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Exam Code: 070-450
Exam Name: Microsoft (PRO:MS SQL Serv 08,Design,Optimize, and Maintain DB Admin Solu)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 125 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-02

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NO.1 You administer a SQL Server 2008 Reporting Services (SSRS) instance.
You plan to design an authentication method for SSRS reports that use SQL Server data connections.
You need to ensure that all SSRS reports communicate to the SQL Server instance by using the Kerberos
authentication protocol.
What should you do?
A. Configure the default Web site on the instance to use the Integrated Security type.
B. Configure the application pool used by the default Web site to use a domain account.
C. Configure the default Web site on the instance to use the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) protocol.
D. Register a service principal name (SPN) in the Active Directory directory service for the SSRS
instance.
Answer: D

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NO.2 You administer a SQL Server 2008 instance.
You deploy a new database named Engineering. The Engineering database manages large documents
that will be revised occasionally.
You need to design a table structure that allows fast read access. You also need to minimize storage
space requirements.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Use NTFS file system compression on the volume.
B. Use row-level compression on the document table.
C. Use varbinary(MAX) data type with FILESTREAM storage.
D. Enable row-level compression on all columns that use the vardecimal() data type.
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 You administer a SQL Server 2008 instance that will host a new database application.
You plan to design the security requirements for the application. Each application user has a unique login
to the SQL Server 2008 server.
The application database contains stored procedures to execute stored procedures in the MSDB
database.
The stored procedures in the MSDB database schedule SQLAgent jobs.
You need to ensure that the stored procedures in the MSDB database are executed by using the security
context of the application user.
What should you do?
A. Add each user to the public role in the MSDB database.
B. Add each user to the db_dtsltduser database role in the MSDB database.
C. Configure the new database to use the TRUSTWORTHY option, and then add each user to the MSDB
database.
D. Configure the MSDB database to use the TRUSTWORTHY option, and then add each user to the
MSDB database.
Answer: C

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NO.4 You administer a SQL Server 2008 instance.
You plan to deploy a new database that has the following capacity requirements:
275.GB for the database data file
50 GB for the transaction log file
The storage array has six 100-GB disk drives available for the database. The disks are attached to a
redundant array of independent disks (RAID) controller that supports RAID levels 0, 1, 5, and 10.
The write performance of the transaction log needs to be maximized. The database and transaction log
files must be protected in the event of a drive failure.
You need to design the storage system.
Which storage configuration should you use?
A. A single RAID 5 volume
B. A single RAID 10 volume
C. A RAID 0 volume and a RAID 5 volume
D. A RAID 1 volume and a RAID 5 volume
Answer: D

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NO.5 You administer SQL Server 2008 servers on a single site.
The site contains the following two SQL Server 2008 instances:
An Enterprise Edition server on a server that has a redundant array of independent disks (RAID) 10 disk
system
A Standard Edition server on a server that has a RAID 5 disk system
Each instance hosts a single application.
You need to recommend a high-availability solution for the site to meet the following business
requirements:
The solution can be implemented on the existing systems.
The database is available with minimal downtime.
Data loss is minimal.
There is minimal effect on the existing system.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
Choose two.)
A. Replication
B. Log shipping
C. Failover clustering
D. Database snapshot
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 You administer a SQL Server 2008 instance.
The instance is located on a four-processor, quad-core server. The server frequently experiences CPU
pressure.
The instance contains a very large mission-critical database that is used continuously.
You need to ensure that online index rebuilds do not consume all available CPU cycles.
Which configuration option should you use.?
A. affinity mask
B. affinity I/O mask
C. max degree of parallelism
D. optimize for ad hoc workloads
Answer: C

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NO.7 You administer SQL Server 2008 instances at three sites.
All sites share a mission-critical database. The business requirements specify that users at each site must
be able to perform the following tasks:
Access and modify data on all sites with minimal latency.
Minimize data loss in the event of a server failure.
You need to provide a high-availability solution that meets the business requirements.
Which solution should you implement?
A. Failover clustering
B. Peer-to-Peer replication
C. Asynchronous database mirroring without a witness server
D. Log shipping to servers at two of the sites to provide read-only copies of data
Answer: B

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NO.8 You administer a SQL Server 2008 instance.
The instance hosts a database that is used by a Web-based application. The application processes
15,000 transactions every minute.
A table in the database contains a column that is used only by the application. This column stores
sensitive data.
You need to store the sensitive data in the most secure manner possible. You also need to ensure that
you minimize the usage of memory space and processor time.
Which encryption type should you use?
A. Symmetric key encryption
B. Asymmetric key encryption
C. Certificate-based encryption
D. Transparent data encryption
Answer: A

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NO.9 You administer a SQL Server 2008 infrastructure.
An instance runs on a computer that has eight quad-core processors and 128-GB RAM. Four different
applications use the instance.
The instance experiences a low number of CXPACKET waits. The instance also experiences a large
number of lazy writer waits.
You need to optimize the performance of the instance.
What should you do?
A. Configure the Resource Governor.
B. Configure the Windows System Resource Manager.
C. Configure software non-uniform memory access (soft-NUMA).
D. Configure an increase in the maximum degree of parallelism option.
Answer: C

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NO.10 You administer a SQL Server 2008 instance. The instance hosts a new database application.
You plan to design the data security strategy for the application. You will use Snapshot replication to
replicate the data to another instance of SQL Server 2008.
You need to ensure that all stored data is encrypted by using the least amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Enable encrypted connections between the instances.
B. Enable Transparent data encryption for the MSDB database on the two instances.
C. Enable Transparent data encryption for the Publisher, Distribution, and Subscriber databases.
D. Enable certificate-based encryption for the Publisher, Distribution, and Subscriber databases.
Answer: C

