive area
of the linked template.
D.Yes. Sophie can create a new column in the template, and since it is linked to the query, it will update
the original template and the matrix data automatically.
Answer:A

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NO.9 I want to create a query to display all the invoices over $1500 issued for a specific customer by one of
my sales employees Sara Chang. How do I find which fields I should enter in the SQL query?
A.When you hold down the Ctrl key and click the mouse on a field you want to display, the table and field
name will appear at the bottom of the screen.
B.When you click the mouse on a field you want to display and choose View -> System information, the
table and field name will appear at the bottom of the screen in the Status Bar.
C.Open the Query Wizard because it automatically enters the table and field names in the SQL query.
D.Use the Query Generator because it automatically enters the table and field names in the SQL query,
after you click the mouse on a field you want to display.
Answer:B

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NO.10 You are reviewing the details of a user-defined query and notice the strings: [%1], [%2], and [%3]. What
is the function of these strings in a query?
A.The string [%0] is a variable used to create a query. Each variable is unique, so if more than one
variable is defined, each requires a unique name such as: [%1], [%2].
B.The strings: [%1], [%2], and [%3] represent fixed values in the query.
C.The strings: [%1], [%2], and [%3] are conditions you can see displayed in the Conditions column in the
Query Generator.
D.The strings: [%1], [%2], and [%3] are fields from the OITM table which you can retrieve from either the
Query Generator or Query Wizard.
Answer:A

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NO.11 I add a new Sales Opportunity for a business partner. I do not want to issue any documents to this
partner at the moment. However, I would like to link this opportunity to a Quotation that I issued for
another business partner in the past. Is this possible?
A.Access the sales opportunity and choose the Stages tab. Select 'Sales Quotation' as the document type,
then select a quotation from another business partner.
B.Access the sales opportunity and enter the code of the other business partner as the 'Partner'. You can
now link any quotation issued to that business partner to your opportunity.
C.You can only link activities directly to the sales opportunity.
D.You can only link a sales opportunity to a quotation for the same business partner.
Answer:A

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NO.12 The sales manager at Gali Sport is confused by the different prices that can be related to a customer:
price lists and special prices. He needs to understand how the system calculates prices in sales
documents. Which answer below reflects the order in which the system looks for the correct price?
A.1) Special prices for the customer 2) Discount groups linked to the business partner 3) Period and
volume discounts defined for the price list and linked to the business partner 4) The price list specified in
the business partner master data
B.1) Discount groups 2) Special prices for the customer 3) Period and volume discounts for the price list
linked to the business partner 4) The default price list for the customer
C.1) The default price list for the document 2) Discount groups tied to the document 3) Special prices for
the customer
D.1) Customer special prices 2) Discount groups 3) Period and volume discounts defined for the price list
linked to the document 4) Price list defined for the document
Answer:A

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NO.13 Every day my employees run a query to check how many orders we have issued on that day and what
their value was. I have created a simple query using the Orders table (ORDR): Document Number,
Document Date, Document Total Where Document Date EQUAL 01/05/07 (for example). How can I
create a "general" query so I do not have to go into this query statement every day to change the date in
the "Where" condition area?
A.Define a variable in the "Where" condition area of the formula: Document Date EQUAL '[%0]' then save
the query. Each time you run it, the system will prompt you to enter the desired date.
B.Delete the condition from the query. Create a general query that will display all the orders created in the
system to date. When the report displays, use the Sort Table to display the desired data.
C.Define a variable in the "Where" condition area of the formula: Document Date NOT EQUAL '[%0]' then
save the query. Each time you run it, the system will prompt you to enter the desired date.
D.Define a variable in the "Group By" condition area of the formula: Document Date EQUAL '[%3]' then
save the query.
Answer:A