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NO.11 You administer a SQL Server 2008 instance.
You plan to design the security requirements for a new database application. The application uses a code
segment that contains the following components:
A method that accesses the registry on the SQL Server
A method that accesses the file system on a network file server
A class definition that uses public static fields
The code segment uses SQL CLR integration and is implemented as a single assembly.
You need to ensure that the application is successfully deployed to the instance.
What should you do?
A. Use the SAFE code access security for the assembly.
B. Replace all public static fields with public fields.
C. Replace all public static fields with public static read-only fields. Use the EXTERNAL_ACCESS code
access security for the assembly.
D. Replace all public static fields with public static read-only fields. Register the assembly by using the
regasm.exe utility before deployment.
Answer: C

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NO.12 You administer a SQL Server 2008 instance.
You plan to design the security requirements for a new database application that will be deployed to the
instance.
The new database contains a table that is created by using the following code segment:
CREATE TABLE EmpBonusPlan
(
EmployeeID INT NOT NULL IDENTITY(1,1),
NumOptions INT NOT NULL,
BaseSalary MONEY NOT NULL,
BonusPlan VARBINARY(MAX) FILESTREAM
)
You need to ensure that the BonusPlan column is protected from unauthorized access by using the most
secure method.
What should you do?
A. Use Transparent data encryption.
B. Use the Trustworthy option for the database.
C. Use the Advanced Encryption Standard encryption on all columns in the database.
D. Use the NTFS file system security and limit the access of the database files to the SQL Server 2008
Service account.
Answer: D

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NO.13 You administer a SQL Server 2008 instance.
You plan to deploy a third-party database application to the instance. The application uses stored
procedures that are developed by using SQL CLR integration.
The application must be configured to enable the EXTERNAL_ACCESS code access security setting.
You need to ensure that the application is deployed to the instance without loss of functionality.
What should you do first?
A. Replace read write non-static fields in the code with static fields.
B. Replace read-only static fields in the code with read write static fields.
C. Use the peverify.exe PEVerify tool to verify whether the code meets the type-safety requirements.
D. Use the regasm.exe assembly registration tool to register the assembly on the server before
deployment.
Answer: C

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NO.14 You administer a SQL Server 2008 instance.
The instance runs on a computer that has the following features:
A 64-GB RAM
Four quad-core processors
Several independent physical raid volumes
You plan to implement a transactional database on the instance. The database is expected to have a high
volume of INSERT, UPDATE, and DELETE activities. The activities include creation of new tables.
You need to optimize the performance of the database by maximizing disk bandwidth and reducing the
contention in the storage allocation structures.
What should you do?
A. Create multiple data files for the database.
B. Place database and log files on the same volume.
C. Configure the affinity mask option appropriately.
D. Configure the affinity I/O mask option appropriately.
Answer: A

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NO.15 You administer a SQL Server 2008 instance.
You plan to deploy a new database to the instance. The database will be subject to frequent inserts and
updates. The database will have multiple schemas. One of the schemas will contain a large amount of
read-only refrence data.
You need to design the physical database structure for optimal backup performance.
What should you do?
A. Create the database by using a single data file and a single log file.
B. Create the database by using a single data file and multiple log files.
C. Create the database by using a single log file and multiple filegroups.
D. Create the database by using a single log file and a filegroup that has multiple data files.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: I10-003
Exam Name: XML Master (XML Master Professional Database Administrator)
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Total Q&A: 39 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-01

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NO.1 Assume that perfect fidelity of a complete XML document is required in a certain XML
document.
Select the most suitable method for providing perfect XML document fidelity when storing an XML
document using the following methods.
Here "perfect XML document fidelity" means that an XML document retrieved from the XMLDB is
exactly the same as the original XML document prior to XMLDB insertion, completely identical
when compared using binary, including empty element notations, whitespace locations, etc.
A. Store the XML document as a model based on XPath 1.0
B. Store the XML document as a model based on XML Information Set (Infoset)
C. Store the XML document as a BLOB (Binary Large Object) type with no character encoding
method defined
D. Store the XML document as an NCLOB (National Character Large Object) type for which UTF-
8 has been defined as the character encoding method
Answer: C

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NO.2 Continuously check the data types for the values in the XML document, and search through
data using queries on the XML document
[Management Methods]
A) XML document file (text file) management via file system
B) Management via RDB (relational database), and program for storing data from an XML
document into the RDB (assume the RDB does not maintain an XML document tree structure)
C) Management via XMLDB, using XML Schema definitions
D) Management via XMLDB, without using XML Schema definitions
A. A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
B. A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
C. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
Answer: A

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4. Select which of the following is not a correct description regarding dynamic context defined by
XQuery 1.0.
A. Dynamic context is information that is available at the time the expression is evaluated
B. The dynamic context consists of all the components of the static context (default element/type
namespace, etc.), and additional components (context item, etc.)
C. The value of context size (one of the dynamic context components) can be obtained using the
"fn:last()" function
D. Query prolog cannot be used to set the value for any of the dynamic context components
Answer: D

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NO.3 Assume that you wish to improve the response time when executing the following [XQuery]
on a
certain XMLDB.
Which one of the answers below is not an appropriate point to be checked?
Assume that the XMLDB does not have any automated optimization functions related to the
answer choices.
A. Revise the [XQuery] expression
B. Revise the configuration of the relevant XML data index
C. Investigate the disk capacity size used by the XMLDB
D. Investigate the influence of any exclusive access controls performed by other processes when
executing the [XQuery]
Answer: C

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NO.4 Four separate operating requirements and four individual storage management methods for
XML
document data are listed below.
Considering the general characteristics, which individual management method ([Management
Methods]) combines most optimally with which requirement ([Operating Requirements])?
[Operating Requirements]
1. Retrieve a portion of the XML document according to values in the XML document
2. Identify the XML document by unique values, and retrieve the entire XML document
3. Perform aggregation and statistical calculations of the values in the XML document

NO.5 Assume that a certain XMLDB has an HTTP listener function, and can receive XML documents
via
HTTP protocol.
In this case, the XMLDB follows [Procedure] below to identify the character encoding method of
the XML document received.
[Procedure]
(1) If the XML document character encoding method can be determined from the HTTP request
header, process the XML document character encoding according to the HTTP request header
information.
(2) If the XML document character encoding method cannot be determined from the HTTP request
header, identify the character encoding from the XML document itself
Select which is correct as the identified character encoding resulting from the procedure above
when the XMLDB receives a well-formed XML document according to [Conditions] below. Assume
that the XMLDB follows RFC3023.
[Conditions]
The actual character encoding method for XML document is "UTF-16;" however, no XML
declaration is specified.
The HTTP request header defines "Content-Type: text/xml." however, the charset parameter is not
defined in this Content-Type header field.
A. US-ASCII
B. UTF-8
C. UTF-16
D. The character encoding method is determined from system locale, and is therefore
undetermined
Answer: A

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NO.1 An administrator is installing an ESX Host to boot from a SAN LUN. The storage array is an
active/passive array. After configuring the boot LUN and installing ESX, the system does not boot properly.
Which of the following could cause this issue?
A. The Storage Processor port specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is passive
B. The LUN specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is active
C. The Storage Processor port specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is active
D. The LUN specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is passive
Answer: A

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NO.2 An administrator is installing vCenter in a virtual machine. The selected database is Microsoft SQL
Server 2005. Which of the following actions must be taken before vCenter is installed (Choose Two)?
A. If the guest OS has MSXML Core Services 6.0 installed, it must be removed
B. The Microsoft SQL Native Client should be removed
C. The Microsoft SQL Server Client should be removed
D. If the guest OS is Windows XP, MDAC 2.8 SP1 must be applied
Answer: AD

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NO.3 Creating which of the following optional partitions would change the default partition size for /?
A. /tmp
B. /home
C. /var/log
D. /usr
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following would prevent the application of a Host Profile to an ESX Host (Choose Two)?
A. The host is an ESXi Host
B. The host has not been placed into Maintenance Mode
C. The host has multiple profiles attached
D. The host is an ESX 3.5 Host
Answer: BD

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NO.5 What is the proper LUN Masking configuration for LUNs presented to an ESX Host when using the
Boot from SAN option?
A. The Boot LUN should be masked so that only one ESX Host can see the LUN, while the datastore
LUNS should be masked so that all ESX Hosts can see the LUNs
B. The Boot LUN and datastore LUNS should be masked so that all ESX Hosts can see the LUNs
C. The Boot LUN should be masked so that all ESX Hosts can see the LUN, while the datastore LUNS
should be masked so that only one ESX Host can see the LUNs
D. The Boot LUN and datastore LUNS should be masked so that only one ESX Host can see the LUNs
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following is a benefit of ESXi over ESX?
A. Improved Fault Isolation
B. Increased Security and Reliability
C. Dynamic Resource Allocation
D. Memory Overcommitment
Answer: B

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NO.7 An ESX Administrator plans to install additional supported components on the ESX Server that would
increase the memory requirements for the Service Console. Which ESX Server partition would also need
to be increased during as a result?
A. /
B. vmfs3
C. swap
D. /boot
Answer: C

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NO.8 An administrator is installing vCenter. The selected database is Oracle 11g. Which of the following
steps are required to configure the database for use with vCenter (Choose Two)?
A. Use a Script to Create the Oracle Database Schema
B. Use a Script to Create a Local or Remote Database
C. Configure an Oracle Database User
D. Configure an Oracle Connection for Local or Remote Access
Answer: CD

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NO.9 An administrator is installing ESX 4.0 on a physical server. Which of the following components would
need to be modified or replaced to support a successful ?
A. 4 Intel PRO 1000 Network Adapters
B. 2 LSI Logic LSI7202XP-LC Fibre Channel HBAs
C. 2 AMD Opteron CPUs
D. 4GB RAM
Answer: B

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NO.10 An administrator is checking a HA/DRS Cluster for Compliance. Which of the following occurs if a host
profile is not attached to the cluster.?
A. The compliance check asks for a valid host profile
B. The compliance check uses the default Datacenter host profile
C. The compliance check generates an error
D. The cluster is checked for specific HA, DRS and DPM cluster requirements
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following are modules that are not pre-installed and must be added to a vCenter
(Choose Three)?
A. VMware vCenter Converter
B. VMware vCenter Guided Consolidation
C. VMware vCenter Orchestrator
D. VMware vCenter Update Manager
E. VMware vCenter Storage Monitoring
Answer: ABD

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NO.12 Which of the following are benefits of ESXi over ESX (Choose Two)?
A. RCLI support
B. Scripted
C. Smaller Attack Surface
D. Less Code to Patch
Answer: CD

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NO.13 Which of the following are valid methods of creating a Host Profile (Choose Two)?
A. Create a profile using the Profile Editor
B. Create a profile from an existing ESX 4 Host
C. Import a profile from an existing .vpf file
D. Clone a profile from an existing profile
Answer: BC

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NO.14 Which of the following are valid sub-profile configurations that may be edited with the Host Profile editor
(Choose Three)?
A. Advanced
B. Virtual Machine Options
C. Security
D. Memory Reservation
E. CPU Reservation
Answer: ACD

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NO.15 When configuring the Oracle Connection to work remotely with vCenter Server, which of the following
is required (Choose Two)?
A. The tnsnames.ora file must be edited with the managed host name
B. The TNS Service Name option must be configured in the ODBC DSN
C. Use the Net8 Conf iguration Utility to add the service name
D. Add the entry open_cursors = 300 to the C:.ora file
Answer: AB

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NO.16 What are two reasons why a company would choose to use VMware ESXi instead of using VMware
Server 2? (Choose Two)
A. The company wants to be able to patch the servers hosting their virtual machines with zero virtual
machine downtime
B. The company is virtualizing several physical servers and wants a centralized management option
C. The company needs to access their virtual machines remotely and VMware Server 2 does not support
a remote console option
D. The company needs the ability to run dual-processor virtual machines
Answer: AB