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NO.14 Our purchasing manager would like to see a weekly report that lists stock items that fall below a critical
point. What is the easiest way of doing this?
A.In the inventory data of the item, enter the minimum required inventory level. Whenever employees post
a goods issue that brings the stock below this threshold, they need to send an email message to the
purchasing manager.
B.In the warehouse data of the item, enter the minimum required inventory level and activate the
predefined alert 'Minimum Stock Deviation' that will inform the purchasing manager whenever stock falls
below this threshold.
C.Create a query that lists all the items with inventory below the minimum level and link this query to a
user-defined alert. Specify the required frequency, click the checkbox to make the alert active, and make
sure you select the purchasing manager as the receiver.
D.In the document settings, set the 'When Attempting to Release Stock Below the Minimum Level'
indicator. Whenever an employee posts a goods issue that brings the stock below this threshold, the
purchasing manager automatically receives a message.
Answer:C

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NO.15 A company issues a large number of deliveries on a monthly basis. The company's sales manager
wants to know the fastest way to produce invoices based on these deliveries. What would you
recommend?
A.Use the Document Generation Wizard. Select A/R Invoice as the target document and Deliveries as the
base document. Select all deliveries for the relevant month.
B.Use the Dunning Wizard. Select A/R Invoice as the document type. Use the posting date to select all
deliveries for the relevant month.
C.Use the Document Generation Wizard. Select A/R Invoices as the base document and Delivery as the
target document. Select all deliveries for the relevant month.
D.Use the Payment Wizard. Select Deliveries as the base document and A/R Invoice as the target
document. Use the posting date to select relevant deliveries.
Answer:A

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NO.16 The following statements relate to the analysis of sales opportunities. Which statements are correct?
A.Use the Opportunity Statistics Report to analyze entered, open, and closed opportunities in the system.
B.To get an overview of the progress of all sales opportunities, use the Stage Analysis report.
C.The Opportunities Forecast Report only takes account of completed opportunities.
D.Open opportunities are not included in the Opportunity Pipeline analysis.
E.A sales manager can use selection criteria in "My Open Opportunities Report" to view sales
opportunites for any of his direct reports.
Answer:A B C D E

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NO.17 You want to show your customer which documents relate to each other in SAP Business One. Which
of these statements is correct?
A.When you display a document, you can use the base and target document icons to display a document
flow.
B.From the document, drill down to the business partner master data and choose Document Flow.
C.Use Drag Relate to display which documents are related to each other.
D.You can branch from the display of a document to its history. There you find a chronological list of all
base and target documents.
Answer:A

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NO.18 The sales manager wants to be informed whenever a customer exceeds his credit limit. However, he
does not want the sales process to be blocked when he is not available. What do you recommend?
A.Activate and configure the predefined alert function 'Deviation from Credit Limit' so that the sales
manager gets informed automatically.
B.Activate and configure the predefined approval procedure 'Deviation from Credit Limit' so that the sales
manager gets informed automatically.
C.Restrict the general authorization to confirm credit line deviations to the sales manager.
D.Activate and configure a user-defined alert when a customer exceeds the credit limit. The alert goes to
each sales person and they can save the sales document as a draft.
Answer:A

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NO.19 PKJ Ltd maintains its price list automatically based on last purchase price. When PKJ sells a product,
they want to add their overhead of 40% to the sales price. How can they accomplish this?
A.Create a Customer price list based on the Last Purchase price list, select all the prices and increase
them by 40%.
B.Create a Customer price list and enter the sales prices.
C.Create a Customer price list based on the Last Purchase price list with a factor of 1.4.
D.In the business partner master data, select the Last Purchase price list and specify a premium of 40%.
Answer:C

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NO.20 What are the advantages of query print layouts as opposed to standard queries?
A.You can adjust the template of the query print layouts.
B.You can add sub-sorts and sub-totals using the print layout designer.
C.Query print layouts can be based on several queries.
D.Authorization administration for query print layouts is simpler.
E.You can standardize your report layouts by using a customized base template, for example, with the
company logo, for all the reports.
Answer:A B C D E

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Exam Code: C_BOSUP_90
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Support Associate - Incident Management with SAP BusinessObjects)
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Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-01

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NO.1 What type of reports can be produced with SAP EarlyWatch Alert?
A. Reports exclusively with graphics
B. Reports with animations
C. Reports with or without graphics
D. Reports exclusively without graphics
Answer: C