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NO.17 Under which of the following conditions would an administrator consider using the Boot from SAN
option for the ESX Host (Choose Two)?
A. When concern exists that contention might occur between the Service Console and the VMkernel
B. When using Microsoft Cluster Service
C. To easily replicate the Service Console to a remote site
D. In diskless hardware configurations
Answer: CD

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NO.18 The default swap partition size for ESX 4.0 is which of the following?
A. 800MB
B. 1.6GB
C. 544MB
D. 600MB
Answer: D

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NO.19 When installing ESX 4.0, where is the Service Console file system located?
A. In a virtual disk on a local VMFS datastore
B. In a virtual disk on a local or shared VMFS datastore
C. On a local physical disk or on a mapped SAN LUN
D. On a local physical disk
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following partitions is specific to ESXi 4.0?
A. usr
B. vmkcore
C. scratch
D. swap
Answer: C

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NO.1 An administrator needs to allow traffic between two different networks within the same
Organization..Traffic on the internal network cannot be compromised.
Where must static routes be configured to enable this functionality?
A. On the source Internal network to the target External Routed network
B. On the source External Direct network to the target network
C. On the source Internal network to the target External Direct network
D. On the source External Routed network to the target network
Answer: D

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NO.2 An administrator is auditing IP address use in a specific Organizational Network.
Where will the administrator find this information?
A. The administrator can run a Global IP Allocation report
B. The information can be located in the IP Allocation properties for the specific Organizational Network
C. The information can be located in the System Properties of the Organizational Network
D. The administrator can run an IP Allocation report for the specific Organizational Network
Answer: B

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NO.3 An administrator is updating the system SMTP server settings.
Where will the administrator change this setting?
A. The Email Server settings in the Alerts section of the Administration page.
B. The Email section in the System settings section of the Administration page.
C. The Email Server settings in the Servers section of the Administration page.
D. The Email Services configuration file on each vCD Cell.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A virtual machine in the QA Organization must communicate with a virtual machine in the Research
Organization. When creating a Static Route, which two pieces of information are required (Choose Two)?
A. The Classless Interdomain Routing (CIDR) address
B. The address of the next hop
C. The subnet address of the target network
D. The address of the target vShield device
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
An administrator needs to configure a vSphere environment to support a vCloud network architecture
providing for automatic provisioning of network pools.
Which step must be taken in order to successfully configure Port Group Isolation?
A. vShield Edge component must be added between the External Network and the virtual switch.
B. VLAN/PVLAN configuration information must be added to the configuration.
C. A vShield Edge component must be added between the Unprotected Network and the virtual switch.
D. The Virtual Standard Switch must be replaced with a vSphere Distributed Switch.
Answer: D

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NO.6 An administrator attempts to delete the network named Internet but receives an error.
What is a possible reason for the error?
A. The network named Internet is backed by a port group on a vSphere Standard Switch.
B. The vShield Edge appliance on the external network is powered off.
C. The administrator needs to be an Organization Administrator.
D. The network is still in use by an Organization.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Due to diminishing capacity, an ESXi host is added to a cluster that supports a cloud environment.
A vCloud Administrator notices that newly created VMs created through vCD are not utilizing the host
resource. What is the reason for this?
A. An inventory synchronization was not performed after the new host was added to the cluster.
B. The host was not manually added to an organizational vDC before it was utilized.
C. The host was not prepared to be part of the vCD environment.
D. DRS was not enabled on the cluster providing resources to the vCD environment.
Answer: C

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NO.8 An administrator needs a list of all hosts and statuses across all Provider vDCs in a vCloud Director
environment. Where will the administrator find this information?
A. In the Hosts section of the vSphere Resources pane of the System tab
B. In the Host Status report of vCenter Chargeback
C. In the Hosts section of the vSphere Resources pane of the Administration tab
D. In the Host settings section of each organization
Answer: A

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NO.9 An administrator receives the error:
Unable to create vShield Edge VM
while using the Reset Network function on vApp or Organizational Networks. What is the cause of this
error?
A. The vApp or Organizational Network name is too long.
B. The vShield Edge VM resource pool is out of resources.
C. The vShield Manager appliance is not registered to vCD.
D. The vShield Manager appliance is not registered to vCenter.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which core vSphere feature can be used to improve the availability of vShield components?
A. VM Monitoring
B. vCenter Server Heartbeat
C. Fault Tolerance
D. HA Monitoring
Answer: A

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NO.11 A virtual machine in the Finance Organization must communicate with a virtual machine in the Sales
Organization. The virtual machine in the Finance Organization has been defined with an external IP
address. A static route has been created on the Finance Organization Network.
For communication to successfully occur between these two virtual machines, how many vShield Edge
devices and how many firewall rules would need to be deployed (Choose Two)?
A. 3 vShield Edge devices
B. 2 vShield Edge devices
C. 3 Firewall rules
D. 2 Firewall rules
Answer: A,B

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NO.12 A user has been assigned a single external IP address that connects to the Internet. The user has a
vApp containing 4 VMs deployed in the Organization VDC. Which technology will allow a user s VMs to
accept incoming traffic the Internet?
A. Firewall Rules
B. Port Forwarding
C. IP Translation
D. 1:1 NAT
Answer: B

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NO.13 Where must an administrator place sysprep files in order for Guest OS Customizations to work on all
supported versions of Windows?
A. On the VM during vApp creation.
B. On the vCD management cluster.
C. In a specific location on all vCD Cells.
D. In a specific location on the vCenter Servers.
Answer: C

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NO.14 A vApp is deployed within an internal vApp Network. One VM in the vApp is configured to use NAT.
The vApp is converted to a vApp template and deployed to the Organization. After deploying the vApp,
network connectivity does not function as expected.
What explains this behavior?
A. vApps using NAT require the use of Network Pools.
B. The vApp should be connected to an External Direct network.
C. All virtual machines in a vApp must use the same NAT settings.
D. The vApp NAT configuration settings are lost when a vApp is deployed.
Answer: D

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NO.15 An administrator is unable to connect to the Internet from within the cloud..The administrator suspects
the firewall setting is causing the issue.
Which troubleshooting step should the user take first?
A. Open Configure Services for the External Network
B. Open Configure Services for the External Routed Organizational network
C. Open Configure Services for the vShield Edge device
D. Open Configure Services for the External Direct Organizational network
Answer: B

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NO.16 An administrator needs to configure a vShield Edge device that allows for incoming pings.
Which two steps would allow incoming pings? (Choose two.)
A. The rule must have the Log network traffic for firewall rule setting checked.
B. A rule must be created that allows for outgoing traffic and the UDP protocol.
C. The default rule must be set to Disable.
D. A rule must be created that allows for incoming traffic and the ICMP protocol.
Answer: C,D

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NO.17 Click the Exhibit button.
ACME has a Web Server virtual machine with an IP Address of 192.168.0.27. It is not responding to
incoming customer requests on either internal or external networks. The network is an External Routed
network with the firewall rules displayed in the exhibit.
Which configuration change would correct this behavior?
A. Enable the Outgoing Web Services rule.
B. Enable the ACME External Internet rule
C. Change the IP Address of the Outgoing Web Services rule to 192.168.0.17
D. Delete the Outgoing Web Services rule
Answer: A

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NO.18 An administrator has scheduled a report to run at 8 PM nightly and has configured a number of
recipients to receive the report. After the report runs, the administrator discovers that a link to the report
was sent to the recipients, not the report itself. Why did this occur?
A. vCenter Chargeback cannot support attachments via email.
B. The report size was larger than the size limit configured for the SMTP server.
C. vCenter Chargevack was configured to send links instead of attachments.
D. The SMTP server was configured not to accept attachments.
Answer: B

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NO.19 A vCloud Service Provider is attempting to monitor a vCloud implementation. The service is unavailable
from the Organization network. Firewall rules on the vShield Edge device are set correctly. Why would the
service be unavailable?
A. IP Masquerading rules are not set.
B. NAT is not automatically assigned.
C. Static routing is not enabled.
D. DHCP is not scoped properly.
Answer: A

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NO.20 An administrator needs to store a multi-VM vApp in a vCloud so that others can easily deploy.
Where should the administrator store this item?
A. In the Content Management System.
B. In an organization catalog.
C. On the vCD cell s local storage.
D. On the primary data store.
Answer: B

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Exam Name: Tibco (TIBCO Collaborative Information Manager 7 Exam)
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Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 Which three are valid topic names with TIBCO CIM? (Choose three.)
A. T_ECM_CORE_ADMIN
B. T_ECM_CORE_RULE_CACHE
C. T_ECM_CORE_OBJECT_CACHE
D. T_ECM_CORE_REPOSITORY_CACHE
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 To enable text search continuous indexing, the Text Indexing Enabled property is set to which option?
A. Online
B. Offline
C. Discrete
D. Continuous
E. User Enabled
Answer: B

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NO.3 The following sample section of a rulebase will result in the displaying of which alerts on the UI?
A. Warning Only
B. Information Only
C. Severe Error Only
D. No alerts will be presented
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which three statements are true about context variables for a rulebase? (Choose three.)
A. The SESSION object requires explicit declaration in therulebase.
B. Previous confirmed and unconfirmed version records can be accessed.
C. Attribute access can be restricted to certain roles using context variables.
D. RECORD_ACTION is a special variable and can be directly used for operation.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.5 A string type attribute that is set to 0 length will default to what actual length?
A. 32 characters
B. 512 characters
C. 256 characters
D. 1000 characters
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two configurable settings are related to workflow in TIBCO CIM Configurator? (Choose two.)
A. Workflow Cache Size
B. Workflow Timeout Value
C. Workflow Restart Attempts
D. Workflow Manager Directory
E. Workflow File Extension Default
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 Which of the following parameters are required to retrieve a deleted record using a web service query?
A. RECORD_ID and ACTIVE
B. RECORD_STATE and ACTIVE
C. RECORD_VERSION and ACTIVE
D. RECORD_ID and RECORD_STATE
E. No parameters settings are required
F. RECORD_VERSION and RECORD_ID
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which three are supported command types for the MasterCatalogRecord web services? (Choose
three.)
A. Add
B. Copy
C. Query
D. Modify
E. Compare
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.9 Which three ProgrammingOperators are supported while defining new conditions and actions for
Business Process Rules? (Choose three.)
A. equals
B. lessThan
C. notEqualTo
D. greaterThanEqual
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.10 Which two statements are true about Subflow and SpawnWorkflow activities? (Choose two.)
A. BothSubflows and SpawnWorkflows can be nested.
B. Subflows can be nested, but SpawnWorkflows can not.
C. Both execution modes are supported by both activities.
D. SpawnWorkflow is ASYNCHR and Subflow is SYNCHR.
E. Subflow is ASYNCHR and SpawnWorkflow is SYNCHR.
Answer: A,C

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NO.11 What can be used to retrieve all records that match a value across all repositories?
A. Text Search
B. Event Search
C. Subset Rules
D. Record Search
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which three statements are true about the catalogs when used for extracting the data from a repository?
(Choose three.)
A. You can choose which attributes are to be extracted.
B. You can choose which record status should be included.
C. You can choose subset rules defined on a different master catalog.
D. You can choose anyrulebase if there are any transformation rules to be applied.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.13 Which activity must be used to send an e-mail message?
A. Send
B. HandleMessaging
C. SendProtocolMessage
D. ProcessServiceMessage
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which two values can be set for a user via the User Accounts Administration page? (Choose two.)
A. Date Format
B. Default Repository
C. Activate Delegation
D. Activate Auto-Approval
E. Default Catalog Format
F. Activate Out-Of-Office Notification
Answer: A,C