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NO.2 What can the processor use in the Service Desk for message processing? (Choose two)
A. CRM_DNO_MONITOR transaction within SAP GUI
B. Transaction INCMAN
C. Business Process Monitoring Work Center
D. Incident Management Work Center
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 What is SAP EarlyWatch Check?
A. It is a fully automatically generated report.
B. It is a document that customers follow to check their platform.
C. It is a service delivered onsite.
D. It is a service delivered remotely.
Answer: D

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NO.4 How can you find the Root Cause Analysis within SAP Solution Manager?
A. Use the appropriate work center transaction code.
B. Fill in the search box with keyword Root Cause Analysis.
C. Open a new application with default settings.
D. Use the left side menu.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the Software Developer Network (SDN)?
A. The Software Developer Network (SDN) is a portal containing information about code strategy for third
party products.
B. The Software Developer Network (SDN) is a portal containing robust and complete information about
the underlying code of the SAP Product suite.
C. The Software Developer Network (SDN) is a portal containing robust and complete collection of
content and collaboration dedicated to SAP technology.
D. The Software Developer Network (SDN) is a tool that is available only to the SAP developer team to
brainstorm solutions for code level issues.
Answer: C

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NO.6 You receive a customer message where several issues are reported.
What will be your next step?
A. Ask the customer to create one message per issue.
B. Ask your colleagues for processing this message.
C. Solve all issues in the message, because it is beneficial for customers to report several issues in one
message.
D. Start message processing without contacting the customer.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What characterizes On the Job Enablement sessions?
A. They are workshops coordinated by the Partner Services Adviser (PSA).
B. They are open workshops.
C. They are not available to Channel partners.
D. They are chargeable add-ons.
Answer: A

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NO.8 The customer has an error that can be reproduced on their system.
How do you proceed to investigate this issue?
A. The customer is no longer entitled to support since they have caused a fault in the system.
B. Ask the customer to use a different system since this installation is experiencing issues.
C. Ask the customer to document the workflow step by step so that you can attempt to reproduce the
issue on your internal system.
D. The customer's system has the fault therefore you only need to use their system for further
investigation and testing.
Answer: C

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NO.9 What does priority in incident management mean?
A. It is an attribute of the customer's system.
B. It is an attribute that characterizes the urgency of an issue.
C. It is an attribute of the Service Desk.
D. It defines the importance of the customer for SAP.
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is the recommended way to progress a message that is difficult to clarify?
A. Escalate the message immediately to a more senior support consultant.
B. Ask the client to provide screenshots and request information point by point.
C. Change the message status to Customer Action and tell the client that you cannot do much until more
information is provided.
D. Force the client to close the message and open a new one that is clearer.
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is the characteristic of a system when defined as a subset of the installation in SAP systems.?
(Choose two)
A. A system corresponds to production, test AND development environment.
B. A system is identified using a system ID.
C. One system can be a child to multiple installations.
D. A system corresponds to either production, test OR development environment.
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 What is Product Support Hierarchy in SAP environment? (Choose two)
A. It is an instrument in organization and reporting within Product Support.
B. It defines the maintenance pricing level.
C. It is a view on the Application Component Hierarchy.
D. It is part of the Service Level Agreement.
Answer: A,C

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NO.13 As an SAP partner you have implemented SAP Solution Manager.
Which of the following statements reflects the requirements with regards to SAP Solution Manager
installation on the customer site?
A. Customers do not require their own SAP Solution Manager installation.
B. Customers require their own installation of SAP Solution Manager.
C. Customers and partner need to have SAP Solution Manager clustered.
D. Customers need to install SAP Solution Manager and the partner needs to connect to it.
Answer: A

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NO.14 What does Mission-Critical Support within SAP Enterprise Support include? (Choose two)
A. Ramp-up support
B. Robust Service Level Agreements (SLA)
C. 7 x 24 root cause analysis
D. SAP system backup
Answer: B,C

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NO.15 If you want to add an SAP or non-SAP system to your landscape, which transaction do you need to
run?
A. SOLMAN_WORKCENTER
B. MSY_SETUP
C. SMSY_SETUP
D. SMSY
Answer: D

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