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NO.15 Which TIBCO CIM utility is used to apply a hot fix?
A. tibcoUtil
B. hotfixUtil
C. migrateUtil
D. customUtil
E. tibcoCIMUtil
Answer: A

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NO.16 What are six types of command qualifiers supported by MasterCatalogRecord web services? (Choose
six.)
A. Add
B. Modify
C. Delete
D. MetaData
E. ValidValues
F. ValidValuesInit
G. Validate/Process
Answer: A,B,D,E,F,G

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NO.17 The workflow activities that support parallel processing can be tuned for performance. This can be
achieved by configuring a parameter for the activity RecordPerAsyncCall. What is the default value for
this parameter?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 50
D. 100
Answer: B

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NO.18 You delete the log files in the MQ_COMMON_DIR/Work directory. What is affected?
A. Elink log
B. Event log
C. Record History
D. Repository History
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following statements is incorrect when using a database table as a CIM data source?
A. Any new records added to the table are immediately available to CIM
B. The table or view must reside in the same database instance that CIM is using
C. If the data source contains any attributes of typedate, all such attributes must have the same date
format
D. It is not possible to provide CIM specific column names for the table when defining the data source
properties
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which two can an input map use to assign an attribute a value? (Choose two.)
A. hard-coded value
B. a concatenation of two or moredatasource columns
C. an expression based on the value of a child record attribute
D. a user-supplied value provided during execution of the import event
Answer: A,B

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Exam Name: The Open Group (TOGAF 9 Part 2)
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Last Update: 2013-12-01

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NO.1 Scenario: AGEX Inc.
Please read this scenario prior to answering the question
AGEX is a large, global commodities trading company which has been growing rapidly through a series of
acquisitions.
Each new business is performing well in its markets. However, the lack of integration between
headquarters and the business units has increasingly caused problems in the handling of customer and
financial information. The inability to share information across businesses has resulted in lost
opportunities to "leverage the synergies" that had been intended when the businesses were acquired. At
present, each business unit maintains its own applications. Despite an earlier initiative to install a common
application to manage customer, products, supplier, and inventory information, each business unit has
different ways of defining each of these core elements and has customized the common application to the
point where the ability to exchange information is difficult, costly, and error-prone.
As a result, AGEX has begun implementing a single Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system to
consolidate information from several applications that exist across the lines of business. The Corporate
Board is concerned that the new ERP system must be able to manage and safeguard customer
information in a manner that meets or exceeds the legal requirements of the countries in which the
company operates. This will be an increasingly important capability as the company expands its online
services offered to clients and trading partners.
The CIO has formed an Enterprise Architecture department, and one of the primary goals in its charter is
to coordinate efforts between the ERP implementation team and the business unit personnel who will be
involved in the migration process. The CIO has also formed a cross-functional Architecture Review Board
to oversee and govern the architecture.
After reviewing the available alternatives, and based on recommendations from the ERP vendor, AGEX
has selected TOGAF 9 as the basis for its Enterprise Architecture program.
The CIO has endorsed this choice with the full support of top management.
Refer to the AGEX Inc. Scenario
You are serving as the Chief Architect.
You have been asked to recommend the approach to take in the Preliminary Phase to ensure that the
Corporate Board's concern is addressed.
Based en TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?
A. You evaluate the implications of the Board's concern in terms of regulatory and security policy
requirements. You then update the AGEX security policy to reflect the concern, ensuring that this policy is
communicated across the organization. You allocate a security architecture team to ensure that security
considerations are included in ongoing architecture planning. You then assess the security implications
and agreements within the AGEX businesses and their suppliers.
B. You evaluate the implications of the Board's concern in terms of regulatory requirements and their
impact on business goals and objectives. Based on this understanding, you then issue a Request for
Architecture Work to commence an architecture development project to develop a solution that will
address the Board's concern. You allocate a security architect to oversee the implementation of the
solution in the ERP system that is being developed.
C. You start by clarifying the intent that the Board has for raising this concern. This enables you to
understand the implications of the concern in terms of regulatory requirements and the potential impact on
current business goals and objectives. You propose that a security architect or security architecture team
be allocated to develop comprehensive security architecture.
D. You evaluate the implications of the Board's concern by examining the potential impacts on business
goals and objectives. Based on your understanding, you then update the current AGEX security policy to
include an emphasis on the Board's concern. In addition, you allocate a security architect to ensure that
security considerations are included in the architecture planning for all domains.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Scenario: Vittronics Ltd.
Please read this scenario prior to answering the question
Vittronics Ltd. is a leading medical device manufacturer in the highly competitive market for Migraine
Headache Pain Management (MHPM) devices. These tiny wireless devices are implanted in the brain
and can deliver a precise electric shock when the wearable Pain Control Unit (PCU) detects an increase
in stress induced by the onset of a migraine headache.
This technology will be a breakthrough in the treatment of this condition, and several competitors are
striving to be the first to introduce a product into the market. However, all of them must demonstrate the
effectiveness and safety of their products in a set of clinical trials that will satisfy the regulatory
requirements of the countries in the target markets.
The Enterprise Architecture group at Vittronics has been engaged in an architecture development project
to create a Secure Private Immersive Collaborative Environment (SPICE) that will allow researchers at its
product development laboratories worldwide to share information about their independent clinical trials.
The Vittronics Enterprise Architecture group is a mature organization that has been utilizing TOGAF for
several years. They have recently upgraded to TOGAF 9. The Vittronics Architecture Development
Method (VADM) is strictly based on the TOGAF 9 Architecture Development Method (ADM) with
extensions required to support current good manufacturing practices and good laboratory practices in
their target markets.
The SPICE project team has now completed the Business, Information Systems, and Technology
Architecture phases and has produced a complete set of deliverables for each phase. Due to the highly
sensitive nature of the information that is managed in SPICE, special care was taken to ensure that each
architecture domain included an examination of the security and privacy issues that are relevant for each
domain. A corresponding SPICE Security Architecture has been defined.
The Executive Vice President for Clinical Research is the sponsor of the Enterprise Architecture activity.
Refer to the Vittronics Ltd Scenario:
You are serving as the Lead Architect for the SPICE project team.
As required by TOGAF, the SPICE project team res completed a Business Transformation Readiness
Assessment in Phase A (Architecture Vision). In that assessment, it was determined that there are risks
associated with the adoption of the Immersive Collaborative Environment. Despite a clear expression of
the vision and the business need for utilizing SPICE to accelerate the clinical trials, the researchers have
been resisting the change because of concerns about safeguarding individually identifiable information
about the subjects who were participating in the trials.
You have been asked to recommend how this situation be managed in the implementation planning
phases.
Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?
A. You decide that in Phase E, the team creates an overall solutions strategy that can guide the Target
Architecture implementation and structure the Transition Architectures. You check that there is consensus
before proceeding.
B. You decide to return to Phase A, where the team should brainstorm a technical solution that mitigates
the residual risks presented by the privacy issue. Then, during Phase D, you will directthe team to
develop an Architecture Building Block to manage the security risks. After that, the team should select
Solution Building Blocks that mitigate all of the identified risks and revise the Requirements Impact
Statement to reflect the changes to the high-level solutions strategy and migration plan.
C. You decide that in Phase E, the team review the Business Transformation Readiness Assessment and
identify, classify, and mitigate the risks associated with the identified readiness factors. If the risks can be
satisfactorily mitigated, then you would continue to define a high-level solutions strategy that includes the
Transition Architectures needed to make the change culturally and technically feasible.
D. You decide that in Phase E, the team determines an approach to implementing an overall strategic
direction that will address and mitigate the risks identified.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Scenario: Global Mobile 1
Please read this scenario prior to answering the question
Global Mobile is a mobile telecommunications company formed through a series of mergers and
acquisitions. They are yet to fully integrate the customer service systems for the most recent acquisitions,
and as result, customer service has been a major concern for the Chief Technology Officer.
Results for the last two quarters have shown that Average Revenue Per User (ARPU) and the customer
retention (Churn) rate have fallen below the industry average. The Corporate Marketing group has
published some new findings about customer satisfaction. The customers appear to be switching to Air
Light, a competitor, because of superior customer service. Global Mobile actually has better coverage in
nearly all markets than Air Light, and good roaming agreements that keep rates low for business travelers.
But, customer satisfaction has remained low.
The Business Strategy group and the Enterprise Architecture group have conducted a high-level project
to develop the enterprise-wide strategic plan. They have developed a business scenario which contains a
good conceptual model of what needs to be done, and also identifies the key requirements. This was
used in preparing the proposal presented to the Executive Council and the Corporate Board.
The planning for the program has been underway for several months. Global Mobile has selected TOGAF
9 as the basis for its Enterprise Architecture.
The Corporate Board has approved funding for a multi-million Euro conversion to transition to a packaged
Customer Service System. It is anticipated that the overall program will take five years to complete, but
there are some tactical projects that can commence immediately to address the situation. The Corporate
Board has placed one additional major constraint on the program. In addition to achieving the business
outcomes directly related to improving overall customer service within each business unit, the Corporate
Board expects the Target Architecture to produce an additional saving of at least 30% over current
operating costs through energy efficiency initiatives, virtualization of servers and workstations, and
expanded telecommuting and desk-sharing. This Green initiative is intended to become a model for future
investments at all company facilities worldwide.
Refer to Global Mobile scenario
You have been engaged as a consultant to advise the Chief Architect on the best ways to approach to the
implementation planning activities for this significant business transformation.
Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer? (Is this the right answers to choose?)
A. You recommend using conventional implementation planning techniques. The horizontal scope of the
Green initiative would make the Capability-Based Planning approach used in the organization's
TOGAF-based Enterprise Architecture framework difficult to manage and govern. This approach to
planning was better applied within the vertical scope of a business unit.
B. You recommend that the implementation planning activities be conducted using Capability-Based
Planning. This is appropriate because the Green initiative is an enterprise-wide plan with a horizontal
scope. Its metrics are aggregated at the enterprise level. It is crucial to gain business unit support and
cooperation to achieve the broader business outcomes which will benefit all.
C. The Capability-Based Planning approach used in the organization's TOGAF-based Enterprise
Architecture framework is focused on business outcomes. The Green initiative is an infrastructure
program that is technical in nature; therefore, it would not be appropriate to use the Capability-Based
Planning approach. Instead, the Global Mobile systems development lifecycle approach should be
utilized to develop the Solution Architecture.
D. You recommend using conventional implementation planning techniques. The Capability-Based
Planning approach is normally only used in public sector, defense-related programs. This approach is not
appropriate for a private sector company.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Scenario: Zephyr Enterprises
Please read this scenario prior to answering the question
Zephyr Enterprises specializes in the development of wind turbine blades for use in large-scale
commercial wind energy production systems. Zephyr has manufacturing facilities located in Palm Springs,
California, Omaha, Nebraska, and Winnipeg, Ontario. Each of these plants supplies a different
manufacturer that builds and sells complete systems. The turbine blades are custom engineered to meet
each manufacturers design specifications.
Until recently, most turbine blades were fabricated manually using molded fiber-reinforced plastics.
However, recent improvements in composite materials, coupled with enhanced automated methods for
precision application of materials during the molding process, have led to significant reduction in weight,
increase in strength, and greatly improved blade longevity. Zephyr has pioneered the development of a
proprietary automated process for continuous extrusion of the turbine blades. Patents have been filed to
protect the process, but certain trade secrets must be closely guarded.
Zephyr has a mature Enterprise Architecture organization that is supported by a cross-functional
Architecture Review Board. The Chief Information Officer and the Chief Operating Officer cosponsor the
Enterprise Architecture program.
Zephyr has used TOGAF and its Architecture Development Method (ADM) to develop its automated
manufacturing processes and systems that are used to design, manufacture, and test the blade
assemblies. They have recently updated to TOGAF 9 and have adapted the Zephyr Enterprise
Architecture to closely follow the TOGAF 9 framework. All of Zephyrs IT architects have been trained and
certified on TOGAF 9.Recently, an architecture project was completed that defined a standard approach
for controlling the Automated Test System that is used at each plant to perform final quality assurance
tests on each completed blade assembly. The Manufacturing Architecture Board approved the plan for
immediate implementation at each plant.
An Architecture Contract was developed that detailed the work needed to implement and deploy the new
Automated Test System controller. The Chief Engineer, sponsor of the activity, has expressed concern
that a uniform process be employed at each site to ensure consistency.
Refer to the Zephyr Enterprises Scenario
You are the Lead Architect for this activity.
You have been asked to recommend the best approach to adopt to address the Chief Engineer's concern.
Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?
A. You create an Architecture Contract to manage and govern the implementation and migration process.
If the contract is issued to an external party, you ensure that it is a fully enforceable legal contract. For
internal development projects, you decide it is adequate to utilize a memorandum of understanding
between the Manufacturing Architecture Board and the implementation organization. You recommend
that if a deviation from the contract is detected, the Manufacturing Architecture Board should modify the
Architecture Contract to allow the implementation organization the ability to customize the process to
meet their local needs. As a result, you then issue a new Request for Architecture Work to implement the
modified Architecture Definition.
B. You create an Architecture Contract to manage and govern the implementation and migration process.
If the contract is issued to an external party, you ensure that it is a fully enforceable legal contract. For
internal envelopment projects, you decide it is adequate to utilize a memorandum of understanding
between the Manufacturing Architecture Board and the implementation organization. You recommend
that if a deviation from the Architecture Contract is detected, the Manufacturing Architecture Board grant a
dispensation to allow the implementation organization the ability to customize the process to meet their
local needs.
C. You create an Architecture Contract to manage and govern the implementation and migration process.
If the contract is issued to an external party, you ensure that it is a fully enforceable legal contract. For
internal development projects, you decide it is adequate to utilize amemorandum of understanding
between the Manufacturing Architecture Board and the implementation organization. You ensure that the
Manufacturing Architecture Board reviews all deviations from the Architecture Contract, and considers
whether or not to grant a dispensation to allow the implementation organization to customize the process
to meet their local needs.
D. You create an Architecture Contract to govern the implementation and migration process at each site. If
the contract is issued to an external party, you ensure that it is a fully enforceable legal contract. You
ensure that the contract addresses the project objectives, effectiveness metrics, acceptance criteria, and
risk management. You then schedule compliance reviews at key points in the implementation process to
ensure that the work is proceeding in accordance with the Architecture Definition. Based on the results,
you ensure that the Manufacturing Architecture Board reviews all deviations from the Architecture
Contract, and considers whether or not to grant a dispensation to allow the implementation organization
to customize the process to meet their local needs.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Scenario: Rollins Manufacturing
Please read this scenario prior to answering the question
Rollins Manufacturing is a major supplier in the automotive industry, headquartered in Cleveland, Ohio
with manufacturing plants in Chicago, Sao Paulo, Stuttgart, Yokohama, and Seoul. Each of these plants
has been operating its own Manufacturing Requirements Planning (MRPII) system, production scheduling,
and custom developed applications that drive the automated production equipment at each plant.
Rollins is implementing lean manufacturing principles to minimize waste and improve the efficiency of all
of its production operations. During a recent exercise held for internal quality improvement, it was
determined that a significant reduction in process waste could be achieved by replacing the current MRPII
and scheduling systems with a common Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system located in the
Cleveland data center. This central system would provide support to each of the plants replacing the
functionality in the existing systems. It would also eliminate the need for full data centers at each of the
plant facilities. A reduced number of IT staff could support the remaining applications. In some cases, a
third-party contractor could provide those staff.
The Rollins Enterprise Architecture department has been operating for several years and has mature,
well-developed architecture governance and development processes that are strongly based on TOGAF
9.At a recent meeting, the Architecture Review Board approved a Request for Architecture Work from the
Chief Engineer of Global Manufacturing Operations who is the project sponsor. The request covered the
initial architectural investigations and the development of a comprehensive architecture to plan the
transformation.
The Common ERP Deployment architecture project team has now been formed, and the project team has
been asked to develop an Architecture Vision that will achieve the desired outcomes and benefits. Some
of the plant managers have expressed concern about the security and reliability of driving their MRPII and
production scheduling from a central system located in Cleveland. The Chief Engineer wants to know how
these concerns can be addressed.
Refer to the Rollins Manufacturing Scenario:
You are serving as the Lead Enterprise Architect for the Common ERP Deployment architecture project.
One of the earliest initiatives in the Enterprise Architecture program at Rollins was the definition of a set of
IT principles and architecture principles that are well aligned with the overall enterprise principles. These
now need to be updated to address the concerns raised.
You have been asked to select a set of principles most appropriate for guiding the team to define a robust
solution.
[Note: You should assume that Rollins has adopted the example set of principles that are listed and
defined in TOGAF 9, Section 23.6.]
Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?
A. Common-use Applications, Data is Shared, Data is Accessible, Data is Secure, Interoperability, Control
Technical Diversity.
B. Business Continuity, Service-orientation, Data is Accessible, Data is Secure, Responsive Change
Management.
C. Maximize Benefit to the Enterprise, Business Continuity, Common-use Applications, Data is Shared,
Data is Accessible, Data is Secure.
D. Information Management is Everybody's Business, IT Responsibility, Data Trustee, Technology
Independence, Responsive Change Management.
Answer: C

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